Nukes Flashcards

1
Q

Normal Gallium-67 uptake

A

Liver, bone, lacrimal gland, nasopharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Gallium-67 half life

A

78 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Gallium-67 critical organ

A

colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Imaging time point for Gallium-67

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which radiotracer causes increased breast uptake in pregnant/lactating females?

A

Gallium-67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Radiotracer uptake in Kaposi sarcoma

A

Ga-67 negative, Tl-201 positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

morphine dose

A

.04 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

maximum amount of Mo-99 allowed in Tc-99m

A

.15 microCi Mo-99 per 1 milliCi Tc-99m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

typical tube voltage in chest XR

A

100 kV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

1 Becquerel (Bq)

A

1 decay/s (DPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1 mCi

A

37 MBq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

t 1/2 Ru-82

A

75 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

t 1/2 18-F

A

110 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

t 1/2 Tc-99m

A

6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

4 production methods of radionuclides

A
  • linear accelerator/cyclotron - nuclear reactor (fission) - nuclear reactor (neutron activation) - radionuclide generator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Low energy tracers

A

Tc-99m, I-123, Xe-133, Tl-201

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

High energy tracers

A

I-131, F-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

t 1/2 I-123

A

13 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

t 1/2 Ga-68

A

68 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Best to worst soft tissue contrast

A

MRI > CT > digital mammography > computed radiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

artifact seen in adenomyomatosis

A

comet tail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

side lobe artifact results from

A

radial expansion of piezoelectric crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

magic angle artifact appears on what kind of sequences

A

short TE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HVL definition

A

thickness of material that attenuates xray by 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

skin entrance dose for early transient erythema

A

2 Gy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

k-edge of Iodine

A

33.2 keV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

transducer type affected by side lobe artifact

A

linear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

false positive sestamibi parathyroid scan

A

thyroid adenoma, thyroid cancer, parathyroid cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

photopeak of Xe-133

A

81 keV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

t 1/2 Xe-133

A

5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In-111 t 1/2

A

67 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

stripe sign

A

normal parenchyma interposed between pleura and perfusion defect (insert picture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

major spill > 1 mCi

A

I-131

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

major spill > 10 mCi

A
  • Ga-67 - I-123 - In-111
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

major spill > 100 mCi

A
  • Tc-99m - Tl-201
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which brain radiotracers are lipophilic

A
  • Tc99m-exametazime (HMPAO) - Tc99m-bicisate (ECD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Tl-201 critical organ

A

kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

proximal colon is critical organ for what?

A
  • sestamibi - oral sulfur colloid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

critical organ for sestamibi

A

proximal colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

uptake in lacrimal glands

A
  • Gallium-67 - MIBG - free Tc (pertechnetate)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

when are images obtained in Dual Phase parathyroid scan?

A

10 min & 3 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

liver or splenic uptake on Tc-99m scan

A

alumina breakthrough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

frequency of performing linearity and spatial resolution test on phantom

A

weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

duration of flow phase on DTPA and Mag-3 renal scans

A

1 minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

NRC deep dose equivalent depth

A

1 cm tissue depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

reports for NRC reportable events must be kept for how long?

A

5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

False low EF on MUGA

A

inclusion of LA counts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

False high EF on MUGA

A

wrong ROI (over spleen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

indication for MUGA

A

estimation of EF during cancer therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are cardiotoxic drugs

A
  • doxorubicin (Adriamycin) - mitoxantrone (Novantrone) - cyclophosphamide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

sealed source leak testing frequency

A

semi-annual (q 6 mo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

normal time to peak for renal cortical of DTPA and Mag-3

A

< 5 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

best scan for aortic graft infection

A

In-111 labeled WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

best scan for IBD

A

In-111 labeled WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

best scan for disciitis/osteomyelitis

A

Tc-99m MDP + Ga-67

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

best scan for sinus infection

A

In-111 labeled WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

NRC dose rate limit for unrestricted area

A

< 2 mrem/hr

58
Q

how long after administration of In-111 labeled leukocytes is lung uptake normal?

A

6 hours

59
Q

normal uptake of In-111 labeled leukocytes

A

spleen, liver (spleen > liver), bone marrow

60
Q

triple matched defect in lower lung zones PE probability by PIOPED

A

intermediate

61
Q

triple matched defect in middle/upper lung zones PE probability by PIOPED

A

low

62
Q

stop breast-feeding prior to administration of which radionuclides?

A
  • Ga-67 - I-131
63
Q

I-131 decays how?

A

beta emission

64
Q

for gamma camera, extrinsic spatial resolution test uses what kind of source?

A

flood source

65
Q

for gamma camera, intrinsic spatial resolution test uses what kind of source?

A

point source

66
Q

what is the difference between gamma camera extrinsic and intrinsic spatial resolution test?

A

extrinsic - collimator on intrinsic - collimator off

67
Q

sincalide dose

A

.02 MICROgm/KG over 60 min

68
Q

what is ProstaScint?

A

monoclonal Ab to PMSA

69
Q

which brain tumors can take up octreoscan?

A

meningioma astrocytoma medulloblastoma

70
Q

what % of meckel’s diverticula have gastric mucosa?

A

25%

71
Q

which lung cancers are not FDG avid?

A
  • carcinoid - BAC
72
Q

yellow 2 label

A

< 50 mrem/hr @ surface, < 1 mrem/hr @ 1 m

73
Q

white 1 label

A
  • almost no radiation < 0.5 mrem/hr @ surface
74
Q

yellow 3 label

A
  • high radiation < 200 mrem/hr @ surface, < 10 mrem/hr @ 1 m
75
Q

fetal absorbed dose above which cancer risk doubles

A

25 mGy

76
Q

what is this called and what does it measure?

A

gamma camera bar phantom

spatial resolution and spatial linearity

77
Q

how often is uniformity checked in PET?

A

daily

78
Q

what source is used for checking uniformity in PET?

A

Ge-68 or Na-22

79
Q

Wolff-Chaikoff

A

exposure to large amt of exogenous iodine (ie contrast) –> inhibition of thyroid hormone synthesis in follicular cells (autoregulatory phenomenon)

80
Q

what is it?

A

dose calibrator

81
Q

dose calibrator constancy is checked how frequently? using what? response should vary by how much?

A
  • daily
  • Cs-137
  • <5%
82
Q

dose calibrator linearity is checked how frequently? using what? over how long?

A
  • quarterly
  • Tc-99m
  • 72 hours
83
Q

24 hour thyroid uptake in Grave’s

A

40-70%

84
Q

method to measure chemical impurity

A

colorimetry

85
Q

what is chemical impurity?

A

Al in Tc-99m MDP

86
Q

what is radiochemical impurity?

A

free Tc in Tc-99m MDP

87
Q

thin layer chromatography measures what?

A

radiochemical purity

88
Q

what molecules circulate in Grave’s?

A

TSIs (thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins)

89
Q

TSIs activate which receptors?

A

thyrotropin

90
Q

% of cold nodules that are malignant

A

20%

91
Q

reportable event

A
  • whole body dose > 50 mSv OR organ dose > 500 mSv
  • AND-
  • 20% over prescribed dose OR wrong patient OR wrong dose OR wrong route OR wrong pharmaceutical
92
Q

family member allowable dose after I-131 tx

A

5 mSv

93
Q

registration error between PET and CT

A

1 mm

94
Q

patient may be released without futher monitoring if less than how much I-131 was administered?

A

< 33 MILLICi

95
Q

after > 33 mCi I-131 tx, radiation dose cannot exceed how much?

A

.07 mSv per hour @ 1 m from patient’s chest

96
Q

White I

A

< 0.5 mrem/hr @ surface

97
Q

Yellow II

A

< 50 mrem/hr @ surface

< 1 mrem/hr @ 1 m

98
Q

Yellow III

A

< 200 mrem/hr @ surface

< 10 mrem/hr @ 1 m

99
Q

ionization chamber exposure range

A

0.1 R/hr - 100 R/hr

100
Q

normal %RAIU of I-131 at 4-6 hr

A

5-15%

101
Q

normal %RAIU of I-131 at 24 hr

A

10-30 %

102
Q

radioactive waste with t 1/2 less than how much may be disposed via decay-in-storage?

A

120 days

103
Q

how frequently are wipe tests performed?

A

weekly

104
Q

PET/CT effective radiation dose

A

15 mSv

105
Q

energy window (%) used in gamma camera imaging

A

20%

106
Q

how long to delay breast feeding after Ga-67

A

4 weeks

107
Q

DaT scan radiopharmaceutifcal

A

I-123 Ioflupane

108
Q

size range of MAA particle

A

10-90 microns

109
Q

Tl-201 t 1/2

A

73 hours

110
Q

transient ischemic dilation (TID) meaning and significance

A
  • increased LV volume on stress compared to rest
  • multivessel hemodynamically signficant stenosis
111
Q

Sr-89 t 1/2

A

50.5 days (14 days in bone)

112
Q

Sa-153 t 1/2

A

46 hours

113
Q

Ra-223 t 1/2

A

11 days

114
Q

Y-90 t 1/2

A

64 hours

115
Q

most sensitive method of epileptogenic focus localization

A

ictal perfusion SPECT

116
Q

I-131 dose requiring a WRITTEN DIRECTIVE

A

> 30 MICROCi

117
Q

I-131 dose requiring education on radiation safety prior to release

A

> 7 MILLICi

118
Q

I-131 dose requiring EARLY RELEASE CALCULATIONS prior to release

A

> 33 MILLICI

119
Q

how far distal to mass should wire be in breast pre-op localization?

A

1 cm

120
Q

ambient lighting

A

25 - 50 lux

121
Q

minimal luminance for NONmammo display

A

350 cd/m2

122
Q

minimal luminance for mammo display

A

420 cd/m2

123
Q

time points for Tl-201 imaging

A

immediate and 24 hours

124
Q

time points for In-111-DTPA-pentetreotide (Octreoscan)

A

4 and 24 hours

125
Q

how long to stop breastfeeding after I-123

A

2 days

126
Q

18 hour fast prior to cardiac PET/CT performed for dx of what?

A

sarcoidosis

127
Q

size of filtered Tc sulfur colloid particles used in lymphoscintigraphy

A

100 - 220 nm

128
Q

by what time should see flow over cerebral convexities on In-111 DTPA NPH study?

A

12 hours

129
Q

radiopharmaceutical used for NPH eval

A

In-111 DTPA

130
Q

radiopharmaceuticals used for shunt patency

A

In-111 DTPA

Tc-99m DTPA

131
Q

normal % gastric retention @ 1 hour

A

< 90% AND > 30%

132
Q

normal % gastric retention @ 2 hours

A

< 60 %

133
Q

normal % gastric retention @ 4 hours

A

< 10 %

134
Q

normal particle number for Tc-99m MAA

A

200-500 k

135
Q

Tc-99m particle number for peds

A

50-150 k

136
Q

combined Ga-67 + MDP scan: Ga < MDP In bone

A

NEGATIVE for osteo

137
Q

combined Ga-67 + MDP scan: Ga > MDP In bone

A

POSITIVE for osteo

138
Q

combined Ga-67 + MDP scan: Ga = MDP In bone

A

equivocal for osteo

139
Q

how many counts should be in MUGA scan?

A

2-7 million

140
Q

dx

cause

A
  • mucosal diaphragm disease (strictures)
  • chronic NSAID use