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Nukes > MSK > Flashcards

MSK Flashcards

1
Q

causes of distal clavicular osteolysis

A

Hyperparathyroidism, Cleidocranial dysostosis, Pyknodysostosis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, Trauma, Scleroderma

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2
Q

lucent lesions that cause adjacent sclerosis (“bone irritating lesions”)

A

osteoid osteoma, chondroblastoma, eosinophilic granuloma, infection

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3
Q

causes of avascular necrosis

A

alcoholism, steroids/SLE/sickle cell, Gaucher’s, pancreatitis, trauma, infection/idiopathic, caisson disease

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4
Q

tumor-induced osteomalacia

A

hemangiopericytoma of bone

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5
Q

Bohler angle less than what indicates calcaneal fx?

A

20 degrees

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6
Q

patellar tendon-lateral femoral condyle friction syndrome is associated with?

A
  • patella alta - lateral patellar subluxation
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7
Q

patellar tendon-lateral femoral condyle friction syndrome is also called

A

Hoffa fat pad impingement syndrome

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8
Q

normal Insall-Salvati ratio

A

< 1.2

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9
Q

what attaches as conjoined tendon on fibula?

A

biceps femoris AND lateral collateral ligament

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10
Q

what attaches with the posterior fibers of the IT band on the lateral proximal tibia?

A

anterior oblique band of LCL

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11
Q

sign?

dx?

A
  • yo-yo on a string
  • Stener lesion
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12
Q

MC type of acetabular fx

A

posterior wall

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13
Q

what kind of shoulder dislocation is MC?

A

anterior inferior (subcoracoid)

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14
Q

Hill-Sachs is best seen on which view?

A

internal rotation

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15
Q

Bankart is on which part of glenoid/labrum?

A

anterior inferior

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16
Q
A

proximal tear of ulnar collateral ligament (UCL)

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17
Q

which is most important band of UCL?

A

anterior

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18
Q

when does UCL get torn?

A

valgus stress (pitchers)

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19
Q

what is it and MC Location

A
  • bipartite patella
  • superolateral
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20
Q

rupture of which tendon can lead to flatfoot?

A

tibialis posterior

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21
Q

soft tissue mass in foot

A

synovial sarcoma

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22
Q

age for synovial sarcoma

A

20-40 yo

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23
Q

x-18 translocation

A

synovial sarcoma

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24
Q

Baker’s cysts are located where

A

between medial head of gastroc and semimembranosus

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25
Q

synovial sarcoma signs

A
  • triple sign
  • bowl of grapes
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26
Q
A

synovial sarcoma

“bowl of grapes” and “triple sign” (H, I, L meaning areas of high, intermediate, and low intensity)

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27
Q

in Stener lesion, what is superficial to what?

A

UCL is superficial to adductor pollicis aponeurosis

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28
Q

pull of what ligament causes triquetral avulsion?

A

radiocarpal ligament

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29
Q

liposarcoma variant in patient < 20 yo and MR imaging characteristics

A
  • myxoid liposarcoma
  • T1 dark, T2 bright
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30
Q

clubfoot

A
  • elevated plantar arch
  • hindfoot varus
  • medial deviation and inversion of forefoot
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31
Q

which angle is decreased in hindfoot varus ?

A

talocalcaneal angle

32
Q

rocker bottom foot

A
  • hindfoot valgus
  • vertical talus
33
Q

rocker bottom foot association

A

myelomeningocele

34
Q

signs of talocalcaneal coalition

A
  • continuous C
  • talar beak
35
Q

talocalcaneal (subtalar) coalition involves which facet?

A

middle facet

36
Q

anteater sign is what?

seen in which coalition?

A
  • elongated anterior process of calcaneus
  • calcaneonavicular
37
Q

what causes continuos C sign?

A

absent middle facet of subtalar joint

38
Q
A

SLAP

39
Q

MC peds elbow fractures

A

supracondylar > lateral condyle > medial epicondyle

40
Q

little league elbow

A

medial epicondyle avulsion

41
Q

conjoint tendon at fibular head formed by what?

A

biceps femoris + LCL

42
Q

parameniscal cysts seen on which side?

A

lateral meniscus

43
Q

discoid meniscus side

A

lateral meniscus

44
Q

medial meniscus is thicker on which side?

A

posterior

45
Q

tennis elbow

A

lateral epidondylitis

46
Q

MC structure to be injured in lateral epicondylitis

A

common extensor tendon (MC muscle - extensor carpi radialis brevis)

47
Q
A

rotator interval

48
Q

what insert on Gerdy’s tubercle

A
  • IT band
  • tibialis anterior
49
Q

Gerdy’s tubercle

A

lateral condyle of proximal tibia

50
Q

where are 1st manifestations of AS?

A

SI joints

51
Q

SIJ erosions of AS favor which side?

A

iliac

52
Q

DDx of calcaneal erosions

A

reactive arthritis, RA

53
Q

Felty syndrome

A
  • RA
  • splenomegaly
  • neutropenia
54
Q

accessory navicular can cause chronic tearing of which tendon

A

tibialis posterior tendon

55
Q

which synovial spaces normally communicate?

A

pisiform recess and radiocarpal joint

56
Q

finding and association

A

Freiberg infraction

high-heeled shoes

57
Q

ALPSA

A

anterior labral periosteal sleeve avulsion

58
Q

GLAD

A

glenolarbral articular disruption

59
Q

MC location of subchondral insufficiency fx in knee

A

medial femoral condyle

60
Q

T-score in osteoporosis

A

< -2.5

61
Q

T-score in osteopenia

A

-1.0 to -2.5

62
Q

factors predisposing to patellar instability

A
  • patella alta
  • trochlear dysplasia
  • lateralization of tibial tuberostity
63
Q
A

ALPSA

64
Q

pivot shift reciprocal contusions

A

posterior lateral tibial plateau + anterior lateral femoral condyle

65
Q

what structure?

what attaches here?

A

AIIS

rectus femoris

66
Q

grade 2 AC separation

A

AC interval > 6 mm, CC interval normal

67
Q

grade 3 AC separation

A

disruption of AC + CC AND superior dislocation of clavicle

68
Q

grade 4 AC separation

A

posterior displacement of clavicle

69
Q
A

intraosseous lipoma

70
Q
A

rocker bottom

71
Q
A

clubfoot

72
Q

posterior ankle impingement

A

os trigonum syndrome

73
Q

MC soft tissue tumors of hand

A
  1. ganglion cyst
  2. GCT of tendon sheath (PVNS)
74
Q

MR signal characteristics of GCT of tendon sheath

A

T1 dark, T2 dark

75
Q

location of sublabral recess

follows contour of what?

A

12 o’clock

glenoid

76
Q

Bankart is where on glenoid?

A

anterior inferior

Nukes (11 decks)

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