NPT molecular diagnostics Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of Molecular Diagnostics?
a) The study of nucleic acids.
b) The analysis of DNA and RNA to understand disease.
c) Performing laboratory tests to diagnose diseases.
d) The use of technology to diagnose patients.

A

b) The analysis of DNA and RNA to understand disease.

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2
Q

What is NOT a type of testing performed in Molecular Diagnostics?
a) Cancer staging
b) Inherited disorders
c) Acquired disease
d) Infectious disease

A

a) Cancer staging

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3
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of traditional microbiology techniques?
a) Rapid turnaround time (TAT).
b) Long TAT.
c) High cost.
d) Use of advanced molecular methods.

A

b) Long TAT.

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4
Q

What has led to a significant increase in molecular testing for infectious diseases?
a) The development of new antibiotics.
b) The COVID-19 pandemic.
c) The rise of antibiotic resistance.
d) Advances in gene editing technology.

A

b) The COVID-19 pandemic.

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5
Q

What is an advantage of molecular Point of Care (POC) tests for infectious diseases?
a) They are cheaper than antigen-based tests.
b) They are less sensitive than antigen-based tests.
c) They can only run one sample at a time.
d) They offer increased sensitivity and specificity compared to antigen-based tests.

A

d) They offer increased sensitivity and specificity compared to antigen-based tests.

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6
Q

What is a potential drawback of molecular Near Patient Testing (NPT) compared to antigen NPT?
a) Molecular NPT is generally less expensive.
b) Molecular NPT has a lower sensitivity.
c) Molecular NPT is more susceptible to false positives due to residual nucleic acids.
d) Molecular NPT results are not affected by viral genome changes.

A

c) Molecular NPT is more susceptible to false positives due to residual nucleic acids.

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7
Q

What can cause false-negative results in molecular NPT?
a) The presence of antibodies.
b) Viral genome shifts and drifts.
c) High viral load.
d) Contamination with bacterial DNA.

A

b) Viral genome shifts and drifts.

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8
Q

How many primers are typically used in Loop-mediated isothermal amplification (LAMP)?
a) 1-2
b) 4-6
c) 10-12
d) 15-20

A

b) 4-6

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9
Q

What is a key advantage of LAMP for field diagnostics?
a) It requires complex laboratory equipment.
b) It is a slow and insensitive method.
c) The magnesium pyrophosphate byproduct is visible to the naked eye.
d) It requires multiple temperature changes.

A

c) The magnesium pyrophosphate byproduct is visible to the naked eye.

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10
Q

What is the Limit of Detection (LOD) for the chip miniaturization & LAMP technique described in the source?
a) 10ng/uL
b) 10pg/uL
c) 10fg/uL
d) 10ag/uL

A

b) 10pg/uL

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11
Q

What is the principle behind Nicking enzyme amplification reaction (NEAR)?
a) It uses a heat-stable DNA polymerase to amplify DNA at a constant temperature.
b) It utilizes a nicking enzyme to create a starting point for a strand-displacing DNA polymerase.
c) It employs fluorescent probes to detect target DNA sequences.
d) It relies on the formation of loop structures during amplification.

A

b) It utilizes a nicking enzyme to create a starting point for a strand-displacing DNA polymerase.

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12
Q

What was the first nucleic acid amplification test to receive a CLIA waiver?
a) Cobas® Liat Influenza A/B & RSV
b) Alere i Influenza A & B
c) TaqMan Array Cards
d) Smartphone-based biosensor for ZIKV

A

b) Alere i Influenza A & B

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13
Q

What is the approximate turnaround time (TAT) for the Alere i Influenza test?
a) 5 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 60 minutes

A

b) 15 minutes

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14
Q

Which of the following tests is NOT currently available on the Cobas Liat system?
a) SARS-CoV-2
b) HIV viral load
c) Influenza A/B & RSV
d) Group A Strep

A

b) HIV viral load

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15
Q

In what organisms were CRISPRs first discovered?
a) Bacteria and viruses
b) Archaea and bacteria
c) Plants and animals
d) Fungi and protozoa

A

b) Archaea and bacteria

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16
Q

What is the primary function of CRISPRs in bacteria?
a) DNA replication
b) Protein synthesis
c) Defense against invading viruses
d) Regulation of gene expression

A

c) Defense against invading viruses

17
Q

What is the approximate TAT for the CRISPR-Cas12a assay described in the lecture?
a) 10 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 50 minutes
d) 120 minutes

A

c) 50 minutes

18
Q

What is a key feature of TaqMan Array Cards?
a) They are designed for point-of-care testing.
b) They allow for the simultaneous analysis of a large number of targets.
c) They utilize isothermal amplification methods.
d) They are based on CRISPR technology.

A

b) They allow for the simultaneous analysis of a large number of targets.

19
Q

What pathogen was detected in the “in-flight PCR” experiment using a modified 3D printer?
a) E. coli
b) S. aureus
c) Influenza A
d) HIV

A

c) Influenza A

20
Q

Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a trend in the future of molecular POC?
a) Increased use of artificial intelligence
b) Expansion of CLIA-waived molecular POCT
c) Development of miniaturized platforms
d) Improved affordability and user simplicity

A

d) Improved affordability and user simplicity