Deck FIVEEE Flashcards

1
Q

vaginal bleeding, dilated cervical os, products of conception may be seen or felt at or above cervical os. what is this?

A

inevitable abortion

*in missed (no vaginal bleeding) and threatened (vaginal bleeding) abortions, the cervical os is closed

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2
Q

Adenomatous polyps carry increased malignant potential. what specific features make that risk even higher?

A
large polyps (>/= 1 cm)
**adenomas with high-grade dysplasia or VILLOUS features (a villan is bad)
high number (>/= 3 concurrent adenomas)
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3
Q

immunocompromised pt has systemic sxs, lung nodules, and brain abscess (causing seizures), and the cultures grow gram-positive, partially acid-fast, filamentous, branching rods. What is the organism? how do you tx?

A

Nocardia
Tx for pulmonary nocardiosis is TMP-SMX!!
(when the brain is involved, the carbapenems are added for better coverage)

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4
Q

what is the mechanism responsible for rapid pain relief when nitroglycerin is given for angina?

A

it causes systemic vasodilation, which causes a decrease in cardiac preload and thus a decrease in left ventricular end diastolic volume – this leads to a REDUCTION IN LEFT VENTRICULAR SYSTOLIC WALL STRESS, which results in decreased myocardial oxygen demand

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5
Q

refusal to speak in a specific social situation for greater than 1 month but engagement in normal communication in situations in which you feel comfortable (eg, at home w/ siblings) is what?

A

Selective mutism

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6
Q

pts are often asymptomatic but can present w/ extreme fatigue, B symptoms, infx, or weight loss. usually elderly. lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly are often present. Dramatic Lymphocytosis!! peripheral smear shows Mature Lymphocytes with the presence of Smudge cells.

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia!! -the most common type of leukemia in the United States

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7
Q

what is a well-known complication of giant cell arteritis?

A

Aortic aneurysm!

  • bc giant cell arteritis can involves the branches of the aorta
  • follow pts w/ serial CXRs
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8
Q

for pts w/ suspected postnasal drip, what is initial empiric treatment?

A

first-gen antihistamine (chlorpheniramine)

or combined antihistamine-decongestant (brompheniramine and pseudoephedrine)

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9
Q

what is the difference between dissociative amnesia and dissociative identity disorder?

A

dissociative amnesia is a pts inability to recall important personal information, it can consist of localized or selective amnesia for a specific period or event, or generalized amnesia for personal identity and life history. onset is typically sudden and preceded by overwhelming or intolerable events

dissociative identity disorder = multiple personality disorder

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10
Q

pts with large surface area (>20%) burns are at highest risk for wound infection. what organisms predominate immediately after severe burn? and after 5 days? and what are the signs of infection?

A

immediately after a severe burn = gram + organisms (staph aureus)
after 5 days, most infxs are due to gram-negative organisms (pseudomonas aeruginosa) or fungi (candida)

the earliest sign is usually a change in burn appearance (partial-thickness injury turns into a full-thickness injury).
will see high/low temp, tachycardia, tachypnea, refractory hypotension.
Oliguria!, unexplained hyperglycemia, thrombocytopenia, and AMS are common.

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11
Q

in pts with native valve infective endocarditis, what can decrease the risk of septic embolic events?

A
IV antibiotics (tx aimed at the underlying cause)
anticoagulation is not needed in this case
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12
Q

what are the main risk factors associated w/ abdominal aortic aneurysm expansion and rupture?

A

large diameter
rate of expansion
current cigarette smoking**

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13
Q

what is serous otitis media? who does it most commonly occur in?

A

the presence of a middle ear effusion w/o signs of an active infection - conductive hearing loss is the most common sx
exam typically reveals a dull tympanic membrane that is hypomobile on pneumatic otoscopy
most common middle ear pathology in pts with AIDS

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14
Q

agranulocytosis, or leukopenia (neutropenia) is a rare but major side effect of what 2nd-gen antipsychotic used in tx-resistant schizophrenia?

A

clozapine

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15
Q

hyperthyroidism with a suppressed TSH and decreased radioiodine uptake (suggesting the release of preformed thyroid hormone). thyroid gland is mildly enlarged, mobile, and nontender.

A

painless thyroiditis! (silent thyroiditis)

*subacute thyroiditis (granulomatous or De Quervain thyroiditis) has similar presentation, but is associated w/ a painful, tender goiter!

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16
Q

pt with a known cystic teratoma (dermoid cyst) on their ovary presents w/ unilateral pelvic pain and n/v. what do you suspect?

A

ovarian torsion – dermoid cysts have a higher likelihood of torsion than other types of ovarian masses
sxs arise due to ISCHEMIA and eventually NECROSIS of the ovary

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17
Q

what acid-base disorder do you see with hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

Metabolic alkalosis

vomiting leads to significant volume depletion and loss of gastric acid

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18
Q

when should you suspect choriocarcinoma? and what lab test should you get?

A

choriocarcinoma typically presents <6 months after pregnancy
presents sxs = irregular vaginal bleeding, an enlarged uterus, and pelvic pain
most common site of metastasis is the lungs – sxs include CP, hemoptysis, and dyspnea
if you suspect this, get a Quantitative beta-hCG (it will be elevated)

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19
Q

pt presents w/ gradual onset of severe back pain with unilateral radiculopathy, saddle area numbness, hyporeflexia, and marked asymmetric lower extremity weakness. also bowel and bladder dysfunction (late-onset). What is this?

A

Cauda equina syndrome!! (the lumbosacral nerve roots form this area)

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20
Q

Bell’s palsy (CN7 palsy) presents with sudden onset of unilateral facial paralysis. what are common findings of the affected side when the lesion is below the pons (peripheral facial palsy)?

A

inability to raise the eyebrow or close the eye (**the forehead is spared if the lesion in the CNS occurs above the facial nucleus)
drooping of the mouth corner
disappearance of the nasolabial fold
(pts may also have decreased tearing, hyperacusis, and/or loss of taste sensation over the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue)

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21
Q

a pt presented in septic shock (hypotensive, tachycardic, decreased O2saturation, unresponsive at home) and developed massive AST and ALT elevations one day later, with modest elevation in T. bili and alk phos. what is this?

A

Ischemic hepatic injury, or shock liver

if pts survive the underlying cause of their hypotension, liver enzymes usually return to normal w/in 1-2 weeks

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22
Q

what drug do you administer when someone has ingested ethylene glycol?

A

Fomepizole!
(a competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase) (or ethanol) – this prevents further breakdown of ethylene glycol into its toxic metabolites

sodium bicarb may help alleviate the acidosis, and hemodialysis may be required

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23
Q

48 yo with dyspareunia and vaginal irritation, hx of radiation and chemo to cervix. on exam there is thin vulvar skin with shrinkage of clitoral tissue, and the vaginal mucosa appears pale and thin, narrowed introitus, can be petechiae and fissures, loss of labial volume. what is the cause?

A

Atrophic vaginitis!
or vulvovaginal atrophy from estrogen deficiency due to menopause (or chemo/radiation induced menopause)

in constrast, lichen sclerosus does not affect the vagina – in this vulvar skin appears thin and wrinkled like “cigarette paper” with plaques obliterating the labia majora and minora as well as scarring (sclerosis) of normal external landmarks

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24
Q

spontaneous cerebellar hemorrhage is typically caused by poorly controlled HTN. how does it present?

A

occipital HA, neck stiffness, n/v, nystagmus, and IPSILATERAL HEMIATAXIA
(usually no hemiparesis or sensory loss)

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25
Q

what physical exam findings are required for the dx of malignant HTN (which is a subset of HTN emergency)?

A

retinal hemorrhages, exudate, and/or papilledema

these PE findings should be present along with severe HTN (usually > 180/120)

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26
Q

pt presents with episodic flushing, secretory diarrhea, wheezing, and murmur of tricuspid regurgitation. what is this most likely?

A

Carcinoid syndrome

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27
Q

what cranial nerve is responsible for sensation to the cornea?

A

Trigeminal nerve (V1 branch)

carries sensory fibers to the scalp, forehead, upper eyelid, conjuctiva, cornea, nose, and frontal sinuses

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28
Q

Infants age < 2 months who have (RSV) bronchiolitis are at high risk of developing what?

A

apnea, and respiratory failure

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29
Q

what is the target of treatment in CML?

A

Tyrosine kinase

CML is driven by the abnormal fusion gene BCR-ABL (Due to translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22) – this creates a constitutively active Tyrosine kinase
Imantinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, is the key therapy in tx of CML!

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30
Q

ITP is usually a dx of exclusion. What should pts with presumed ITP be tested, for as thrombocytopenia may be the sole presenting sign of infection?

A

Hep C and HIV

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31
Q

a pt presents with repeated episodes of tender, erythematous, and palpable cord-like veins on the arm and upper chest. What is this called? what is it related to? what study should you get next?

A

Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis, classically known as Trousseau’s syndrome

  • it is a hypercoagulable disorder that usually presents w/ unexplained superficial venous thrombosis at unusual sites (arm, chest)
  • usually diagnosed prior to or at the same time as an occult visceral malignancy (the tumor likely releases mucins that react w/ platelets to form platelet-rich microthrombi)
  • CT scan of abdomen is next step to evaluate for an occult tumor
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32
Q

victims of smoke inhalation injury, should worry about what two poisonings?

A

Cyanide poisoning - tx empirically w/ an antidote, such as hydroxocobalamin or sodium thiosulfate
Carbon monoxide poisoning – check carboxyhemoglobin level (nonsmoker nl <5%, smoker nl <10%)

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33
Q

anterior vs posterior pituitary hormones released?

A

anterior = FLAT PiG
FSH, LH, ACTH, TSH, Prolactin, GH

posterior = oxytocin and ADH (which are similar to each other anyways so makes since)

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34
Q

if a child is < 2 years old and has their first febrile UTI, what should you do?

A

RENAL AND BLADDER ULTRASOUND
- to evaluate for any anatomic abnormalities that might predispose the child to UTIs

**typically older children and adults do not need further evaluation of a first-time UTI (lower likelihood of predisposing anatomic issues, lower risk of complications, and lower risk of recurrent UTI)

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35
Q

a pt has ischemic heart failure secondary to an acute anterior wall MI (can’t pump the blood well so it’s backing up to the lungs) causing acute pulmonary edema (“flash pulmonary edema”). what medicine do you give them?

A

loop diuretic (furosemide)

  • rapidly relieves pulmonary edema by decreasing the cardiac preload, thereby decreasing pulmonary capillary pressure
  • also causes venodilation, which further decreases the preload
  • *be careful in normo- or hypo-volemic pts, bc aggressive diuresis may lead to hypotension and AKI
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36
Q

what should you do next in a male pt that presents w/ migratory pain, n/v, fever, leukocytosis, McBurney point tenderness, and Rovsing sign?

A

Immediate appendectomy

*Imaging such at CT or US are only needed in pts w/ nonclassic sxs

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37
Q

a 14 yo presents with acute psychosis, and has a recent hx of arthralgia. lab work reveals thrombocytopenia, hematuria, and proteinuria. what lab test should you do next?

A

ANA – concerning for lupus
- other neuropsych manifestation seen in SLE include seizures, HA, peripheral neuropathy, strokes and chorea; psychosis, depression, mania or anxiety

  • sudden onset of psychosis in a child/adolescent is rare, important to r/o medical causes such as SLE, thyroiditis, metabolic or electrolyte disorders, CNS infection, and epilepsy
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38
Q

when doing preconception counseling, what is the most important first test to get when trying to identify couples who are at risk for hemoglobinopathies that might affect their offspring during pregnancy or after birth?

A

CBC in a female!!

  • if no abnormality is found, no further testing
  • if anemia and a reduced MCV, further testing is required
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39
Q

how do you differentiate hyperemesis gravidarum from typical n/v of pregnancy?

A

the presence of ketones on UA!!

- in HG, ketonuria occurs due to prolonged hypoglycemia and resultant ketoacidosis (suggesting more severe dz)

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40
Q

what are the most effective oral forms of emergency contraception?

A
Levonorgestrel (Plan B)
and Ulpristal (typically more difficult to obtain)

Copper IUD is the most effective emergency contraception (but is not oral-duh!)

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41
Q

what is first-line pharmacotherapy for enuresis (urinary incontinence in children >5 yo)?

A

Desmopressin

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42
Q

what is this?- painful, flaccid bullae, mucosal erosions, and separation of epidermis from dermis by light friction (Nikolsky sign). the roof of the bullous lesions is fragile and rapidly desquamates, leaving raw ulcers.

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

  • autoimmune disorder caused by antibodies directed against desmogleins 1 and 3, components of desmosomes
  • immunofluorescence shows netlike intercellular IgG

*in contrast, bullous pemphigoid causes tense bullae (primarily at flexural surfaces, groin, and axilla) and mucosal lesions are rare

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43
Q

is weight gain a side effect of OCPs?

A

NO!

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44
Q

pt has been on warfarin therapy for hx of DVT, but has a subtherapeutic INR. They present with an acute DVT. what do you give them?

A

Rivaroxaban! or apixaban
(oral direct factor Xa inhibitors)
- these drugs are as effective as warfarin in the tx of acute DVT or PE and do not increase the risk of bleeding complications
- they have a rapid onset of action, no requirement for lab (INR) monitoring, and no requirement for overlap therapy w/ heparin.

45
Q

what are sxs of cholinergic excess, such as in organophosphate poisoning?

A

bradycardia, miosis, bronchorrhea, muscle fasciculations, salivation, lacrimation, diarrhea, and urination
(bc acetylcholinesterase is rendered non-functional)

*to counteract the effects, ATROPINE should be adminstered asap!

46
Q

In pts older than 65 that develop secondary bacterial pneumonia as a complication of influenza, what are the most likely organisms?

A

Strep pneumoniae and Stap aureus

47
Q

how do esophageal strictures appear on barium swallow?

A

as symmetric, circumferential narrowing

48
Q

what are the other common presenting symptoms of myasthenia gravis besides ocular symptoms?

A

sxs of bulbar dysfunction – fatiguable chewing, dysphagia w/ nasopharyngeal regurgitation, and dysarthria

most pts w/ ACh receptor Abs have thymic abnormalities (eg, thymoma, thymic hyperplasia), which may appear as an anterior mediastinal mass on chest imaging

49
Q

what are the hormone levels characteristic of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?

A

GnRH pulses (secreted by the hypothalamus) DECREASE in amplitude and frequency
this causes pituitary LH and FSH production to DECREASE
low LH and FSH cause suppression of ovulation, leading to oligomenorrhea/amenorrhea and infertility
also see LOW ESTROGEN production in the ovary

first line tx = lifestyle changes (increased caloric intake and exercise reduction)

50
Q

what do you do first in a post-menopausal pt on long term estrogen replacement therapy who presents with abnormal uterine bleeding?

A

Pelvic US or Endometrial Biopsy

  • if on US endometrial thickness is >4mm, endometrial biopsy must be performed to exclude malignancy
  • if endometrial pathology is benign, then first-line tx of post-menopausal bleeding due to exogenous estrogen is DISCONTINUATION of unopposed ERT (if pt wishes to continue hormone replacement, must add progesterone)
51
Q

what CCB is known to increase the serum levels of digoxin? what are the symptoms of acute digoxin toxicity?

A

Amiodarone!! (it is recommended that digoxin dose be decreased by 25-50% when initiating amiodarone)
Acute digoxin toxicity typically presents w/ GI sxs such as anorexia n/v, abdominal pain, along w/ possible weakness and confusion.
chronic toxicity has less pronounced GI sxs but more significant neuro (lethargy, fatigue, confusion, disorientation) and visual sxs (changes in color vision, scotomas, blindness).

verapamil, quinidine, and propafenone can also increase the serum levels of digoxin

52
Q

what is the most common predisposing factor for orbital cellulitis?

A

Bacterial sinusitis
- due to the prevalence of this dz as well as the proximity of the sinuses to the orbital space and the valveless orbital venous system

53
Q

pt has a hx of a pruritic, erythematous papule on his foot for a few days, that has since transitioned to an intensely pruritic, serpiginous, reddish-brown cutaneous tracks. how did he most likely acquire this infection? and what is it?

A

acquired from walking barefoot in contaminated sand or soil
it is Cutaneous larva migrans, a creeping cutaneous eruption caused by dog (Ancylostoma caninum) or cat (A braziliense) hookworm larvae

most cases resolve spontaneously, but antihelmintics (ivermectin) are usually given to aid clearance

54
Q

how do you tx pregnant or lactating pts with early localized Lyme disease?

A

oral Amoxicillin!

55
Q

pt took a recent hiking trip. they present w/ a rapidly progressive ascending paralysis (hours to days) that may be more pronounced in 1 leg or arm (asymmetrical), absence of fever and sensory abnormalities. there is no autonomic dysfunction (no tachycardia, urinary retention or arrhythmias). what is this most likely?

A

Tick-borne paralysis

  • need to meticulously search for a tick!!
  • etiology of paralysis is neurotoxin release –ticks must feed for 4-7 days for the release of neurotoxin
  • removal usually results in improvement w/in an hour and complete recovery after several days

*in contrast, GBS presents w/ an ascending symmetrical paralysis over days to weeks. autonomic dysfunction occurs in 70% of pts. Tx w/ IV immunoglobulin or plasmapheresis.

56
Q

pt presents with a nephrotic syndrome, and they have a hx of Rheumatoid arthritis. they also have enlarged kidneys and hepatomegaly. what is the cause of the nephrotic syndrome? what’s the typical findings on renal biopsy?

A

Amyloidosis
(RA is the most common cause of AA amyloidosis in the US)
renal biopsy – amyloid deposits that stain with Congo red and a characteristic apple-green birefringence under polarized light

57
Q

submucous fibroids arise from the myometrium immediately under the endometrial lining and protrude into the uterine cavity. they common cause heavy and prolonged menstrual bleeding, and can prolapse through the cervical os. what sxs might you see when this happens?

A

expulsion causes labor-like pain due to mechanical cervical dilation by the solid mass and is preceded by heavy vaginal bleeding

58
Q

What are the clinical features of DiGeorge syndrome?

A
CATCH22 - chromosome 22q11.2 deletion
C*onotrunchal cardiac defects
A*bnormal facies
T*hymic aplasia/hypoplasia
C*left palate
H*ypocalcemia (resulting from hypoplasia of the PTH glands)
59
Q

pt presents w/ HA, n/v, epigastric pain. PE shows optic disc hyperemia and labs show anion gap metabolic acidosis. what have they most likely ingested?

A

Methanol!

  • the most severe consequences of methanol intoxication are vision loss and coma
  • ethylene glycol damages the kidneys, methanol damages the eyes
60
Q

describe the clinical manifestations of leprosy? how it is dx and tx’d?

A

Leprosy = chronic granulomatous dz of the skin and peripheral nerves, caused by the acid-fast bacillus Mycobacterium leprae
occurs in immigrants/travelers
>/= 1 chronic, anesthetic, macular (often hypopigmented) skin lesions with raised, well-demarcated borders
nearby nerves often become nodular and tender, and segmental demyelination may result in loss of sensation and motor function
Dx via full-thickness biopsy of the skin lesion edge (can’t culture it)
Tx: Dapson + rifampin…. add clofazimine if severe (“multibacillary”)

61
Q

if a person is diagnosed with Pertussis, what close contacts should receive prophylaxis? and with what?

A

Prophylaxis with Macrolides is recommended for all close contacts, despite vaccination status

62
Q

During a “tet” spell (with tetralogy of fallot), what position helps immediately with oxygenation? and what is the mechanism by which it works?

A

Knee-chest positioning (squatting in older kids)

  • this kinks the femoral arteries, increasing systemic vascular resistance, and consequently reducing the degree of right-to-left shunting
  • (more of a left to right shunt, so deoxygenated blood is no longer going through the VSD into the aorta, but instead pulmonary blood flow is increased and the blood is oxygenated in the lungs – improving hypoxia)
63
Q

what are the two ways oxygenation can be improved in mechanically ventilated patients?

A

increasing the FiO2
increasing PEEP
if high levels (>60%) of FiO2 are required to maintain oxygenation, PEEP levels should be increased to allow for reductions in the FiO2 as oxygenation improves

64
Q

There should be a high suspicion for reactive arthritis (a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy) in the case of any asymmetric oligoarthritis (often involves knee and sacroiliac spine) associated with urethritis, conjuctivitis, or mouth ulcers. mucocutaneous lesions and enthesitis (Achilles tendon pain) are common findings. not all sxs are always present. what is 1st line tx?

A

NSAIDs!

65
Q

what are possible complications of subarachnoid hemorrhage within the first 24 hours? and within 3-10 days after presentation?

A

Rebleeding – major cause of death w/in first 24 hours
Vasospasm – can occur 3-10 days after presentation and can lead to cerebral infarction. can be prevented with initiation of Nimodipine

66
Q

what conditions are associated with Acanthosis nigricans (symmetrical, hyperpigmented, velvety plaques in the axilla, groin, and neck)?

A

insulin resistant states (in younger pts):

  • diabetes mellitus
  • PCOS
  • Obesity

*can be associated with GI malignancy in older individuals (who may have actually lost weight recently)

67
Q

in physiologic jaundice of the newborn, what is the cause of the indirect hyperbilirubinemia (3)?

A
  1. increased bilirubin production (RBC concentration is elevated at birth, and they also have a shorter life span, resulting in high hemoglobin turnover)
  2. decreased bilirubin clearance due to decreased activity of ** hepatic uridine diphosphogluconurate glucuronosyltransferase (UGT) **, which does not reach adult levels until 2 weeks of age (Asian newborns have decreased UGT activity!!)
  3. increased enterohepatic recycling – the sterile newborn gut cannot break down bilirubin to urobilinogen for fecal excretion
68
Q

what is the greatest risk related to parenteral nutrition?

A

Central-line associated bloodstream infection!!

  • due to high osmotic load, parenteral nutrition must be administered through a central venous catheter when given for >48hrs
  • common organisms = coagulase-negative staph and Staph aureus, and gram-neg organisms (Klebsiella pneumoniae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa), or Candida species

*Cholestasis (and increased risk for cholelithiasis) is typically not seen until pts have been on parenteral nutrition for >2 weeks

69
Q

immunocompromised pt has a lesion that has progressed rapidly from a small erythematous macule to a larger, nontender nodule with necrosis (may be described as a bulla surrounded by erythema - the bulla ruptures and leaves a painless ulcer with a black center). what is it? what bacteria is it associated w/?

A

Ecthyma gangrenosum, commonly associated with Pseudomonas aeruginosa

70
Q

pts with chest pain, signs of decreased cardiac output, and pulsus paradoxus (large decrease in systolic BP on inspiration – seen on exam as thready pulses over both radial arteries that disappear w/ deep inspiration) following a viral infection most likely have what?

A

Cardiac tamponade resulting from acute pericarditis

71
Q

what is the classic symptom of spinal stenosis?

A

Neurogenic claudication (pseudoclaudication)

  • lower extremity pain with EXTENSION of the spine (walking, prolonged standing, walking downhill)
  • Spine FLEXION (leaning forward, walking uphill, sitting with feet up) RELIEVES THE PAIN

*MRI is the test of choice, as it can confirm narrowing of the lumbar canal and compression of lumbar nerve roots

72
Q

HTN and hyperpigmentation associated with a mediastinal mass. pt also had easy bruising and symmetric proximal muscle weakness. What is this mass producing?

A

ectopic ACTH (a polypeptide hormone) production, resulting in Cushing syndrome!
Pts with ectopic production of ACTH often have manifestations of severe hypercortisolism, including wide purple striae, fatigue, easy bruising, proximal muscle weakness, and central obesity. may also have hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, and HTN (due to the partial mineralocorticoid activity of cortisol).
HYPERPIGMENTATION is specific to the production of ACTH (bc it binds to the MSH receptors), and how you know the tumor has to produce ACTH (bc if it produced cortisol, ACTH would be suppressed and there would be no hyperpigmentation)
SMALL CELL LUNG CANCER is the most common cause of paraneoplastic Cushing syndrome.

73
Q

what medicine should pts take to reduce their risk of systemic thromboembolism if they have A fib and have a moderate-high risk of thromboembolic events?

A

Warfarin or NOACs (nonvitamin K antagonist oral anticoagulants), such as RIVAROXABAN, dabigatran, apixaban, edoxaban

74
Q

when is TMP/SMX prophylaxis indicated in HIV pts? and what is it used to cover for?

A

When CD4 count <200

Prophylaxis against PCP and Toxoplasmosis

75
Q

when should pts with HIV get the pneumococcal vaccines?

A

ALL pts with HIV should get the pneumococcal vaccines

  • the conjugate vaccine (PCV13) should be given first
  • the polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) should be given 8 weeks later, 5 years later, and then at age 65

*immunizations should be given soon after dx when the CD4 count is high enough to mount an appropriate Ab response

76
Q

how do pts with superior vena cava syndrome present? in the case of cancer, what might help relieve the pts symptoms?

A

HAs that are WORSE WHEN LEANING FORWARD -due to decreased gravitational effects on the blood column
JVD, with lack of peripheral edema to suggest cardiac failure
facial and upper extremity swelling from obstruction of venous blood flow (may be conjunctival injection too)
prominent collateral veins may be present on skin exam
*most common cause of SVC syndrome is malignancy, either lung cancer (small cell lung cancer, tends to grow centrally) or lymphoma – may require endovenous stenting followed by RADIATION THERAPY (especially when it causes respiratory compromise)

77
Q

how do pts with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) present? and what is the mechanism behind its occurrence?

A

pts with cirrhosis present with fever, ascites, diffuse abdominal pain, tachycardia, and mental status changes
It is thought that enteric bacteria TRANSLOCATE across the intestinal wall and SEED ASCITIC FLUID within the peritoneal cavity

78
Q

an adult stares blankly for several minutes and may engage in automatisms such as lip smacking or chewing. there is postictal confusion or paralysis (Todd’s paralysis). what type of seizure is this?

A

Complex partial seizure (Temporal lobe epilespy)

*in contrast, absence seizures usually occur in children and post-ictal confusion does not occur

79
Q

all forms of poorly controlled diabetes in pregnancy increase the risk of what in the fetus?

A

Respiratory distress syndrome
Preterm delivery
fetal macrosomia

*maternal hyperglycemia, with resultant fetal hyperinsulinemia, delays cellular maturation – immature pneumocytes in the fetal lungs are unable to produce surfactant, resulting in RDS

80
Q

how do you initially tx pts with stable V tach?

A

IV AMIODARONE!!!

81
Q

Roux-en-Y bypass is a significant risk factor for symptomatic gallstones (ex: Severe postprandial RUQ pain radiating to the right shoulder). Why?

A

Rapid weight loss! – this promotes gallstone formation (likely from increased bile concentrations of mucin and calcium)

82
Q

elevated phosphate and low calcium in the setting of CKD are characteristic of what? what usually happens to the parathyroid gland(s)?

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism
overtime the low Ca and high phosphate stimulating the release of PTH results in parathyroid hyperplasia!!
*the elevated PTH can cause renal osteodystrophy, with associated bone pain and increased risk of fracture

83
Q

what does it mean when they say “to and fro murmur”?

A

murmur is present in systole and diastole

so like PDA in a infant

84
Q

continuous machine like murmur, loud S2, bounding peripheral pulses, and widened pulse pressure.

A

Patent Ductus Arteriosus

85
Q

how do you tx coarctation of the aorta?

A

Surgical resection of the narrowed segment!!

can do balloon dilation if recurrent stenosis occurs.

86
Q

what is the mechanism of impairment in chronic granulomatous disease?

A

impaired phagocytic oxidative metabolism

repeated infection with coagulase positive organisms
neutrophils can eat the bacteria but they can’t kill the organisms once inside
x-linked recessive

(leukocyte adhesion deficiency – has impaired chemotaxis and migration… the neutrophils can’t get to the site of infection. numerous neutrophils in the bloodstream. recurrent bacterial skin and mucosal infections, absent pus formation. delayed separation of the umbilical cord)

87
Q

what symptoms do you see with a stroke of PICA (which branches from the vertebral body)?

A

vomiting, vertigo, nystagmus; decreased pain and temp sensation from the ipsilateral face and contralateral body; dysphagia, hoarseness, decreased gag reflex; ipsilateral Horner syndrome; ataxia, dysmetria
called Lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome
**Nucleus ambiguus effects are specific to PICA lesions – “Don’t pick a (PICA) horse (hoarseness) that can’t eat (dysphagia).”

88
Q

what hormones are responsible for libido (in men and women!)?

A

androgens!!

89
Q

what are the characteristics of Pompe disease (type 2 glycogen storage diseases)?

A

cardiomegaly, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, exercise intolerance, systemic findings leading to early death.
autosomal recessive.
“Pompe trashes the Pump” (heart, liver and muscle)

90
Q

a high school wresler with a hx to allergies has a rash on his forearms and back of his legs for 1 week. exam shows patches of erythema with mild lichenification over the antecubital and popliteal fossae. there are clusters of painful umbilicated vesicles at the sites of active skin inflammation. what is this?

A

eczema herpeticum

- superimposed HSV infection at the site of eczema

91
Q

what are symptoms of iron toxicity?

A

GI sxs - n/v, diarrhea that can be GREEN due to the presence of disintegrated iron tablets
in the setting of a severe toxic dose, the vomitus and diarrhea can be Hemorrhagic because iron is caustic to the GI tract
fluid losses can lead to hypovolemic shock

92
Q

the most common brain tumors in adults are astrocytomas. the prognosis of astrocytomas is most affect by what?

A

tumor grade, with increased atypia, mitoses, neovascularity, or necrosis conveying a worse prognosis (aka degree of anaplasia, or a condition in which cells are poorly differentiated)

93
Q

pt presents with multi-chain lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, mild cytopenia (anemia, thrombocytopenia), and a marked lymphocytic predominant leukocytosis. What is this? what do you see on peripheral blood smear? how do you tx it?

A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia

  • peripheral smear shows SMUDGE CELLS
  • first line tx with RITUXIMAB, a monoclonal antibody against the CD20 Antigen expressed on B lymphocytes
94
Q

IV drug user has infective endocarditis as well as headache, mental status changes, focal neurologic deficits, seizure and fever. what complication have they most likely developed?

A

Brain abscess
- hematogenous sedding of bacteria or systemic embolization of valve vegetations

Dx can be confirmed with gadolinium-enhanced brain MRI

95
Q

Epithelial ovarian carcinoma is the most common type of ovarian cancer in postmenopausal women. what are the initial symptoms?

A

urinary frequency or urgency, pain, bloating, and abdominal distension, these are variable and often vague
pts with advanced dz may develop nodularity along the rectovaginal septum
other manifestations can include bowel obstruction and DVT

96
Q

pt with classic triad of RUQ or epigastric pain (That can radiate to the right shoulder or back and often associated w/ n/v), Fever, and Leukocytosis. what is this?

A

Acute cholecystitis

97
Q

a midshaft fracture of the humerus is most likely to injure what nerve?

A

The Radial Nerve!

  • it travels in the spiral groove along the dorsal aspect of the humerus, and is particularly prone to damage in such fractures
  • radial nerve provides sensory innervation to the dorsal surface of the hand
  • injury may result in wrist drop and inability to extend the fingers
98
Q

advanced pancreatic cancer can cause jaundice and pruritus by obstructing the common bile duct (extrahepatic cholestasis). what is palliative tx?

A

Endoscopic common bile duct stent placement – relieves the obstruction

99
Q

what are features of vascular dementia that suggest it over other dementias (such as Alzeihmers)?

A

prominent executive dysfunction
hx of stroke
vascular risk factors (smoking, DM, HTN, hyperlipidemia)
abrupt onset with stepwise functional deterioration

100
Q

thrombocytopenia, decreased fibrinogen, and increased INR are indicative of what?

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
- this is the most common coagulopathy in pts w/ malignancy, and can be seen in gastric, breast, and lung cancer (and others)

elevated LDH, retic count, and bilirubin level are consistent w/ hemolysis resulting from microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, which is commonly see in association w/ DIC

101
Q

what are the most common etiologies of superior pulmonary sulcus tumors (Pancoast tumors)? what is the strongest risk factor?

A

squamous cell carcinoma and adenocarcinoma
Hx of SMOKING is the strongest risk factor

*in addition to arm pain and progressive numbness and tingling, Pancoast tumors can involve the phrenic nerve and cause hemidiaphragm paralysis

102
Q

in developed countries, what are the most common causes of aortic regurg?

A

Aortic root dilation! or congenital bicuspid valve!!

  • early descrescendo diastolic murmur, it is accentuated with the patient sitting up and leaning forward while holding his breath in full expiration (bringing the aortic valve closer to the stethoscope)
  • when AR is due to aortic root dilation, the murmur commonly radiates toward the right side and is best heard along the right sternal border
103
Q

what are the classic findings on lumbar puncture in pts with Guillain-Barre Syndrome?

A

elevated protein with NORMAL leukocyte count

referred to as albuminocytologic dissociation

104
Q

pt that uses IV drugs has had low back pain and malaise for days, he wakes up with bilateral lower extremity paralysis and loss of sensation, he is also febrile. what does he have? what is the best initial pharmacotherapy?

A

Spinal epidural abscess
Broad-spectrum IV Abxs (vanc + ceftriaxone)

spinal epidural abscess = triad of fever, focal back pain, and neurologic deficits

105
Q

kid has sxs of pharyngitis plus the presence of cough and rhinorrhea, and the absence of tonsillar exudates and palatal petechiae. what is the cause?

A

VIRAL infection – this is the most common cause of pharyngitis in the pediatric population. The infx is self-limited and resolves w/in a week w/o tx.

106
Q

a pt with an infected foot, hypotension, tachycardia, leukocytosis, and elevated lactate with AKI likely has septic shock!, which is a form of distributive shock. What does right heart cath show in a pt with septic shock?

A
  • elevated Cardiac index
  • normal/decreased PCWP (due to capillary leakage and decreased preload)
  • decreased SVR (due to peripheral vasodilation)
  • increased mixed venous oxygen saturation
107
Q

older adult has macrocytic anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Peripheral blood smear shows signs of dysplasia, including ovalomacrocytosis and hyposegmented/hypogranulated neutrophils. What is the dx? what is the next step in evaluation?

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome – a neoplastic stem cell disorder

Bone marrow biopsy is required for diagnosis

108
Q

severe HTN and the classic triad of intermittent headaches, tachycardia, and diaphoresis. what is it? where is it located? how is it diagnosed? how is it tx’d?

A

Pheochromocytoma
a catecholamine-secreting tumor arising from the chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla
Dx is confirmed by demonstrating elevated urinary plasma catecholamine and metanephrine levels
Tx with combined alpha (phenoxybenzamine) and beta adrenergic blockade
**phenoxybenzamine should be started first, as beta blockers alone can result in unopposed alpha-1 vasoconstriction and a paradoxical rise in BP