Deck 4 Flashcards

1
Q

when during sleep do sleep terrors occur? (vs nightmares)

A

sleep terrors occur during NONrapid eye movement sleep (NREM)

  • kids scream, cry, and are inconsolable and cannot be fully awakened
  • a flused face, sweating, and tachycardia are common
  • the next morning the child has no memory of the incident

nightmares occur during REM sleep, which usually occurs in the middle of the night or early morning

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2
Q

you suspect as pt of having acute pyelonephritis. They have a high urine pH >8. what organism do you suspect?

A

Proteus mirabilis!! (or Klebsiella pneumoniae) – urease producing bacteria

urease splits urea into ammonia and CO2; ammonia then converts to ammonium and alkalinizes the urine. high urine pH reduces the solubility of phosphate, raising risk for development of struvite stones (Mg ammonia phosphate)

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3
Q

what is the mechanism by which asplenic pts are at risk for infection with encapsulated organisms?

A

encapsulated organisms (S pneumoniae, H influenzae, and N meningitidis) have a polysaccharide exterior that conceals antigenic epitopes and resists innate phagocytosis. These pathogen are largely eliminated via the humoral immune response (in the spleen) with ANTIBODY-MEDIATED PHAGOCYTOSIS (opsonization) and Ab-mediated complement activation. much of this depends on splenic macrophages and the generation of splenic opsonizing Abs. so w/o the spleen.. this can’t happen.

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4
Q

Pt presents with cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis. They have a maculopapular rash that starts on the face and spread to the entire body, but spares the palms and soles. What do they have? how to you prevent the spread of this infection to other pts in the office?

A

Measles!
- may also see Koplik spots (in the mouth)

The pt should be isolated and placed on Airborne precautions (as it is spread via inhalation of infectious respiratory particles)

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5
Q

pt rapidly develops fever, chills,and malaise, along with mouth pain, drooling, dysphagia, muffled voice and airway compromise. On PE, the submandibular area is tender and indurated, and the floor of the mouth is elevated, displacing the tongue. there is also crepitus. What is the most likely source of this infection?

A

A dental infection in the mandibular molars – this is Ludwig angina, a rapidly progressive cellulitis of the submandibular space

  • it spread contiguously down the root of the tooth to the submylohyoid (and then sublingual) space
  • the infection is usually polymicrobial, and anaerobic, gas-producing bacteria may cause crepitus
  • physical exam findings are often striking due to mass effect from edema
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6
Q

pregnant women with hyperemesis gravidarum are at risk for what condition commonly seen in alcoholics?

A

Wernicke encephalopathy – thiamine deficiency
- pts present w/ AMS (encephalopathy), oculomotor dysfunction (nystagmus), and postural and gait ataxia

pts w/ HG often have hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis, hypokalemia, hypoglycemia, and elevated serum aminotransferases (due to vomiting)
must give thiamine replacement prior to glucose

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7
Q

what renal and urinary changes occur in a normal pregnancy?

A
increased renal blood flow
increased GFR
increased Renal BM permeability
Decreased BUN
Decreased Cr
Increased renal protein excretion
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8
Q

How does jejunal atresia present? what does it look like on xray? and what are risk factors for it?

A

Jejunal atresia presents w/ bilious vomiting and abdominal distension
Abdominal x-ray shows a “triple bubble” sign and gasless colon (as opposed to the double bubble seen w/ duodenal atresia - down syndrome)
Risk factors = prenatal exposure to Cocaine and other vasoconstrictive drugs

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9
Q

a pts lab work shows aplastic anemia (a deficiency in all 3 cell lines). You also notice they are short, have microcephaly, abnormal thumbs, and hypogonadism. They have areas on their skin that are hypo- and hyperpigmented. What do they have? and what causes it?

A

Fanconi Anemia
due to chromosomal breaks, seen on genetic analysis

these patients are predisposed to developing cancer (most often AML)
definitive tx for the aplastic anemia is hematopoietic stem cell transplant

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10
Q

vitamin B12 is a necessary cofactor for what?

A

for purine synthesis
A deficiency of vit B12 (like after total/partial gastrectomy) causes defective DNA synthesis.

will see a megaloblastic anemia, indirect hyperbilirubinemia (due to increased intramedullary hemolysis of the megaloblasts, which releases heme), and increased serum LDH (also due to hemolysis)
also hypersegmented PMNs

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11
Q

pt presents with symptoms of hyperthyroidism and A fib. What med should you tx them w/ first?

A

propranolol

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12
Q

Pt initially presents w/ focal neurologic sxs (eg, hemiplegia, hemiparesis, hemisensory disturbances). These are quickly followed by findings suggestive of increased ICP (eg, vomiting, HA, bradycardia, decreased alertness). Pt has a PMH of HTN, DM2, and CAD. What kind of stroke is this?

A

(hypertensive) Intracerebral hemorrhage

Lacunar strokes can also occur in HTN pts but tend to present w/ severe focal sxs depending on the affected area. these infarcts are quite small and are not expected to have rapidly worsening global neuro sxs like in pts w/ hemorrhage.

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13
Q

How do simple renal cyst appear on imaging? (vs malignant cysts).

A

Simple renal cysts appear with thin walls, no solid components (homogenous), no enhancement on CT/MRI, and are usually asymptomatic. no f/u needed.

Features suggesting a malignant cyst on imaging include irregular or multilocular structure w/ multiple septations, heterogeneous content, and contrast enhacement on CT/MRI. May cause pain, hematuria or HTN. requires f/u imaging and urological eval for malignancy.

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14
Q

how is lactation suppression accomplished?

A

wearing a comfortable, supportive bra
avoidance of nipple stimulation and manipulation
application of ice packs to the breasts
NSAIDs to reduce inflammation and pain
NO DOPAMINE AGONISTS (no longer approved by FDA due to side effects)

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15
Q

What does third-degree or complete AV heart block look like on ECG? how are symptomatic patients managed?

A

there is regular P-wave activity, which is temporally unrelated to QRS complexes, the R-R interval is constant
symptomatic pts should have immediate placement of a temporary PACEMAKER (while undergoing further eval to identify and correct reversible causes)

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16
Q

How do you diagnose acute bacterial prostatitis?

A

obtain a mid-stream urine sample
(usually caused by other pathogens common to the urinary tract, like E. coli)
while awaiting culture results, empiric Abx therapy w/ TMP-SMX or a fluoroquinolone should be started and continued for 4-6 weeks

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17
Q

toddler w/ a firm, smooth, unilateral abdominal mass and hematuria

A

Wilms tumor

  • some pts may have abdominal pain, HTN, hematuria, and fever – but often times pts are asymptomatic and the tumor is discovered incidentally
  • age 2-5
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18
Q

if a pt overdoses on an unknown substance and they present w/ bradycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression, and hyporeflexia, normal pupils, normal bowel sounds, and no effects are seen when naloxone is given, what have they most likely ingested?

A

Sedative-hypnotic overdose, most likely due to the combined effects of Alcohol and Benzos

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19
Q

what is the other name for a traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle?

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

  • in adolescence, there are periods of rapid growth in which the quadriceps tendon puts traction on the apophysis of the tibial tubercle where the patellar tendon inserts
  • this tracton apophysitis is worsened by sports that involve repetitive running, jumping, or kneeling, and it improves w/ rest
  • there is often edema and tenderness over the tibial tubercle, pain can be reproduced by extending the knee against resistance
  • xray findings are nonspecific and may show anterior soft tissue swelling, lifting of the tubercle from the shaft, and irregularity or fragmentation of the tubercle
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20
Q

pt presents w/ a HA, HTN, hyperreflexia, and positive pregnancy test. you are concerned for what? the occurrence of this at <20 weeks gestation can be a complication of what?

A

Pre-eclampsia w/ severe features (eg, new-onset HTN w/ proteinuria or end-organ damage)
Pre-eclampsia at <20 weeks gestation can be a complication of Hydatiform mole!!

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21
Q

pt presents w/ dysuria, urinary frequency, and suprapubic tenderness. UA is positive for Leuk esterase and Nitrites. What do they most likely have? what is the most appropriate next step?

A

Uncomplicated cystitis

  • commonly occurs in otherwise healthy pts and has a low risk for tx failure – therefore pts can be tx’d w/o urine culture!
  • next step = tx w/ NITROFURANTOIN (5 days) or TMP-SMX (3 days) or fosfomycin (single dose)
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22
Q

What is the cause of senile purpura? this presents w/ ecchymoses in elderly pts in areas exposed to repeated minor trauma (eg, extensor surfaces of hands and forearms).

A

Senile purpura is due to age-related loss of elastic fibers in perivascular connective tissue

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23
Q

Migraines in children are often bifrontal and of shorter duration. what is the first-line tx for acute migraine HA in children <12 yo?

A

supportive management (lying in a dark, quiet room w/ a cool cloth on the forehead) and administration of acetaminophen or an NSAID like ibuprofen

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24
Q

what are the clinical features specifically found in newborns w/ congenital syphilis?

A

Rhinorrhea (copious, clear or purulent)
A diffuse maculopapular rash that can involve the palms and soles and may DESQUAMATE or become BULLOUS
Also may see abnormal long-bone radiographs (eg, metaphyseal lucencies)

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25
Q

what is the triad that congenital rubella syndrome classically presents w/ in the newborn?

A

sensorineural hearing loss
cataracts
heart defects (eg, patent ductus arteriosus)

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26
Q

how do you calculate attributable risk percent? also what is it?

A

ARP = (RR - 1) / RR

Attributable risk percent is the excess risk in a population that can be attributed to a particular risk factor

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27
Q

young child has a continuous flow murmur. also they have mildly accentuated peripheral pulses.

A

PDA

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28
Q

slow-growing papule w/ pearly rolled borders. central area of ulceration. on the face/sun-exposed skin. most common form of skin cancer in the US.

A

Basal cell carcinoma!!!
(Basal - B, is like P for Pearly, but the bottom part of the B is removed-the bottom has been ulcerated off..)

squamous cell carcinoma is much less common, and faster growing. it often arises from a precursor lesion, such as an actinic keratosis, and typically has overlying hyperkeratosis.

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29
Q

what is the most common predisposing factor for acute bacterial sinusitis?

A

viral upper respiratory infection

contaminating bacteria cannot be cleared by mucocilliary clearance due to mucosal inflammation from viral infection, leading to secondary bacterial infection

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30
Q

What are serious side effects that may arise from long-term use of Cyclophosphamide?
(it is an alkylating agent frequently used as an immunosuppressant in SLE)

A

Acute Hemorrhagic Cystitis!!
Bladder Carcinoma!!
Sterility
Myelosuppression

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31
Q

when subjects are lost to follow-up in a prospective study, this creates a potential for what type of bias?

A

Attrition bias, a subtype of SELECTION BIAS

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32
Q

current guidelines recommend obtaining what baseline labs before starting lithium therapy?

A

UA
BUN and Cr
Thyroid function studies

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33
Q

what medications should be withheld for at least 48 hours prior to stress testing?

A

Beta blockers
CCBs
Nitrates

these are all antianginal agents and so they can reduce the extent and severity of ischemia during exercise stress testing

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34
Q

What lung cancer is associated w/ hypercalcemia?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
**remember: sCa++mous
hypercalcemia usually results from the effects of PTHrP

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35
Q

pt presents after a recent eye surgery with pain and decreased visual acuity in that eye. the eyelid and conjunctiva are swollen, hypopyon (exudates in the anterior chamber), and coreneal edema and infection are also present. what is this?

A

postop endophthalmitis (the most common form) – it is an infection w/in the eye, particularly the vitreous

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36
Q

a runner presents w/ numbness, aching, and burning pain in the distal forefoot. on exam, squeezing the 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads together causes a clicking sensation and reproduces the pain in the plantar surface. What is this?

A

Morton neuroma

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37
Q

What should a 2 year old be able to do to meet his language milestone?

A

vocabulary of > 50 words and be able to combine them into 2-word phrases

38
Q

how do you tx an infant with chlamydial conjunctivities?

A
ORAL MACROLIDE (erythromycin)
-presents 5-14 days after birth w/ mild eyelid swelling, watery or mucopurulent eye discharge

**Infants requiring tx should be monitored for pyloric stenosis, a potential SE of erythromycin and azithromycin therapies

39
Q

a preadolescent child presents w/ back pain, neurologic dysfunction (urinary incontinence), and a palpable “step-off” at the lumbosacral area. what is this most likely?

A

Spondylolisthesis – this is a developmental disorder characterized by a forward slip of vertebrae (usually L5 over S1)

40
Q

What are the characteristics of REM sleep behavior disorder? it may be a sign of what?

A
  • characterized by complex motor behaviors that occur in the later parts of the night, during REM sleep
  • dream enactment occurs if muscle atonia is absent/incomplete
  • pts can be awakened quickly, and after very transient confusion bc fully alert
  • they may not recall their movements, but CAN recall their dreams
  • more commonly occurs in older men, and may be a prodromal sign of neurodegeneration in pts w/ Parkinson dz or dementia w/ Lewy bodies
  • it occurs w/ other prodromal sxs such as changes in gait, anosmia (loss of sense of smell), and constipation
41
Q

child lives in Egypt in a refugee camp. he recently has had rhinorrhea and pharyngitis. on exam of the eyes there is conjunctival injection, tarsal inflammation, and several pale follicles. no pain or itching. his brother has similar sxs. the conjuctivae appear mildly thickened. what is this?

A

Trachoma!!

  • due to Chlamydia trachomatis serotypes A, B, and C and is the leading cause of blindness worldwide
  • it spreads effectively in crowded or unsanitary conditions
  • repeated/chronic infx leads to scarring of the eyelids and inversion of the eyelashes, which can cause ulceration and blindness
  • Tx = oral azithromycin (treat entire region)
42
Q

how long should pts w/ a single episode of major depressive disorder who respond to acute tx continue their antidepressant?

A

continue tx for an additional 4-9 months after achieved remission

  • maintenancy for 1-3 yrs is appropriate for pts w/ a hx of multiple episodes, chronic episodes (>2yrs), strong fam hx, or severe episodes (suicide attempt)
43
Q

pt is found to have a solitary liver mass on US, iron deficiency anemia, and positive fecal occult blood screen. also sxs of anorexia and wt loss. what is this most likely?

A

undiagnosed colorectal cancer w/ metastasis to the liver

liver mets are often silent unless they press on the liver capsule and cause pain or obstruct the biliary tree and cause pain/jaundice
can be solitary or multiple

44
Q

what is the best recommendation for pts w/ diverticulosis to decrease their chances of developing complications?

A

increase dietary fiber intake!!

*there is no link btw ingestion of nuts/seeds and the incidence of diverticulitis

45
Q

what nonpharmacologic interventions have the greatest impact on reducing high blood pressure?

A
Weight loss (BMI <25) -- reduce 5-20 points/10 kg loss
DASH diet -- reduce 8-14 points
46
Q

how do pts with chronic arsenic toxicity present?

A

hx of toxic exposure through antique pressure-treated wood, mining, pesticide manufacturing, or metalwork
sensorimotor neuropathy in a stocking-glove distribution w/ burning, painful hypersensitivity, distal weakness, and hyporeflexia
hypo- and hyperpigmentation of the skin (occurs early)
hyperkeratosis and scaling of the soles and palms (seen later)
Mees lines (horizontal striation of fingernails) are characteristic
may see a small degree of pancytopenia and hepatitis (see to a greater extent in acute toxicity)

47
Q

pt has had sxs of Mono for 2-3 weeks. Lab work shows an anemia and thrombocytopenia, as well as elevated bilirubin, elevated transaminase levels, and elevated reticulocyte count. What rare complication of infectious mono do they most likely have?

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and thrombocytopenia

these are a result of cross-reactivity of EBV-induced antibodies against RBCs and platelets
hemolysis explains the elevated bilirubin and transaminases
Coombs test is usually Positive

48
Q

What are the clinical features of a subarachnoid hemorrhage? what is the most common non-traumatic cause?

A

acute severe thunderclap HA (maximal intensity reached in <1 min) and sxs of meningeal irritation (n/v, photophobia)
nontraumatic SAH is most commonly due to a RUPTURED SACCULAR (BERRY) ANEURYSM
initial imaging: CT scan w/o contrast

49
Q

how do you tx acute mediastinitis? how does it present?

A

Tx = drainage and surgical debridement, and prolonged Abx therapy!
can occur following cardiac surgery and presents w/ fever, CP, leukocytosis, and mediastinal widening on CXR. may be sternal wound drainage or purulent discharge

50
Q

how do you treat transient synovitis in children?

A

NSAIDs (ibuprofen) and rest

typically see no lab abnormalities or fever (as would be expected in cases of septic arthritis)

51
Q

pt w/ crampy, postprandial epigastric pain, food aversion, and wt loss. Hx of vascular disease. what is this?

A

chronic mesenteric ischemia!

Dx with CT angiography (Doppler US may also be used)

52
Q

what is a potential side effect of aminoglycosides, such as Amikacin, when used to tx serious gram-negative infxs?

A

potentially NEPHROTOXIC

drug levels and renal function must be monitored closely during therapy

53
Q

The dx of itrauterine feta demise (fetal death >/= 20 weeks) must be confirmed by what?

A

absence of fetal cardiac activity on ULTRASOUND

54
Q

triad of thrombocytopenia (and small platelets), eczema, and recurrent infections. what condition is this? what is the genetic etiology?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
an x-linked recessive defect in the WAS protein gene
leads to impaired cytoskeleton changes in leukocytes and platelets

55
Q

pt w/ nephrotic range proteinuria and hematuria, and dense intramembranous deposits that stain for C3 on microscopy, has what? what is the pathophysiologic mechanism of this condtion?

A

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

caused by persistent activation of the alternative complement pathway

56
Q

cerebellar dysfunction is common among chronic alcohol abusers. symptoms include??

A

gait instability
truncal ataxia
nystagmus
difficulty w/ rapid alternating movements (dysdiadochokinesia)
hypotonia (leading to a pendular knee reflex)
INTENTION TREMOR

57
Q

what is the mechanism of warfarin-induced skin necrosis?

A

rapid decline in PROTEIN C levels – usually in pts w/ underlying hereditary protein C deficiency

58
Q

pts w/ dermatomyositis are at increased risk of developing what compared to the general population?

A

Malignancy!

the most common malignancies are ovarian, lung, pancreatic, stomach, or colorectal cancers, and non-Hodgkin lymphoma

59
Q

pts with early syphilis who have a severe penicillin allergy receive what alternate tx?

A

oral doxycycline

60
Q

what is a common cause of a false positive VDRL in women? might be in a woman with recurrent first trimester miscarriages and thrombocytopenia and prolonged PTT on labwork. what medicine should you start this pregnant patient on?

A

Antiphospholipid Antibody syndrome

start low molecular weight heparin (and low dose aspirin)– reduce the risk to her current pregnancy

61
Q

boy between ages 4-10, not overweight, presents w/ either hip, groin or knee pain plus an antalgic gait. What is this?

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease,
or idiopathic avascular necrosis of the femoral capital epiphysis

usually pts are managed conversatively w/ observation and bracing (surgery may be indicated in cases where the femoral head is not well contained w/in the acetabulum)

62
Q

pt has sudden onset of severe CP radiating to the back and then collapses. they are hypotensive and tachycardic w/ JVD and respiratory variation in systolic BP (pulsus paradoxus). CXR shows widened mediastinum. What is the dx? what is the cause of this pts syncope?

A

Acute aortic dissection complication by cardiac tamponade
syncope is due to the accumulation of fluid in the pericardium (compression of cardiac chambers, limited diastolic filling)

63
Q

pt recently had cardiac cath procedure. presents w/ nausea and abdominal pain, constellation of acute/subacute renal failure with labs showing eosinophilia (possible eosinophiluria), and skin manifestations such as Livedo reticularis (a reticular, erythematous or purple discoloration of the skin that blanches w/ pressure) or blue toe syndrome. What has happened?

A

Cholesterol embolization!
- systemic atheroembolism from disruption of atherosclerotic aortic plaques (cholesterol crystal embolism)

risk factors = hypercholesterolemia, HTN, DM2, recent cardiac cath or vascular procedure

64
Q

is basophilic stippling specific to lead poisoning?

A

NO! it can also be caused by alcoholism. or it can also be due to thalassemias. it is nonspecific.

65
Q

MCV >110, low retic count, macroovalocyte RBCs, hypersegmented neutrophils, anisocytosis, and poikilocytosis. what are you thinking?

A

Megaloblastic anemia (impaired DNA synthesis due to B12 or folate deficiency)

66
Q

what is the cause of hemophilic arthropathy? how does it typically present?

A

caused by iron/hemosiderin deposition leading to synovitis and fibrosis w/in the joint
hemophilic arthropathy typically presents w/ chronic worsening joint pain and swelling and can result in contractures of the joint and limited ROM – common in pts w/ hx of recurrent hemarthroses

hemophilic pt = hx of easy bruising since childhood, excessive bleeding after dental procedure, recurrent joint swelling, and family hx (x-linked recessive)

67
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis – inherited disorder that increases RBC membrane fragility. Classic presentation of normocytic anemia with increased retic count, jaundice, and splenomegaly in a person of Northern European ancestry. What is a common complication due to high hgb turnover and excess bilirubin (that overwhelm conjugation and elimination from the body)?

A

Acute cholecystitis from pigmented gallstones!!

hyperbilirubinemia manifests as jaundice, dark urine (cola-colored), and pigment (calcium bilirubinate) gallstones.

68
Q

pt has a hx of Hodgkin’s lymphoma (in remission) w/ mediastinal irradiation. presents w/ progressive peripheral edema, elevated JVP, hepatomegaly and ascites. what do you suspect?

A

constrictive pericarditis (inelastic pericardium) as a complication of mediastinal irradiation –causing right heart failure

other findings include hepatojugular reflux, Kussmaul’s sign (lack of decrease/increase in JVP on inspiration), and a pericardial knock (mid-diastolic sound)

survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma are at increased risk of cardiac dz, which can present 10-20 yrs after radiation and/or anthracycline therapy

69
Q

In juvenile idiopathic arthritis, you usually see laboratory findings suggestive of systemic inflammation (elevated ESR and CRP, hyperferritinemia, hypergammaglobulinemia, and thrombocytosis). You also often see ANEMIA, what is the mechanism behind this?

A

Anemia is most likely due to chronic inflammation and iron deficiency

  • inflammatory cytokines lead to increased production of hepcidin, which inhibits iron absorption across the small intestine, and inhibits the release of iron from both the macrophages and the reticuloendothelial system of the liver
  • the anemia typically improves w/ anti-inflammatory meds, like methotrexate
70
Q

single liver cyst in a pt that immigrated from another country (like Mexico). they have fever, RUQ pain, and elevated alk phos. What is the protozoa? how do you tx it?

A

Entamoeba histolytica
Tx with Metronidazole
also use a luminal agent (paromomycin) to eradicate intestinal colonization.
**DO NOT aspirate and drain!! not needed!

71
Q

what kind of drug is Diclofenac?

A

NSAID!

72
Q

What is angiodysplasia? and what heart condition is it associated with?

A

angiodysplasia is characterized by dilated submucosal veins and AV malformations –it is a common cause of recurrent, painless GI bleeding
it may occur anywhere in the GI tract, but is most common in the RIGHT COLON
more frequently seen in pts with advanced renal disease or von Willebrand disease – also more common in pts with AORTIC STENOSIS (possible due to disruption of vW multimers as they traverse the turbulent valve space induced by AS)
Dx made via endoscopy
can tx w/ endoscopic cautery if pts have anemia or gross/occult bleeding

73
Q

What are the 3 D’s of Pellagra? what vitamin is deficient?

A

Pellagra = Diarrhea, Dermatitis and Dementia (and if severe Death)
Deficiency of NIACIN!! (vit B3)
pts typically present w/ GI sxs (nausea, abdominal pain, epigastric discomfort) along w/ glossitis and watery diarrhea
Characteristic dermatitis occurs in sun exposed areas and resembles a sunburn (b/l and symmetric)

74
Q

what is first-line tx for PTSD?

A

trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral psychotherapy and SSRIs/SNRIs

75
Q

genital wart (HPV) is which condylomata?

A

condylomata acuminata… bc to accumulate warts you have to ACUMULATE a lot of sex partners

condylomata lata… it’s lata-r in the syphilis (bc it occurs in secondary syphilis).. these are also flatter lesions, and ‘l’ is flat

76
Q

what are possible late-term or postterm pregnancy complications with the fetus?

A

Oligohydramnios is common!!
-bc aging placenta may have decreased fetal perfusion, resulting in decreased renal perfusion and decreased urinary output from the fetus
others include: meconium aspiration, stillbirth, macrosomia, convulsions

77
Q

What are the characteristics of an anterior cerebral artery stroke?

A

contralateral motor and/or sensory deficits, most pronounced in the lower limb
urinary incontinence, gait dyspraxia, primitive reflexes, abulia (lack of will or initiative), and emotional disturbances

78
Q

In pts w/ Turner Syndrome, what hormone changes/abnormalities do you see? is growth hormone abnormal?

A

ovarian dysgenesis (streak ovaries) leads to low estrogen and progesterone levels (no breast development), and this leads to no negative feedback, so there are elevated levels of FSH and LH
most pts require estrogen replacement therapy
Growth hormone levels are normal!
short stature is not a result of GH deficiency, but a result of loss of genes from a second X chromosome — GH therapy is still recommended to improve growth!

79
Q

a young adult male develops gross hematuria less than 5 days after developing an upper respiratory infection (synpharyngitic). He also has HTN, RBC casts, and AKI. his serum complement level is normal. what does he have?

A

IgA nephropathy – the most common cause of glomerulonephritis in adults.
-serum complement levels tend to be normal, and mesangial IgA deposits are seen on kidney biopsy

this is in contrast to Post-infectious glomerulonephritis, which typically occurs 10-21 days after a URI (post-pharyngitic) and is more common in children. Lab studies usually show Low C3 complement and elevated anti-streptolysin O and/or anti-DNAse B.

80
Q

the presence of nephrotic syndrome with palpable kidneys, hepatomegaly, and ventricular hypertrophy (suggested by an audible S4) in the setting of chronic inflammatory disease (recurrent pulmonary infections, bronchiectasis) is suggestive of what?

A

Secondary Amyloidosis!
- extracellular deposit of insoluble polymeric protein fibrils in tissue and organs, elevated amyloid A

Dx: abdominal fat pad aspiration biopsy
Tx: tx underlying condition, and colchicine for prevention and tx

81
Q

when are you at risk of developing infection with Vibrio vulnificus? what does infection look like?

A

a free-living, gram-negative bacteria that grows in brackish coastal water and marine environments
infxs are acquired through consumption of raw oysters or wound contamination during recreational sea activities or raw seafood handling
most pts who bc ill have Liver Disease!! – those w/ hemochromatosis are at greater risk bc free iron acts as an exponential growth catalyst
Wound contamination – mild cellulitis
those w/ liver dz or certain comorbidities (DM) are at increased risk for NECROTIZING FASCIITIS w/ HEMORRHAGIC BULLOUS LESIONS and septic shock

Tx empirically w/ IV ceftriaxone and doxycycline (high risk of death)

82
Q

what is the believed mechanism behind sympathetic ophthalmia (aka “spared eye injury”), which is characterized by an immune-mediated inflammation of one eye (the sympathetic eye) after a penetrating injury to the other eye.

A

believed to be the uncovering of ‘hidden’ antigens
some antigens contained w/in the eye are protected from immunologic recognition by natural barriers – breaking these barriers (penetrating trauma) results in uncovering of ‘hidden’ antigens

83
Q

how do you calculate the number needed to treat (NNT)?

A
NNT = 1/ARR
ARR = absolute risk reduction

ARR = % risk in group 1 – % risk in group 2

84
Q

what pts should be suspected of nocturnal hemoglobinuria?

A

pts in their 40s w/ a combo of hemolytic anemia, cytopenias, and hypercoaguable state, resulting in intraabdominal or cerebral venous thrombosis
this is an autoimmune hemolytic disorder characterized by intravascular and extravascular hemolysis and hemoglobinuria – an acquired genetic defect leads loss of proteins CD55 and CD59 binding to the RBC surface, they proteins normally inhibit the activation of complement on RBCs, but their absence allows the complement MAC to form and result in hemolysis

85
Q

what arrhythmia is most specific for digitalis toxicity?

A

Atrial tachycardia w/ AV block

86
Q

What is the difference between pernicious anemia, and megaloblastic anemia due to B12 deficiency?

A

in pernicious anemia, the B12 deficiency is due to the presence of autoantibodies against gastric intrinsic factor, which is required for B12 absorption
the dx of pernicious anemia can be confirmed by the detection of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
*these pts frequently have other associated autoimmune disease, including autoimmune thyroid disease and vitiligo

87
Q

in pts with multiple myeloma, why are fatigue, CONSTIPATION, and depression often seen?

A

HYPERCALCEMIA!

88
Q

rare condition characterized by precocious puberty, cafe au lait spots and multiple bone defects (polyostotic fibrous dysplasia)

A

McCune-Albright syndrome

responsible for 5% of the cases of female precocious puberty
may be associated w/ other endocrine disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, prolactin- or GH-secreting pituitary adenomas, and adrenal hypercortisolism

89
Q

what is the most common cause of bleeding (ecchymoses, epistaxis, bleeding from IV sites) in pts with chronic renal failure?

A

platelet dysfunction!!
-the major defect involves platelet-vessel wall and platelet-platelet interaction

PT, PTT, and platelet count are all normal. bleeding time is prolonged.

Dessmopressin (DDAVP) is usually the tx of choice (if needed) bc it increases the release of factor 8/von Willebrand factor multimers from endothelial storage sites
(platelet transfusion is not indicated bc the transfused platelets quickly bc inactive)

90
Q

what is the most common, severe long-term side effect of amiodarone? What baseline studies do you need to get bc of this?

A

Pulmonary toxicity! -usually presents w/ interstitial pneumonitis

A baseline CXR and PFTs are usually obtained prior to initiating tx