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Nukes > BODY > Flashcards

BODY Flashcards

1
Q

quadrate lobe

A

segment IV

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2
Q

caudate lobe

A

segment 1

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3
Q

hot quadrate sign

A

SVC obstruction

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4
Q

hot spot in segment 1

A

Budd-Chiari

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5
Q

dorsal pancreatic duct

A

Santorini

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6
Q

ventral pancreatic duct

A

Wirsung

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7
Q

entrance air kerma for abdominal radiograph

A

3 mGy

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8
Q

MC duodenal malignancy

A

adenocarcinoma

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9
Q
A

HIV cholangiopathy papillary stenosis

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10
Q

4 phases of renal contrast

A
  • non-contrast
  • corticomedullary
  • nephrographic
  • excretory (pyelographic)
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11
Q
A

pancreas divisum

  • main pancreatic duct (solid arrow, Santorini) drains into minor papilla
  • CBD and smaller ventral duct (Wirsung, curved arrow) drain inferiorly into major papilla
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12
Q

caudate lobe hypertrophy

A
  • Budd Chiari
  • PSC
  • PBC
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13
Q
A
  • clover leaf sign
  • healed peptic ulcer of duodenal bulb
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14
Q

MC locations of GIST

A

stomach > duodenum > anorectum

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15
Q

median survival after successful surgical resection of pancreatic cancer

A

1.5 years

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16
Q
A

septate uterus

  • horizontal/normal uterine fundal contour
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17
Q
A

bicornuate uterus

  • heart-shaped fundus, with indentation of outer contour
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18
Q

MC associated abnormality with Mullerian Duct Anomalies

A
  • ipsilateral renal agenesis
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19
Q
A

goblet sign

  • urothelial neoplasm
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20
Q

MC MDA

A

septate uterus

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21
Q

Zuckerkandl fascia

A

posterior perirenal fascia

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22
Q

Gerota fascia

A

anterior perirenal fascia

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23
Q

epiphrenic diverticula usually occur on which side?

A

right

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24
Q
A

cone shaped cecum

  • Entamoeba histolytica
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25
Q

what is the finding and what does it indicate?

A
  • pear-shaped bladder
  • retroperitoneal lipomatosis
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26
Q

interruption of IVC with hemiazygos continuation is due to..?

A

failure of right subcardinal vein to communicate with hepatic sinusoids

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27
Q

MR contrast agents contraindicated in GFR < 30

A
  • gadodiamide
  • gadopentate dimeglumine
  • gadoverstamide
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28
Q

low-osmolality iodinated contrast media t 1/2

A

2 hours

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29
Q

which low-osmolality iodinated contrast media are approved for intrathecal use?

why?

A
  • iohexol (Omnipaque)
  • iopamidol (Isovue)

Because they are nonionic

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30
Q

how long to wait after IV iodinated contrast material before therapeutic I-131?

A

3-4 weeks

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31
Q

which iodinated contrast material is preferred for angiography of small arteries, ie hand?

A

iodixanol (iso-osmolal)

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32
Q

macrocyclic Gd contrast agents

A
  • gadobutrol
  • gadoteridol
  • gadoterate meglumine
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33
Q

dose of IV epi

A

0.1 mg (1 mL)

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34
Q
A
  • inverted M waveform in renal artery (reversed diastolic flow)
  • renal vein thrombosis
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35
Q

associations with duplicated IVC

A

GU anomalies:
- cross-fused ectopia

  • horseshoe kidney
  • cloacal exstrophy
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36
Q

area of kidney most vulnerable to ischemia

A

inner cortex

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37
Q

renal artery stenotic segment velocity and ratio of stenotic:pre-stenotic segments

A

> 200 cm/s

> 2:1

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38
Q

Meckel Gruber

A
  • renal cysts
  • encephalocele
  • polydactyly
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39
Q

medullary sponge kidney associations

A
  • Caroli’s
  • Ehlers-Danlos
  • Beckwith-Wiedeman
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40
Q

vessels arising from false lumen in aortic dissection

A
  • right coronary
  • left renal
  • left iliac
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41
Q
A

renal vein thrombus with infarction and cortical rim sign

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42
Q

when is intradecidual sign seen?

A

4.5 weeks

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43
Q

embryo is visible when?

A

6 weeks

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44
Q

dx of pregnancy failure

A
  • CRL > 7 mm + NO heartbeat
  • MSD 25 mm + NO embryo
  • NO embryo with hearbeat > 2 WEEKS after a scan that showed a GS WITHOUT yolk sac
  • NO embryo with heartbeat > 11 DAYS after a scan that showed a GS WITH a yolk sac
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45
Q

oligohydramnios

A

AFI < 5 cm

46
Q

polyhydramnios

A

AFI > 20

  • OR-

single pocket > 8 cm

47
Q

fetal bowel should never be more echogenic than what?

A

bone

48
Q

normal midgut herniation occurs when?

A

9 - 11 weeks

49
Q

increased risk with circumvallate placenta

A
  • preterm
50
Q

increased risk with succenturiate lobe

A
  • vasa previa
  • retained placental tissue (–> postpartum hemorrhage)
51
Q
A

septate uterus

52
Q

Zinner syndrome

A
  • renal agensis
  • seminal vesicle cyst
  • ejaculatory duct obstruction
53
Q

horseshoe kidney increases risk of what cancer?

A
  • TCC
  • renal carcinoid
  • Wilms
54
Q

thickenss of enodmetrial strip on endovaginal US in post-menopausal woman that requires biopsy

A

> 5 mm

55
Q

parametrial invasion - stage of cervical cancer?

A

IIB

56
Q

when is cervical cancer treated non-operatively?

A
  • stage IIB or higher
  • size > 4cm
57
Q

granulosa cell tumor may be associated with what findings in uterus?

A

endometrial hyperplasia (due to increased estrogen)

58
Q

cancers associated with DES exposure

A
  • vaginal clear cell adenocarcinoma
  • cervical clear cell adenocarcinoma
59
Q

reproductive age woman, simple cyst 5-7 cm. follow up?

A

US in 1 year

60
Q

reproductive age woman, simple cyst <5 cm. follow up?

A

none

61
Q

US findings supportive of PCOS

A

>12 follicles

  • AND/OR -

ovarian volume > 10 cc

62
Q

likely benign cyst in postmenopausal female and follow up

A

> 1 cm, < 7 cm

1 year US follow up

63
Q

thickened septation in adnexal mass on US

A

> 3 mm

64
Q

which radiographic detector results in sharpest image?

A

photoconductor (Selenium)

65
Q

which radiographic detector results in lowest patient dose?

A

scintillator (CsI)

(highest x-ray absorption efficiency)

66
Q

which radiographic detectors are indirect?

A
  • scintillator (CeI)
  • PSP (BaFBr)
67
Q

what is effect of increasing detector thickness have on (a)patient dose and (b)blur

A

(a) dose decreases
(b) blur increases

68
Q

which gastric volvulus occurs in old ladies with paraesophageal hernia?

A

organoaxial

69
Q
A

Carman meniscus

70
Q

SV cyst associations

A
  • ipsilateral renal agenesis
  • vas deferens agenesis
  • ectopic ureter
  • ADPKD (bilateral SV cysts)
71
Q

Gardner

A
  • facial osteoma
  • extra-abdominal desmoid
  • colonic adenocarcinoma
  • thyroid, liver, ampulla, adrenal gland carcinoma
72
Q

post-menopausal normal endometrial thickness, no hormone replacement

A

< 5 mm

73
Q

MC site of ectopic preg

A

ampulla

74
Q

1st trimester maternal screen in Down’s

A
  • decreased PAPP-A
  • increased beta-hCG
  • increased nuchal translucency
75
Q

alkali ingestion causes what kind of necrosis?

A

liquefactive

76
Q
A

cystic thickened uterus related to tamoxifen

77
Q

HASTE

A

Half Fourier Aquisition Single-shot Turbo Spine Echo

78
Q

Dx

A

bicornuate uterus

79
Q

what kind of weighting?

orange arrow points to what?

A
  • T2
  • junctional zone
80
Q

normal cervical length

A

> 30 mm

81
Q

cervical incompetence (2nd trimester)

A

< 25 mm

82
Q

involvement of which vessels precludes resection of pancreatic adenoca?

what stage is this?

A
  • celiac artery, SMA
  • T4
83
Q

most accurate 2nd trimester measurements

A
  • BPD
  • head circumference
84
Q

timing of renal artery stenosis post-transplant

A

1st month (usually immediate post-op)

85
Q

timing of hepatic artery stenosis post-transplant

A

> 1 month

86
Q

timing of renal vein thrombosis post-transplant

A

1st week

87
Q

what is 1?

A

common hepatic duct

88
Q

what is 2?

A

proper hepatic artery

89
Q
  • name of sign
  • dx
A
  • pearl necklace
  • adenomyomatosis
90
Q
  • dx
  • mode of inheritance
  • other names
A
  • Caroli disease
  • autosomal recessive
  • communicating cavernous biliary ectasia, Todani V choledochal cyst
91
Q
  • imaging appearance
  • dx
A
  • pruned tree
  • PSC
92
Q

morphologic classification of cholangiocarcinoma (3)

A
  • mass forming
  • periductal infiltrating
  • intraductal growing (IPMN)
93
Q

anatomic classification of cholangiocarcinoma (location)

A
  • intrahepatic
  • hilar (Klatskin tumor)
  • distal extrahepatic
94
Q

MC cholangiocarcinoma location/name

A

hilar (Klatskin)

95
Q

Caroli syndrome

A

Caroli disease + congential hepatic fibrosis

96
Q

ampullary neoplasm occurs distal to what?

A

confluence of CBD and pancreatic duct

97
Q

MC biliary ductal variant anatomy

A

posterior right hepatic duct draining into left hepatic duct

98
Q

ovarian cancer stage: distant spread or malignant pleural effusion

A

stage 4

99
Q

ovarian cancer stage: lymph node mets or peritoneal implants outside of pelvis

A

stage 3

100
Q

direction of MPV in TIPS

A

hepatopetal

101
Q

direction of right and left portal veins in TIPS

A

hepatofugal

102
Q

1st clinical signs of NSF develop when?

A

1 month

103
Q

definition of oligohydramnios

A

vertical pocket < 2 cm

104
Q

Sm-153 t 1/2

A

1.9 days

105
Q

gamma photon energy of Sm-153

A

103 keV

106
Q

increased liver attenuation without increased splenic attenuation

A
  • primary hemochormatosis
  • amiodarone toxicity
  • glycogen storage
107
Q

what keeps PDA open

A

Prostaglandin

108
Q

PDA associations

A
  • Holt-Oram
  • maternal rubella
  • Trisomy-21
109
Q

MC location for gastric diverticulum

A

juxtacardiac posterior wall

110
Q
A

Nukes (11 decks)

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