Deck 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the pathophysiology of ARDS?

A

Lung injury leads to release of proteins, cytokines, and neutrophils into the alveolar space. This leads to leakage of blood/proteinaceous fluid into the alveoli, alveolar collapse due to loss of surfactant, and diffuse alveolar damage. As a result, 1. gas exchange is impaired, 2. there is decreased lung compliance ** (due to loss of surfactant and increased elastic recoil of edematous lungs), and 3. pulmonary HTN (increased pulm arterial pressure)

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2
Q

a gestational sac at the uterine cornu means….

A

ectopic pregnancy!
this type is cornual or interstitial ectopic pregnancy.
pts w/ bicornuate “heart-shaped” uteruses are at risk for this type of ectopic pregnancy.

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3
Q

How do patients w/ Kawasaki disease present?

A

They must have a fever for >/= 5 days, and 4 of the following:

  1. conjunctivitis
  2. “strawberry tongue” (oral mucosal changes)
  3. rash
  4. erythema, edema, desquamation of the hands and feet
  5. cervical LAD, usually unilateral
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4
Q

Untreated patients with Kawasaki disease are at risk of what major complication? how do you tx Kawasaki disease?

A

coronary artery aneurysm
Tx w/ aspirin and IVIG - this decreases the risk of complications.
ECHO should be performed at the time to dx and repeated 6-8wks later.

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5
Q

intrauterine fetal demise associated w/ growth restriction, multiple limb fractures, short femurs, and a hypoplastic thoracic cavity?

A

type II osteogenesis imperfecta

autosomal dominant, defective type 1 collagen synthesis

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6
Q

What is the greatest risk factor for cerebral palsy? and what form is most commonly seen in these infants?

A

premature birth before 32 weeks.
spastic diplegia is most commonly seen in these preterm infants – it presents w/ hypertonia and hyperreflexia (mainly in the LEs) with both feet pointing down and inward (equinovarus deformity)

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7
Q

how do you tx beta-thalassemia minor?

A

you don’t.
no specific tx is required.
usually pts are of mediterranean descent, asymptomatic w/ mild anemia, disproportionately high RBC count, low MCV, and hgb > 10.

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8
Q

pts initially diagnosed w/ HTN should have a H&P, and what basic testing?

A
  1. Urinalysis (for occult hematuria and urine protein/creatinine ratio)
  2. chemistry panel
  3. lipid profile
  4. baseline ECG
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9
Q

In blastomycosis, extrapulmonary dz most commonly affects the skin. What do the skin lesions look like?

A

Skin lesions in blasto characteristically present as heaped-up verrucous or nodular lesions w/ a violaceous hue that may evolve into microabscesses. wartlike lesions, may even have skin ulcers.

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10
Q

HIV pt w/ CD4 < 100 has vascular cutaneous lesions that began as small reddish/purple papules and evolved into friable pedunculated/nodular lesions. Also has constitutional sxs (fever, malaise, night sweats) and may even have organ involvement (liver, CNS, bone). What do they have?

A

Bacillary angiomatosis!
a Bartonella infection – infx occurs via cat scratch (Bartonella henselae) or body/head lice bite (Bartonella quintana)
Tx = Abx (doxycycline, erythromycin), and the initiation of antiretroviral therapy

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11
Q

What are the chronic symptoms of irritant contact dermatitis?

A

excoriations, hyperkeratosis, and fissuring of the skin.
this can be triggered by a variety of chemicals/cleaning products.
it is nonimmunologically mediated, but can sometimes resemble allergic contact dermatitis (pruritus, erythema, local swelling and vesicles)

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12
Q

what are common symptoms of Premenstrual syndrome (PMS)? Dx? Tx?

A

common symptoms include mood swings, irritability, fatigue, bloating, hot flashes, and breast tenderness. Dx can be confirmed w/ a Symptom diary over 2 menstrual cycles, which may demonstrate recurrence of symptoms 1-2wks prior to menses during the luteal phase and resolution w/ menses. Tx = SSRIs, or OCPs.

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13
Q

harsh, holosystolic murmur best heard at the left lower sternal border in a young child. what is it? Should I do anything?

A

VSD!

ECHO should be done to determine location/size and r/o other defects.

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14
Q

What do you see in tricyclic antidepressant overdose?

A

mental status changes, seizures, tachycardia, hypotension, cardiac conduction delay (prolonged QRS), and anticholinergic effects (dilated pupils, hyperthermia, flushed and dry skin, intestinal ileus)

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15
Q

What is bullous pemphigoid? How do you Dx and Tx it?

A

Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disorder characterized by pruritus and tense bullae on an erythematous base. Common in pts >65 and those w/ malignancy or neuro disorder (parkinsons, MS).
Caused by IgG autoantibodies against the hemidesmosome and BM zone.
Dx via skin biopsy – LM shows subepidermal cleavage; immunofluorescence shows linear IgG and C3 deposits along the BM.
Tx: high-potency topical glucocorticoid – CLOBETASOL

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16
Q

What do you see with laxative abuse (diarrhea characteristics, electrolyte abnormalities)? How do you dx?

A

Diarrhea is typically watery, frequent, and voluminous – nocturnal BMs and abdominal cramps are common.
Hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis (due to increased serum bicarb from impaired chloride-bicarb exchange).
Dx via positive laxative screen or colonoscopy w/ characteristic findings of melanosis coli (dark brown discoloration w/ pale patches of lymph follicles).

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17
Q

How do you tx uterine inversion?

A

immediate manual replacement of the uterus.
if the placenta is still attached, it should not be removed until after the uterus is replaced due to risk of massive hemorrhage.
Uterotonics (oxytocin, misoprostol) should be administered after uterine replacement to prevent further hemorrhage and recurrence of prolapse.

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18
Q

Pt presents w/ sensory ataxia, impaired vibration/proprioception, frequent loss of balance, lancinating pains, reduced/absent DTRs, urinary incontinence, and normal pupillary constriciton w/ accommodation but not with light. What do they have and how do you tx it?

A

Tabes dorsalis and Argyll Robertson pupils, which are findings in late neurosyphilis.
Tx w/ IV penicillin

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19
Q

How do you tx idiopathic intracranial HTN (IIH) or pseudotumor cerebri?

A

Acetazolamide!

it inhibits choroid plexus carbonic anhydrase, thereby decreasing CSF production and intracranial HTN.

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20
Q

statins should be given to all diabetic pts between ages?

A

40-75

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21
Q

When is infective endocarditis due to Eikenella corrodens seen?

A

in the setting of poor dentition and/or periodontal infection, along w/ dental procedures that involve manipulation of the gingival or oral mucosa.
ya(E. corrodens is a gram-neg anaerobe and part of normal human oral flora)

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22
Q

What is Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome?

A

aka hereditary telangiectasia.
characterized by diffuse telangiectasias, recurrent epistaxis, and widespread AV malformations.
AVMs tend to occur in the mucous membranes, skin, and GI tract, but may also occur in the liver, brain, and lung. AVMs in the lungs can shunt blood from the right to the left heart, causing chronic hypoxemia (digital clubbing) and reactive polycythemia!

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23
Q

What is dacryocystitis?

A

an infection of the lacrimal gland, characterized by the sudden onset of pain and redness in the medial canthal region. Sometimes a purulent discharge is noted from the punctum.

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24
Q

Describe the criteria for Schizoaffective disorder?

A
  • major depressive or manic episode concurrent w/ sxs of schizophrenia
  • lifetime hx of delusions or hallucinations for > 2 weeks in the absence of major depressive or manic episode
  • mood sxs are present for majority of illness
  • not due to substances or another medical condition
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25
Q

reperfusion of a limb following arterio-occlusive ischemia for longer than 4-6 hrs can lead to what complication?

A

intracellular and interstitial edema, which may lead to compartment syndrome (acute pain and paresthesias, rapidly increasing and tense swelling, pain on passive stretch)

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26
Q

For an adjustment disorder to be diagnosed, what time frame does it have to occur in?

A

an adjustment disorder involves emotional or behavior symptoms developing within 3 months of an identifiable stressor, and lasting no longer than 6 months once the stressor ceases.

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27
Q

What’s the MOA of 2nd-gen antipsychotics, like risperidone?

A

serotonin 2A and dopamine D2 receptor blockers

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28
Q

Pts on high dose beta-2 agonists (albuterol) for acute asthma attacks may develop what electrolyte abnormality? (sxs?)

A

hypokalemia – may present w/ muscle weakness, arrhythmias and EKG abnormalities
other common beta-2 agonist SEs include tremor, palpitations and HA

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29
Q

In HIV pts, what virus causes acute retinal necrosis associated w/ pain, keratitis, uveitis, and funduscopic findings of peripheral pale lesions and central retinal necrosis?

A

Herpes simplex virus

(in contrast, CMV retinitis is painless and characterized by funduscopic findings of hemorrhages and fluffy or granular lesions around the retinal vessels)

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30
Q

Persistent, eczematous or ulcerating rash on the nipple that spreads to the areola. It is itchy and may hurt, and topical corticosteroids don’t resolve it. What is it? What type of cancer is associated w/ it?

A

Mammary Paget disease.

Adenocarcinoma (the most common type of breast cancer) is found in Paget disease.

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31
Q

In dermatomyositis/polymyositis, muscle weakness is due to injury of what particularly?

A

muscle fiber injury!

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32
Q

What are the specific names of the skin findings seen in dermatomyositis?

A

erythematous rash over the dorsum of the fingers = Gottron’s papules; and/or on the upper eyelids = heliotrope eruption

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33
Q

Pt presents w/ watery diarrhea that is tea colored, muscle weakness/cramps and hypokalemia, hypo- or achlorhydria, as well as facial flushing, lethargy, n/v, abdominal pain and weight loss. What do they have?

A

VIPoma!!

this is a rare tumor affecting the pancreatic cells, VIP (vasoactive intestinal peptide) binds to intestinal epithelial cells to increase fluid and electrolyte secretion into the intestinal lumen – most pts develop this VIPoma syndrome (pancreatic cholera)
(may have hypercalcemia due to increased bone resorption, and hyperglycemia due to increased glycogenolysis)
*pts may have coexisting hyperparathyroidism as part of MEN

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34
Q

pt presents with a mild prodrome of fever and malaise and shows you a small area on his hand of grouped vesicles on an erythematous base. He describes a tingling, burning pain. He recently had unprotected sex. What is this rash?

A

Herpetic whitlow

caused by HSV

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35
Q

all pts w/ an initial dx of rheumatic fever should be tx’d w/ Abx therapy to eradicate GAS regardless of the presence or absence of pharyngitis at the time of dx. What Abx do you use?

A

IM benzathine PENCILLIN G

continuous Abx prophylaxis to prevent recurrent GAS pharyngitis, give every 4 weeks

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36
Q

What is the most common side effect of Tamoxifen? and other side effects?

A

most common = hot flashes

other side effects = venous thromboembolism, endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma

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37
Q

What is the motor and sensory function of the femoral nerve?

A

Motor: leg flexion at the hip, leg extension at the knee (innervates anterior compartment of the thigh)
Sensory: anterior/medial thigh and medial leg via the saphenous branch

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38
Q

What imaging study do you use to diagnose Meckel’s diverticulum?

A

Technetium-99m pertechnetate scan

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39
Q

What are the medications commonly used in the tx of Acute Bipolar Depression?

A

Quetiapine and Lurasidone (2nd gen antipsychotics)

Lamotrigine (anticonvulsant)

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40
Q

Pt presents after blunt head trauma. They receive fluid resuscitation and develop HTN, bradycardia, and respiratory depression (Cushing’s reflex)… what is going on?

A

They likely have an epidural hematoma from rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Fluid resuscitation is increasing the rate at which the hematoma expands and the sxs are caused by elevated ICP. Transtentorial (uncal) herniation is likely to occur and cause pressure on the ipsilateral oculomotor nerve (mydriasis, ptosis, down-and-out gaze of the ipsilateral pupil), ipsilateral posterior cerebral artery (contralateral homonymous hemianopsia), and contralateral cerebral peduncle against the edge of the tentorium (ipsilateral hemiparesis).

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41
Q

How do you tx chorioamnionitis?

A

broad-spectrum antibiotics (ampicillin, gentamicin, clindamycin) and delivery!
*chorioamnionitis is NOT an indication for c-section… oxytocin may be given to accelerate labor

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42
Q

ultrasound findings of an ovarian mass with solid components, thick septations, and peritoneal free fluid (ascites) are concerning for what?

A

epithelial ovarian carcinoma

the presence of peritoneal fluid in a postmenopausal woman is pathologic and is the origin of typical sxs of bloating, pain, early satiety-anorexia, and abdominal distension seen in ovarian cancer.

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43
Q

How do you treat an Acute dystonic reaction (sudden, sustained contraction of the neck, mouth, tongue, or eye muscles) – SE of antipsychotics?

A

Benztropine or Diphenhydramine

benztropine is an anticholinergic med, and diphenhydramine is an antihistamine w/ significant anticholinergic activity.

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44
Q

Which pts under the age of 65 is the 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) recommended for?e

A

adults age < 65 who are current smokers, or have chronic medical conditions, including heart or lung dz, diabetes, and chronic liver dz.
it is recommended to add the 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine in adults < 65 with very high risk conditions (sickle cell, HIV, CKD, etc)

45
Q

When should adults receive Tdap vs Td (which is the booster)?

A

adult pts should receive Tdap as a 1x dose in place of Td.
if pts have not received Tdap as an adult, or if the pts prior vaccine hx is unknown, Tdap should be given, followed by Td every 10 years thereafter.

46
Q

how may focal seizures present in school-aged children?

A

can present with motor (head turning), sensory (paresthesias), or autonomic (sweating) sxs. Impairment of consciousness and automatisms (chewing, sucking, swallowing) may be present.

absence seizures are generalized seizures that present w/ an arrest in activity w/o a postictal period. automatisms may be present. they can be provoked by hyperventilation.

47
Q

What drugs/supplements INCREASE the effects of warfarin (more bleedy) by inhibiting CYP450?

A
acetaminophen/NSAIDs
Abx/antifungals (metronidazole)
amiodarone
cimetidine
cranberry juice, Ginkgo biloba, vitamin E
omeprazole
thyroid hormone
SSRIs (fluoxetine)
48
Q

What drugs/supplements DECREASE the effects of warfarin (less bleedy) by inducing CYP450?

A
carbamazepine, phenytoin
Ginseng, St. John's wort
OCPs
phenobarbital
rifampin
49
Q

what bacteria most common causes infective endocarditis of structurally abnormal heart valves following dental procedures (gingival manipulation; or resp tract incision or biopsy)?

A
Viridans group streptococci, such as 
STREPTOCOCCUS MUTANS (or S mitis, S oralis, S sanguinis)

typically presents subacutely w/ several weeks of fatigue and low-grade fever, may have a new regurgitant murmur, and SPLINTER HEMORRHAGES under the fingernails due to microemboli

50
Q

acute unilateral motor weakness w/o sensory deficits or higher cortical dysfunction is suggestive of a lacunar stroke affecting the posterior limb of the internal capsule. Lacunar infarcts are most commonly associated with what chronic condition?

A

chronic HTN! – which leads to arteriolar sclerosis and vessel occlusion (HYPERTENSIVE VASCULOPATHY)

51
Q

How do young adults w/ Wilson’s disease tend to present?

A

Wilson’s dz is characterized by abnormal copper deposition in tissues as the liver, basal ganglia, and cornea
young adults tend to present w/ neuropsychiatric dz (ranging from tremor and rigidity to depression, paranoia, and catatonia)
(children present w/ liver dz)
Dx is confirmed by the presence of low serum ceruloplasmin, increased urinary copper excretion, or Kayser-Fleischer rings on slit lamp exam

52
Q

How is central retinal artery occlusion emergently treated?

A

ocular massage and high flow oxygen

53
Q

A pt w/ undiagnosed HIV has SUBACUTE pulmonary sxs (dyspnea, dry cough, fever), tachypnea, hypoxemia, and b/l interstitial infiltrates on CXR. What does he likely have and how do you tx it?

A

Pneumocystis pneumonia
Tx with Trimetoprim-sulfamethoxazole and prednisone
(corticosteroids are used in pts w/ impaired oxygenation, as TMP-SMX may transiently worsen pulmonary function)

54
Q

Pt presents with chronic cough (>8 weeks) that is predominantly nocturnal and did not improve with antihistamine therapy. what do you suspect? how do you work it up?

A

Asthma
evaluate with spirometry (PFTs)
(an alternate approach = tx empirically w/ 2-4 wks of inhaled glucocorticoids and see if the cough improves)

55
Q

How do you tx a Bartholin gland cyst?

A
if asymptomatic -- observe
symptomatic cysts (like Bartholin abscesses) are tx'd with incision and drainage. Placement of a Word catheter after drainage reduces the risk of recurrence.
56
Q

What pts are at highest risk for osteomyelitis?

A

injection drug users, pts w/ sickle cell anemia, and immunosuppressed pts
In IV drug users, the spine is a frequent site, and Staph aureus is the most common pathogen.

Most cases of vertebral osteo are chronic (>6 wks) and insidious w/ minimal sxs. Pts may have back pain unrelieved w/ rest, and <50% have fever! Exam shows tenderness to gentle percussion over spinous process of involved vertebra. Leukocytes may be high/normal, platelets are high due to inflam/stress, and ESR is elevated.

57
Q

What is the genetic mode of inheritance for myotonic dystrophy vs Duchenne and Becker muscular dystrophy?

A

Myotonic = AD (expansion of CTG trinucleotide repeat)

Duchenne and Becker = x-linked recessive (deletion of dystrophin gene)

58
Q

What are the effects of antipsychotics (D2 antagonists) on the tuberoinfundibular pathway?

A

causes hyperprolactinemia (dopamine normally inhibits prolactin release), resulting in amenorrhea, galactorrhea, gynecomastia, and sexual dysfunction

59
Q

What is the test of choice when trying to identify a Zenker’s diverticulum?

A

contrast esophagram

60
Q

stable pts w/o significant comorbid conditions should receive pRBC transfusion for hemoglobin less than what?

A

hgb < 7!

61
Q

Pts with Felty syndrome typically have severe, seropositive RA w/ increased risk for extra-articular manifestations, such as?

A

vasculitis, skin ulcers!

*remember Felty syndrome is triad of inflammatory arthritis (advanced RA), splenomegaly, and neutropenia

62
Q

Are phenytoin and/or valproic acid safe in pregnancy?

A

NO!!
phenytoin has teratogenic effects and is known to cause fetal hydantoin syndrome (eg, orofacial clefts, microcephaly, nail/digit hypoplasia, cardiac defects, dysmorphic facial features)
valproic acid has been linked to an increased risk of congenital anomalies such as neural tube defects and dysmorphic facial features

63
Q

What is the most common malignancy to spread to the brain? and how may it present/look on imaging?

A

Lung cancer!
pulmonary sxs arise in the majority of pts, but up to 30% of cases present w/ manifestations of metastatic brain dz, including HA, focal deficits, cognitive changes, and seizures
MRI of brain – multiple well-circumscribed lesions w/ vasogenic edema at the gray and white matter junction!

64
Q

What medicine can be given to help pass ureteral stones <1 cm?

A

Tamsulosin, an alpha-1 blocker

it relaxes ureteral muscle and decreases intraureteral pressure–this facilitates stone passage and reduces the need for analgesics.

65
Q

How do you tx TCA overdose when it causes prolongation of the QRS >100 msec?

A

Sodium bicarbonate!
it increases the serum pH and extracellular sodium, thereby alleviating the cardio-depressant action on Sodium channels (TCAs can’t bind to the fast sodium channels as well)

66
Q

What is a common side effect of CCBs, specifically with dihydropyridine CCBs such as amlodipine and nifedipine?

A

peripheral edema!
they cause preferential dilation of precapillary ateriolar vessels, leading to peripheral edema

the combination of ACE-I/ARBs + CCBs significantly lowers the risk of peripheral edema bc the ACE-I/ARBs cause post-capillary venodilation.

67
Q

What is the initial work-up for pts with secondary amenorrhea, defined as the absence of menses for >/= 3 cycles or >/= 6 months in women who menstruated previously?

A

urine pregnancy test.. if negative and there is no obvious explanation for secondary amenorrhea from the H&P, next check prolactin, TSH, and FSH – these can differentiate between the most common causes (hyperprolactinemia, thyroid dysfunction, premature ovarian failure)

68
Q

What is the most common cause of an isolated, asymptomatic elevation of alkaline phosphatase in an elderly patient?

A

Paget disease of bone (osteitis deformans)

69
Q

irregular, soft mass in the left scrotum above and separate from the left testis, does not transilluminate, increases in size during Valsalva/with standing, decreases in size in supine position

A

Varicocele

“bag of worms” description

70
Q

if you have suspicion for a stroke, what specific imaging study do you get?

A

NONCONTRAST CT scan of the head
-hemorrhagic strokes appear immediately on noncontrast CT scan as white hyperdense regions in brain parenchyma
(you don’t use contrast bc hyperdense contrast material may be difficult to differentiate from acute blood)

71
Q

Akathisia, a type of EPS, is a subjective sense of inner restlessness that may manifest as pacing and an inability to sit still. How do you manage it?

A

reduce the antipsychotic dose (don’t discontinue completely)

tx w/ a beta blocker, benztropine, or a benzo

72
Q

What is factitious disorder vs malingering?

A

Factitious disorder = intentional falsification or inducement of sxs w/ GOAL TO ASSUME SICK ROLE

Malingering = falsification or exaggeration of sxs to obtain external incentives (SECONDARY GAIN)

73
Q

What are risk factors for placenta previa and how does it present?

A

Placenta previa RFs = multiparity, smoking, and previous uterine surgery (c/s)
it presents with PAINLESS antepartum vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate tracing is usually unaffected as the bleeding is maternal

74
Q

How does placental abruption present?

A

it presents with vaginal bleeding, a distended and VERY TENDER UTERUS, and fetal heart rate tracing abnormalities

75
Q

What does CSF analysis show in patients with multiple sclerosis? (remember they present w/ neuro deficits disseminated in space and time)

A

Oligoclonal IgG bands (85-95% of pts)

76
Q

What happens to thyroid levels in pregnancy in pts w/ normal thyroid function?

A

Total T3 and T4 increase, free T4 is normal (or mildly elevated), and TSH is suppressed.
Pts remain clinically euthyroid.

Pts with baseline hypothyroidism cannot increase thyroid hormone production during pregnancy (in response to the increase in thyroxine-binding globulin caused by estrogen) and so their replacement thyroxine dose should be increased.

77
Q

recurrent cystitis in toddlers is often caused by what?

A

constipation (causing urinary stasis) – fecal retention can cause rectal distension, which in turn compresses the bladder and prevents complete voiding – the residual urine is a potential breeding ground for bacteria that ascend to the urethra from the perineum

78
Q

What is the most common cause of pneumonia in infants and young children with CF?

A

Staph aureus!!!!!

pseudomonas is the most common cause of CF-related pneumonia in adults

79
Q

Pt presents w/ chronic diarrhea and abdominal pain, anal fissures, skin tags and fistulas, and canker sores (which are aphthous ulcers!), and is also a smoker. What do they have?

A

Crohn’s disease

extends from mouth to the anus, skip lesions, transmural bowel inflammation

80
Q

What is the quickest way to lower serum potassium concentration?

A

insulin and glucose (IV insulin moves K+ intracellularly w/in mins)

Inhaled beta agonists (albuterol) also rapidly shift K+ intracellularly – but their use in pts w/ active CAD (stable angina) can cause tachycardia and precipitate angina

Sodium bicarbonate is another option for rapid tx

81
Q

how do you define Massive PE?

A

it is PE complicated by Hypotension and/or acute right heart strain – syncope tends to only occur in massive PE
JVD and right heart BBB on ECG are signs of acute right heart strain

82
Q

What are the colon cancer screening guidelines for pts w/ inflammatory bowel disease?

A

begin 8 years post dx (12-15 yrs if dz only in left colon)

Colonoscopy w/ biopsies every 1-2 years

83
Q

How do you tx V fib vs Torsades de pointes?

A

V fib – immediate defibrillation

Torsades de pointes – IV magnesium sulfate

84
Q

Patients with what heart defect have a 5-8x higher risk of infective endocarditis?

A

mitral valve prolapse associated w/ mitral regurgitation!

pts w/ IE may present w/ a new regurgitant murmur

85
Q

what is the mechanism by which hyperventilation lowers intracranial pressure?

A

hyperventilation decreases cerebral arterial CO2, which results in rapid vasoconstriction and consequential decrease in ICP

86
Q

What neurotransmitter is the primary pharmacologic target in the tx of OCD?

A

Serotonin – tx with SSRIs

87
Q

What form of birth control should be used in pts w/ breast cancer?

A
Copper IUD 
(hormone-containing methods of contraception are avoided in pts w/ breast cancer)
88
Q
Bleeding diathesis (easy bruising, mucosal bleeding, epistaxis) in pts w/ CF is typically from deficiency of what?
this leads to deficiency of what coagulation factors?
A

Vitamin K deficiency
this leads to low levels of vit K-dependent coagulation factors – II, VII, IX, X, and proteins C and S.
also see prolonged PT – due predominantly to deficiency of activated factor VII (aPTT is typically normal)

due to exocrine pancreatic insufficiency, pts w/ CF are unable to absorb fats and fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K)

89
Q

How do you treat Tourette disorder?

A

habit reversal training
alpha-2 agonists (clonidine, guanfacine)
antipsychotics (risperidone, halperidol, pimozide)

90
Q

primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn’s syndrome) has what effect on bicarb?

A

increased serum bicarb! –> metabolic alkalosis

also have HTN, mild hypernatremia and hypokalemia (Due to elevated aldosterone and low renin)

91
Q

What benign liver tumor is associated with young and middle-aged women who take OCPs?

A

hepatic adenoma -benign epithelial tumor

US most commonly shows a well-demarcated, hyperechoic lesion
possible long-term complications include growth, rupture, and malignant transformation

92
Q

What is the most common cause of megaloblastic anemia in chronic alcoholics?

A

Folate deficiency!

alcoholics can develop megaloblastic anemia w/in 5 - 10 weeks, as body stores of folate are limited

93
Q

What is Friedreich ataxia?

A
the most common type of spinocerebellar ataxia -- AR
sxs begin before 22 yrs of age
neuro manifestations (gait ataxia, frequent falling, dysarthria) result from degeneration of the spinal tracts
non-neuro manifestations include concentric hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, diabetes, and skeletal deformities (scoliosis, hammer toes)
most common cause of death = cardiomyopathy and respiratory complications
94
Q

Child presents following a URI with palpable purpura on butt/legs, arthralgias, colicky abdominal pain, and mild renal dz with some hematuria. What do they have? what does renal biopsy show?

A

Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
- the most common childhood systemic vasculitis
Renal biopsy confirms the dx and will show Deposition of IgA in the mesangium

95
Q

How do you manage chest pain in a pt that has just done cocaine?

A

Benzos for BP and anxiety
aspirin
NTG and CCBs for pain
NO BETA BLOCKERS!!!!

96
Q

Pt with chronic pelvic pain that is worse before the onset of menses, dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. On exam there is tenderness of the recto-vaginal area, tenderness w/ movement of the uterus, and thickening of the uterosacral ligaments. Lab testing is negative and US shows normal pelvic anatomy. What do they have? how do you manage it?

A

Endometriosis!!

  • ectopic endometrial glands and stroma cause pain due to cyclic hemorrhage and accumulating fibrosis
  • Tx initially with NSAIDs and/or OCPs (empiric tx)
  • LAPAROSCOPY is indicated after failure of empiric therapy (allows for direct visualization, biopsy, and removal of endometriotic lesions)
97
Q

What should viridans group streptococci (Strep mutans) be treated with in patients with infective endocarditis?

A

most are highly susceptible to penicillin and should be treated with IV aqueous pencillin G or IV ceftriaxone for 4 weeks.

98
Q

In a pt with lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow), how is pain reproduced on exam?

A

pain with resisted wrist extension or supination
pain with passive wrist flexion (while the elbow remains extended)
also there is tenderness at the lateral epicondyle
pts usually have a hx of overuse of the extensor muscles of the arm
management = activity modification, NSAIDs, and counterforce bracing

99
Q

Describe Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia?

A

plasma cell malignancy characterized by excessive production of monoclonal IgM antibody –> have an M-spike of IgM
(as opposed to the M-spike of multiple myeloma that is due to IgG, IgA, and light chains)

pts present with hyperviscosity sydrome (diplopia, tinnitus, HA, dilated/segmented funduscopic findings), neuropathy (electric sensation), and evidence of infiltrative disease (hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, thrombocytopenia)

100
Q

pt presents after recent tooth extraction with a chronic, slow-growing, nontender indurated mass around their mandible. It has a purulent discharge with descrete yellow granules (“sulfur granules”). Eventually it will form multiple sinus tracts to the skin. What bug? how do you tx it?

A

Actinomyces – an anaerobic bacterium of the oral cavity

Tx = high dose oral Penicillin

101
Q

When is it considered arrest of active labor? and what do you do?

A

arrest of active labor occurs at cervical dilation of >/= 6 cm when there is:

  • no cervical change for >/= 4 hours with adequate contractions (>/= 200 MVUs in 10-min interval)
  • or no cervical change for >/= 6 hours with inadequate contractions

Cesarean delivery is indicated!

102
Q

In patients who habitually use combined analgesics (e.g., aspirin and naproxen) and develop analgesic nephropathy (the most common form of drug-induced chronic renal failure), what are the common pathologies seen?

A

papillary necrosis
chronic tubulointerstitial nephritis

early manifestations include polyuria and sterile pyuria (WBC casts may also be seen)
HTN, mild proteinuria, and impaired urinary concentration commonly occur as the disease advances

103
Q

What are the major side effects of cyclosporine?

A

nephrotoxicity, hyperkalemia, HTN, gum hypertrophy, hirsutism, and tremor

104
Q

What are the major side effects of tacrolimus?

A

similar toxicities to cyclosporine, except no hirsutism or gum hypertrophy

(left w/ nephrotoxicity, hyperkalemia, HTN, and tremor)

105
Q

What are the major toxicities of azathioprine?

A

dose-related diarrhea, leukopenia, and hepatotoxicity

106
Q

what are the major toxicities of mycophenolate?

A

bone *Marrow suppression

107
Q

What form of arthritis has sausage fingers?

A

Psoriatic arthritis!

sausage fingers = dactylitis
classic presentation involves the DIP joints and morning stiffness is present. There is nail pitting and onycholysis (separation of nail bed). can also see the well-demarcated red plaques with silvery scaling classic of psoriasis.

108
Q

How does porphyria cutanea tarda present? what is it associated with? how is the dx confirmed?

A

blisters, bullae, scarring, hypo/hyper-pigmentation on sun-exposed skin (back of hands, forearms, face) –(scarring and calcification similar to scleroderma)
associated with Hep C!!!
- also associated w/ HIV, EtOH and estrogen use, and smoking
Dx is confirmed by elevated plasma or urinary porphyrin levels (due to deficiency of uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase)