Numero 8 Flashcards

1
Q

how do pts with intracranial hypertension (of any etiology) present?

A

headache that’s worse at night, n/v, and mental status changes (eg, decreased level of consciousness, cognitive dysfunction)
pts may also have focal neurologic symptoms (vision changes, unsteady gait) and seizures
symptoms can worsen with maneuvers that further increase intracranial pressure (eg, LEANING FORWARD, valsalva, cough)
papilledema may be seen on exam
*Cushing reflex (HTN, bradycardia, respiratory depression) is a worrisome finding suggestive of brainstem compression

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2
Q

in cases of intravascular hemolysis, what do haptoglobin levels do? and why?

A

Haptoglobin is a serum protein that binds free hemoglobin and promotes its excretion by the reticuloendothelial system (intravascular erythrocyte destruction results in free hemoglobin in the serum)
in intravascular hemolysis, the amount of free hemoglobin in the serum exceeds the binding capacity of haptoglobin, thereby DECREASING HAPTOGLOBIN LEVELS

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3
Q

what are important risk factors for respiratory distress syndrome in a newborn?

A

Prematurity and MATERNAL DIABETES MELLITUS!

others include male sex, perinatal asphyxia, and c/s without labor

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4
Q

what is the mechanism by which a cardiac stress test with adenosine identifies ischemic areas of the myocardium?

A

adenosine stimulates adenosine A2A receptors on vascular smooth muscle cells and causes coronary vasodilation and increased myocardial blood flow
**there is a several-fold augmentation of blood flow in nonobstructed coronary arteries – blood flow is also increased in stenosed coronary arteries but to a much lesser extent! – this relative blood flow difference is magnified from rest, causing a detectable reduction in radioactive isotope uptake by myocardial cells in areas supplied by a stenotic coronary artery

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5
Q

how do you tx vaginal candidiasis?

A

Oral Fluconazole

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6
Q

what immunologic rxn occurs within 1 hour of blood transfusion and presents with fever, flank pain, hemoglobinuria, renal failure and DIC? what is the cause?

A

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction
Caused by ABO incompatibility

Dx is made by a positive direct Coobs test, pink plasma (plasma free hgb >/= 25 mg/dL), hemoglobinuria, and repeat type and cross-match showing a mismatch

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7
Q

What is erysipelas? what bug most commonly causes it? and what PE finding is particularly suggestive of erysipelas?

A

Erysipelas = a skin infection of the UPPER DERMIS and superficial lymphatic system
Most common caused by GROUP A STREP
Pts rapidly develop systemic symptoms (f/c), regional lymphadenitis, and a warm, tender, erythematous rash notable for RAISED, SHARPLY DEMARCATED BORDERS
**involvement of the EXTERNAL EAR is particularly suggestive of erysipelas as this skin lacks a lower dermis level (making cellulitis unlikely)

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8
Q

Postcholecystectomy syndrome is persistent abdominal pain or dyspepsia either post-op (early) or months to years (late) after cholecystectomy. When this is suspected, what studies should you get to evaluate for it?

A

Abdominal imaging (ultrasound) followed by ERCP (direct visualization)!!

*etiologies include biliary (retained common bile duct, cystic duct stone) or extra-biliary (pancreatitis, peptic ulcer dz) causes

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9
Q

when you have disseminated gonococcal infection, what does the rash usually look like?

A

usually vesiculopustular and rarely involves the face

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10
Q

an unvaccinated adolescent presents with a prodrome of mild fever, LAD, and malaise. A blanching, erythematous, maculopapular rash erupts on their face and spreads caudally within 24 hours, sparing the palms and soles. They also have polyarthralgia and/or arthritis. what is this?

A

Rubella!!

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11
Q

an unvaccinated adolescent presents with a prodrome of mild fever, LAD, and malaise. A blanching, erythematous, maculopapular rash erupts on their face and spreads caudally within 24 hours, sparing the palms and soles. They also have polyarthralgia and/or arthritis. what is this?

A

Rubella!!

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12
Q

symptoms of bland tasting food (secondary to anosmia) and recurrent nasal discharge/congestion are typical in pts with what?

A

Nasal polyps! -exam would reveal the presence of b/l grey, glistening mucoid masses in the nasal cavities

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13
Q

How do pts with Kallmann syndrome present? what is their genotype?

A

genotype is normal (so 46 XX in girls, 46 XY in boys) and also have normal internal reproductive organs
present with delayed/absent puberty, short stature, and anosmia (can’t smell)
FSH and LH levels are low due to gonadotropin-releasing hormone deficiency
x-linked recessive disorder of migration of fetal GnRH and olfactory neurons, resulting in hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and rhinencephalon hypoplasia

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14
Q

the development of a new conduction abnormality in pts with infective endocarditis should raise suspicion for what?

A

a perivalvular abscess extending into the adjacent cardiac conduction pathways

  • IV drug abuse is also an independent predictor of periannular extension of infection
  • cardiac conduction abnormalities are uncommon in pts with tricuspid valve endocarditis (more w/ aortic valve)
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15
Q

what enzyme is deficient in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome? also what symptoms do you see?

A

hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HPRT), an enzyme involved in purine metabolism. leads to increased levels of uric acid
x-linked recessive
symptoms = self-mutilation, neuro features (mental retardation, dystonia, choreoathetosis, spasticity), gouty arthritis, and tophus formation

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16
Q

what enzyme is deficient in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

A

hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HPRT), an enzyme involved in purine metabolism. leads to increased levels of uric acid
x-linked recessive
symptoms = self-mutilation, neuro features (mental retardation, dystonia, choreoathetosis, spasticity), gouty arthritis, and tophus formation

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17
Q

epitrochlear LAD is particularly pathognomonic for what STD?

A

Syphilis (secondary stage)

*sailors would routinely perform a 2-handed “sailor’s handshake” (w/ one hand on the elbow) to determine if potential partners had epitrochlear nodes prior to engaging their company

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18
Q

the most common cause of folic acid deficiency is nutritional due to poor diet and/or alcoholism. what are the commonly used drugs that can also cause folic acid deficiency?

A

Phenytoin, primidone, phenobarbital
Methotrexate
Trimethoprim (like with TMP-SMX)

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19
Q

the most common cause of folic acid deficiency is nutritional due to poor diet and/or alcoholism. what are the commonly used drugs that can also cause folic acid deficiency?

A

Phenytoin
Methotrexate
Trimethoprim (like with TMP-SMX)

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20
Q

how should you attempt to remove small vaginal foreign bodies in children before moving to sedation/general anesthesia for exam/foreign body removal?

A

attempt to remove with a calcium alginate swab or Irrigation w/ warmed fluids after a topical anesthetic has been applied

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21
Q

how do you tx lichen sclerosus?

A

Topical corticosteroids

*vs atrophic vaginitis, which is treated with low-dose topical estrogen

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22
Q

what is the mechanism of amenorrhea in female athletes that have a relative caloric deficit due to the amount of energy they expend in training?

A

hypothalamic amenorrhea

hormones levels = decreased GnRH, decreased LH and FSH, and decreased estrogen
** if they were doping with androgenic steroids, they would present with virilization, such as male-pattern baldness, deepening voice, clitoromegaly; as well as aggressive behavior and mood disorders

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23
Q

what antibiotic should be used as prophylaxis in cat bites? what particular organism are you trying to cover against?

A

Amoxicillin/clavulanate

it has activity against Pasteurella multocida (gram-neg coccobacilli) and oral anaerobes found in the mouth of cats

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24
Q

where is renin located and what is its role in the RAAS?

A

Renin is produced in the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney in response to hypoperfusion
Renin cleaves angiotensinogen into angiotensin I (which is converted into angiotensin II by ACE in the lung. Ang II is a potent vasoconstrictor that also promotes aldosterone production in the adrenal cortex)

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25
Q

what is the initial management in a hemodynamically stable pt with regular and narrow complex tachycardia (QRS duration < 120 ms) at a fast rate = Supraventricular tachycardia?

A

IV adenosine! or vagal maneuvers (carotid sinus massage, Valsalva, eyeball pressure) – these temporarily slow conduction via the AV node and can aid in dx by unmasking “hidden” P waves in pts with A flutter or atrial tachycardia – adenosine can also terminate paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias by interrupting the AV nodal reentry circuit

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26
Q

what is the initial management in a hemodynamically stable pt with regular and narrow complex tachycardia (QRS duration < 120 ms) at a fast rate = Supraventricular tachycardia?

A

IV adenosine! or vagal maneuvers (carotid sinus massage, Valsalva, eyeball pressure) – these temporarily slow conduction via the AV node and can aid in dx by unmasking “hidden” P waves in pts with A flutter or atrial tachycardia

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27
Q

how do you differentiate between achalasia and pseudoachalasia (eg, narrowing of distal esophagus not due to denervation –like maybe cancer)?

A

endoscopic evaluation

28
Q

what does it mean when a pt is positive for Anti-HBs and Anti-HBc (as in hepatitis B screening)?

A

Resolved hepatitis B infection (or immune due to natural HBV infection)

*Only Anti-HBs is positive in people vaccinated for HBV

29
Q

what should you do when a patient taking the antithyroid drugs propylthiouracil or methimazole complains of fever and sore throat?

A

STOP the drug immediately! and measure the WBC count
AGRANULOCYTOSIS is suggested by these findings
a total WBC count < 1,000 warrants permanent discontinuation of the drug

30
Q

Renal failure pts with BUN levels > 60 are at risk for developing what?

A

Uremic pericarditis
presentation = sharp and pleuritic chest pain, pericardial friction rub, uremia
*usually does not present with classic ECG findings of pericarditis (diffuse ST-segment elevations) as the inflammatory cells do not penetrate the myocardium
**DIALYSIS is the most effective tx

31
Q

Renal failure pts with BUN levels > 60 are at risk for developing what?

A

Uremic pericarditis

presentation = sharp and pleuritic chest pain, pericardial friction rub, uremia

32
Q

what does liver biopsy show in kids with Reye syndrome?

A

Microvesicular steatosis (fatty infiltration)

*this in the context of acute hepatic encephalopathy = Reye syndrome (kid given aspirin when they have a viral infection, most commonly Influenza B, or influenza A or varicella zoster)

33
Q

what are indications for urgent exploratory laparotomy in pentrating abdominal trauma?

A

hemodynamic instability
Peritonitis (REBOUND TENDERNESS, guarding)
evisceration (ie, externally exposed intestines)
blood from a NG tube or on rectal exam

34
Q

how many weeks is an adequate antidepressant trial?

A

4-6 weeks at a therapeutic dosage

35
Q

A patient is wanting to get pregnant and takes levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. When and how should her dose be adjusted?

A

Increase the dose of levothyroxine at the time pregnancy is detected!

36
Q

in a post-menopausal women with signs of atrophic vaginitis, along with urinary urgency, frequency, recurrent UTIs, and incontinence, what is the reason for her urinary symptoms?

A

estrogen deficiency!
-results in atrophy of the superficial and intermediate layers of the vagina and urethral mucosal epithelium
-leads to diminished urethral closure pressure and loss of urethral compliance, which contribute to symptoms
(the bladder trigone, urethra, pelvic floor muscles, and endopelvic fascia all possess estrogen receptors and are maintained by adequate estrogen levels)

37
Q

osteolytic lesions (“soap-bubble” appearance on radiographs) in the epiphyseal regions of the long bones, most commonly the distal femur or proximal tibia. pt has pain, swelling, and decreased ROM of the joint at the involved site.

A

Giant cell tumor of bone

*in contrast to osteoid osteoma, which is a sclerotic, cortical lesion with a central nidus of lucency on imaging. pain is usually relieved by NSAIDs.

38
Q

transient episodes of unilateral foot drop, numbness/tingling over the dorsal foot and lateral shin, impaired ankle dorsiflexion (can’t walk on heels) and great toe extension, preserved plantar flexion (can walk on toes) and reflexes. this person has recently taken up meditation. what is this?

A

Common fibular neuropathy

caused by compression of the common fibular (peroneal) nerve, can be due to leg immobilization (cast, bedrest), prolonged leg crossing, or protracted squatting.

39
Q

the diaphragm is the most important muscle for enlarging the thoracic cavity and creating negative pressure during inhalation. In COPD there is diaphragmatic flattening and muscular shortening caused by hyperinflation… what does this result in?

A

it makes it more difficult to decrease the intrathoracic pressure during inspiration, and therefore INCREASES THE WORK OF BREATHING

40
Q

what does it mean for a test to be “reliable’”?

A

the test gives you similar or very close results on repeat measurements

41
Q

what should you do for long-term management of pts with pancreatitis due to gallstones (as confirmed on US of the gallbladder)?

A

Early cholecystectomy!!

-this is recommended for medically stable pts who recover from acute pancreatitis and are surgical candidates

42
Q

what is delayed sleep phase syndrome?

A

a circadian rhythm disorder characterized by the inability to fall asleep at “normal” bedtimes, resulting in sleep-onset insomnia and excessive daytime sleepiness
pts sleep normally if allowed to follow their internal circadian rhythm and sleep until late morning
*they may be Night Owls that have chronic problems going to sleep at a societally accepted time (prior to midnight)

43
Q

what are reversible risk factors for premature atrial contractions?

A

tobacco and alcohol (also caffeine)

beta blockers are helpful in symptomatic pts

44
Q

what are potential adverse effects of hydroxychloroquine?

A

Retinopathy!

*eye exams should be done periodically in pts taking it

45
Q

what type of dementia is this?… pt has alterations in consciousness, fluctuations in cognition, visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and relatively early compromise of executive functions. repeated falls and sleep disturbances are characteristic.

A

Dementia with Lewy bodies

*at autopsy, “Lewy bodies,” or eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions representing accumulations of alpha-synuclein protein, may be seen in neurons of the substantia nigra, locus ceruleus, dorsal raphe, and substantia innominata.

46
Q

what is the most reliable and predictive sign of opioid intoxication? what drug should be administered?

A

decreased respiratory rate!

other evidence = decreased bowel sounds and hypotension
***NALOXONE should be promptly administered, as it can result in rapid improvements in respiration in apneic and bradypneic pts (reducing the need for more invasive procedures)

47
Q

besides recent antibiotic use, what can predispose pts to C diff colitis?

A

hospitalization

use of PPIs (gastric acid suppression)!!!

48
Q

what is the D-xylose test? and what does decreased urinary excretion of D-xylose indicate?

A

D-xylose is a monosaccharide that is absorbed in the proximal small intestine without degradation by pancreatic or brush border enzymes
patiets with small intestinal mucosal disease, like Celiac disease**, will have impaired absorption of D-xylose, so urinary excretion will be LOW! (they didn’t absorb so it gets pooped out)
pts with malabsorption due to enzyme deficiencies (chronic pancreatitis) will have normal absorption of D-xylose, and thus normal urinary excretion

49
Q

what vaccines does the CDC recommend for people traveling to North Africa (Egypt)?

A

Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, and Typhoid vaccines, as well as a Polio booster vaccine
**Most Asian and African countries are high-risk zones for Hepatitis A

*yellow fever vaccination is recommended for people traveling to sub-Saharan Africa and equatorial South American countries

50
Q

pharyngitis, fever, and lower abdominal pain in a sexually active female/person =?

A

gonococcal pharyngitis and associated pelvic inflammatory disease
gonococcal pharyngitis is due to orogenital contact, may also have nontender cervical LAD

51
Q

how do you tx trigeminal neuralgia?

A

carbamazepine

52
Q

what drugs are known to cause crystal-induced acute kidney injury (aka, the drugs are easily precipitated in the renal tubules, and cause RENAL TUBULAR OBSTRUCTION and direct renal tubular toxicity?

A
Acyclovir**
Sulfonamides
Methotrexate
Ethylene glycol
protease inhibitors
53
Q

hx of chronic neck pain, limited neck rotation and lateral bending in a pt over 50 yrs old. also sensory deficit in the ipsilateral arm, motor function is intact. what is this most likely and what would neck radiography show?

A

Cervical spondylosis
bone spurs/osteophytes and sclerotic facet joints would be seen on x-ray
the sensory deficit is due to osteophyte-induced radiculopathy
limited neck rotation and lateral bending is due to osteoarthritis and secondary muscle spasm.

54
Q

what is the hallmark of prolonged seizures (status epilepticus) that can lead to persistent neurologic deficits and recurrent seizures?

A

cortical laminar necrosis

this is secondary to excitatory cytotoxicity

55
Q

what is the most common cause of ascites?

A

Cirrhosis! (chronic liver dz) either due to alcoholic liver disease or chronic viral hepatitis

all pts w/ new-onset ascites require paracentesis to determine the cause

56
Q

what class of drugs (and specific drugs) have been shown to slow the cognitive decline associated with Alzheimer’s disease?

A

reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors!

Donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine

57
Q

pt with a hx of malignancy develops back pain with motor and sensory abnormalities. bowel and bladder dysfunction occur late. (may have subacute back pain for months with a profound new change in severity and associated sxs). What do you suspect and what drug do you give asap?

A

Epidural spinal cord compression

IV glucocorticoids!!

58
Q

What is the mechanism by which Dobutamine, a beta-1 agonist, improves symptoms in patients with decompensated heart failure with low cardiac output states?

A

Dobutamine stimulates increased myocardial contractility leading to improved ejection fraction, REduced left ventricular end-systolic volume, and symptomatic improvement of decompensated heart failure (heart rate is also increased via Ca channel activation)

59
Q

decreased PASSIVE AND ACTIVE range of motion on shoulder exam, and more stiffness than pain. what is this?

A

Adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder)

Dx is confirmed on exam with >50% reduction in both passive and active ROM

60
Q

if someone has a really high BUN (uremia, typically > 100) and asterixis, how should you tx them?

A

Uremic encephalopathy is an indication for URGENT HEMODIALYSIS!

*lactulose is used for the management of hepatic encephalopathy in decompensated cirrhosis, but is of no help in the case of uremia

61
Q

how does digoxin toxicity typically present?

A

n/v, decreased appetite, confusion, and weakness

an inciting event, such as a viral illness or excessive diuretic use, can lead to volume depletion or renal injury that acutely elevates the digoxin level.

62
Q

pt with cough, hemoptysis, fatigue and weight loss for > 3 months. Hx of TB. Chest CT shows a cavitary lesion +/- a fungus ball. what is this?

A

Chronic pulmonary aspergillosis!

in addition to the symptoms and CT findings, pts also have to have Positive Aspergillus IgG serology to make the Dx

63
Q

PICA = what area of the brainstem?

A

lateral medulla!

*Don’t Pick (PICA) a horse (hoarseness) that can’t eat (dysphagia).
lateral medullary infarction (Wallenberg syndrome)

64
Q

what are the hemodynamic measurements in Septic shock?

A

Normal/decrease Preload – RA pressure and PCWP (due to capillary leak)
Increased CO – Cardiac Index
Decreased Afterload – Systemic vascular resistance (due to peripheral vasodilation)
Increased mixed venous oxygen saturation

65
Q

what are the causes of symmetric fetal growth restriction?

A

fetal chromosomal anomalies
first trimester/congenital infection (toxo, CMV)

onset usually in 1st trimester