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Non-parenteral meds objective Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a liquid medication form?
    A) Tablet
    B) Syrup
    C) Capsule
    D) Patch
A

B) Syrup
Rationale: Syrup is a liquid form of medication, while tablet and capsule are solid forms, and patch is a topical form.

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2
Q
  1. A provider orders a medication to be given subcutaneously. Which route should the nurse use?
    A) Oral
    B) IV
    C) Subcutaneous
    D) IM
A

C) Subcutaneous
Rationale: The provider specifically ordered a subcutaneous route, which involves injecting the medication under the skin.

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3
Q
  1. If a medication is ordered to be given orally, which of the following forms would NOT be appropriate?
    A) Liquid
    B) Tablet
    C) Injection
    D) Capsule
A

C) Injection
Rationale: Injection is not an oral route; it requires a different administration method.

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4
Q
  1. A nurse is administering a medication via the intramuscular route. Which of the following is true?
    A) It is the fastest route
    B) It is typically used for solid medications
    C) It requires a longer needle than subcutaneous
    D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above
Rationale: IM injections are faster than subcutaneous, often used for solid medications, and require longer needles due to muscle depth.

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5
Q
  1. What is the primary purpose of using a specific route for medication administration?
    A) To save time
    B) To ensure optimal effectiveness
    C) To reduce side effects
    D) To make it easier for patients
A

B) To ensure optimal effectiveness
Rationale: Each route is chosen for its effectiveness in delivering the medication to the body appropriately.

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6
Q
  1. A patient is prescribed a transdermal patch. How should the nurse instruct the patient to use it?
    A) Place it on a hairy area
    B) Change it daily
    C) Apply to clean, dry skin
    D) Cut it in half for a lower dose
A

C) Apply to clean, dry skin
Rationale: Transdermal patches should be applied to clean, dry skin for proper absorption; they should not be cut unless specified.

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7
Q
  1. Which medication route should be avoided if a patient has nausea?
    A) Oral
    B) Subcutaneous
    C) IM
    D) Transdermal
A

A) Oral
Rationale: If a patient is nauseated, oral administration is not advisable as it may lead to vomiting and ineffective absorption.

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8
Q
  1. What should a nurse do if a medication route is not specified by the provider?
    A) Choose any route
    B) Wait for clarification
    C) Administer orally
    D) Document and proceed
A

B) Wait for clarification
Rationale: It is essential to clarify the prescribed route with the provider to ensure safe and effective medication administration.

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9
Q
  1. If a medication can be administered both orally and intravenously, what is the primary factor that determines the route chosen?
    A) Patient preference
    B) Medication form
    C) Provider order
    D) Nurse’s judgment
A

C) Provider order
Rationale: The provider’s order dictates the specific route to ensure safe and effective administration of the medication.

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following routes is usually the fastest for medication absorption?
    A) Oral
    B) Subcutaneous
    C) Intramuscular
    D) Intravenous
A

D) Intravenous
Rationale: IV administration delivers medication directly into the bloodstream, providing the fastest absorption.

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11
Q
  1. A medication prescribed for a patient has a “do not crush” label. What should the nurse do?
    A) Crush it anyway
    B) Ask the patient if they can swallow pills
    C) Administer it whole
    D) Double the dose
A

C) Administer it whole
Rationale: Medications labeled “do not crush” must be given as is to maintain their effectiveness and prevent side effects.

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12
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication via a route not ordered by the provider. What is the best action?
    A) Administer the medication anyway
    B) Call the provider for a new order
    C) Document the action
    D) Ask a coworker for advice
A

B) Call the provider for a new order
Rationale: Administering medication via an unapproved route can be unsafe; always seek clarification from the provider.

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13
Q
  1. Which medication form is typically absorbed more slowly than others?
    A) Liquid
    B) Tablet
    C) Injection
    D) Patch
A

B) Tablet
Rationale: Tablets often take longer to dissolve and be absorbed compared to liquids and injections, which provide faster action.

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14
Q
  1. For which of the following forms of medication is the nurse responsible for ensuring the patient can swallow safely?
    A) Injection
    B) Inhaler
    C) Oral tablet
    D) Topical ointment
A

C) Oral tablet
Rationale: The nurse must assess the patient’s ability to swallow safely when administering oral medications like tablets.

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15
Q
  1. A patient requires a medication to be administered via the nasal route. What is the correct form?
    A) Tablet
    B) Spray
    C) Patch
    D) Liquid
A

B) Spray
Rationale: Nasal medications are commonly delivered as sprays for effective absorption through the nasal mucosa.

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16
Q
  1. Why is it important for routes of medication to be provider-ordered?
    A) To ensure safety and effectiveness
    B) To speed up the process
    C) To follow hospital policies
    D) To reduce costs
A

A) To ensure safety and effectiveness
Rationale: Provider orders ensure that medications are given in the safest and most effective manner based on patient needs.

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17
Q
  1. Which medication route is most appropriate for a patient who is unconscious?
    A) Oral
    B) Subcutaneous
    C) IV
    D) IM
A

C) IV
Rationale: Intravenous administration is suitable for unconscious patients, as it bypasses the need for swallowing and provides immediate effects.

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18
Q
  1. A nurse is preparing to administer a new medication to a patient. What is the first step?
    A) Prepare the medication
    B) Check for allergies
    C) Wash hands
    D) Document administration
A

B) Check for allergies
Rationale: Checking for allergies is a critical first step to prevent adverse reactions before administering any medication.

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19
Q
  1. If a patient is experiencing difficulty swallowing, which form of medication might be best?
    A) Tablet
    B) Liquid
    C) Patch
    D) Injection
A

B) Liquid
Rationale: Liquid medications are easier for patients who have difficulty swallowing compared to solid forms like tablets.

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20
Q
  1. What is a key reason for not interchanging medication routes?
    A) It can cause confusion
    B) Each route has different absorption rates
    C) It is against hospital policy
    D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above
Rationale: Interchanging routes can lead to confusion, differing absorption rates, and may violate hospital protocols, posing risks to patients.

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21
Q
  1. What is the primary consideration when administering oral medications?
    A) Patient’s weight
    B) Patient’s ability to swallow
    C) Time of day
    D) Dietary preferences
A

B) Patient’s ability to swallow
Rationale: Assessing the patient’s ability to swallow is crucial to prevent aspiration and ensure safe administration.

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following should a nurse do to prevent aspiration when administering oral medications?
    A) Administer with a straw
    B) Ensure the patient is upright
    C) Crush all tablets
    D) Use large sips of water
A

B) Ensure the patient is upright
Rationale: Keeping the patient upright during oral medication administration helps prevent aspiration.

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23
Q
  1. Which of the following can affect the absorption of oral medications?
    A) Time of day
    B) Patient’s weight
    C) Dietary intake
    D) Medication color
A

C) Dietary intake
Rationale: Certain foods can affect the absorption of medications, so some should be taken on an empty stomach.

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24
Q
  1. Which technique is appropriate for patients who have difficulty swallowing pills?
    A) Crush enteric-coated tablets
    B) Use a liquid form of the medication
    C) Give all medications at once
    D) Administer with hot drinks
A

B) Use a liquid form of the medication
Rationale: Liquid medications are easier for patients with swallowing difficulties. Crushing enteric-coated tablets is not safe.

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25
Q
  1. Sublingual medications are placed:
    A) Under the tongue
    B) Against the cheek
    C) On the skin
    D) In the eye
A

A) Under the tongue
Rationale: Sublingual medications are designed to dissolve under the tongue for rapid absorption.

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding buccal medication administration?
    A) It is swallowed immediately
    B) It should be placed under the tongue
    C) It is placed against the cheek
    D) It can be crushed
A

C) It is placed against the cheek
Rationale: Buccal medications are placed against the cheek for absorption, not swallowed.

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27
Q
  1. When applying topical medications, what should the nurse do first?
    A) Apply the medication
    B) Clean the area
    C) Document the application
    D) Use gloves
A

B) Clean the area
Rationale: Cleaning the area before application helps ensure effective absorption and minimizes the risk of infection.

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28
Q
  1. What is the primary reason for using gloves when applying topical medications?
    A) To prevent allergic reactions
    B) To avoid skin irritation
    C) To avoid medication absorption through the nurse’s skin
    D) To keep the area clean
A

C) To avoid medication absorption through the nurse’s skin
Rationale: Gloves protect the nurse from absorbing the medication through their skin.

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29
Q
  1. What should a nurse do before applying a new transdermal patch?
    A) Apply it immediately over the old patch
    B) Remove the old patch
    C) Cut the new patch in half
    D) Clean the skin with alcohol
A

B) Remove the old patch
Rationale: Old patches must be removed before applying a new one to avoid overdose and ensure proper drug delivery.

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30
Q
  1. Why is documentation essential after applying a transdermal patch?
    A) To inform the patient
    B) To track medication use and skin changes
    C) To assess pain levels
    D) To comply with policy
A

B) To track medication use and skin changes
Rationale: Documenting the application and any skin reactions ensures ongoing assessment of the treatment’s effectiveness.

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31
Q
  1. Inhalation medications provide which of the following benefits?
    A) Slow absorption
    B) Direct delivery to the lungs
    C) Inconvenience
    D) Oral absorption
A

B) Direct delivery to the lungs
Rationale: Inhalation medications deliver drugs directly to the lungs for rapid effects.

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32
Q
  1. What is a common requirement when using metered-dose inhalers (pMDIs)?
    A) No coordination needed
    B) Need for proper technique
    C) Can be used by anyone
    D) Only for children
A

B) Need for proper technique
Rationale: Proper technique and coordination are essential for effective use of pMDIs to ensure the medication reaches the lungs.

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33
Q
  1. After using a corticosteroid inhaler, why is mouth care important?
    A) To prevent bad breath
    B) To prevent oral infections
    C) To improve taste
    D) To enhance absorption
A

B) To prevent oral infections
Rationale: Rinsing the mouth after using corticosteroids helps prevent fungal infections and irritation.

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34
Q
  1. Which medication route provides the fastest effect?
    A) Oral
    B) Topical
    C) Transdermal
    D) Inhalation
A

D) Inhalation
Rationale: Inhalation delivers medication directly to the lungs, providing rapid effects compared to other routes.

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35
Q
  1. If a patient is using both a bronchodilator and a corticosteroid inhaler, which should be administered first?
    A) Corticosteroid
    B) Bronchodilator
    C) Both can be given simultaneously
    D) Neither is needed
A

B) Bronchodilator
Rationale: The bronchodilator should be used first to open the airways, allowing better absorption of the corticosteroid.

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36
Q
  1. A nurse is educating a patient about using a transdermal patch. What key point should the nurse emphasize?
    A) Change it every day
    B) Rotate application sites
    C) Cut the patch for dosage
    D) Apply to wet skin
A

B) Rotate application sites
Rationale: Rotating application sites helps prevent skin irritation and ensures effective medication delivery.

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following is a standard precaution when administering buccal medications?
    A) No contact with oral secretions
    B) Swallowing is required
    C) Chewing the medication is necessary
    D) Mouth should be dry
A

A) No contact with oral secretions
Rationale: Standard precautions should be observed to avoid medication dilution by saliva when using buccal medications.

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38
Q
  1. For patients with difficulty swallowing, which of the following forms is inappropriate?
    A) Liquid
    B) Sublingual
    C) Tablet
    D) Buccal
A

C) Tablet
Rationale: Tablets can be challenging for patients who have swallowing difficulties; liquid forms are preferred.

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39
Q
  1. What should the nurse do if a patient refuses to take oral medication?
    A) Force the patient
    B) Document the refusal
    C) Ignore the refusal
    D) Tell the provider
A

B) Document the refusal
Rationale: Documenting the patient’s refusal is essential for legal and safety reasons, and further assessment or alternatives may be needed.

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40
Q
  1. A nurse is administering a medication that requires it to be taken on an empty stomach. When is the best time to give this medication?
    A) After breakfast
    B) One hour after a meal
    C) Before meals
    D) With snacks
A

C) Before meals
Rationale: Medications that need to be taken on an empty stomach should be administered before meals to ensure proper absorption.

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41
Q
  1. What is the primary technique used for nasal instillation?
    A) Aseptic technique
    B) Sterilization
    C) Avoiding drops
    D) Oral administration
A

A) Aseptic technique
Rationale: Aseptic technique is essential for nasal instillation to prevent infection.

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42
Q
  1. When administering eye drops, what is the most important action for the nurse to take?
    A) Touch the eye with the dropper
    B) Ask the patient to blink
    C) Avoid touching the eye
    D) Administer multiple drops at once
A

C) Avoid touching the eye
Rationale: Touching the eye with the dropper can introduce bacteria and cause infection; the dropper should remain sterile.

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43
Q
  1. How long should a nurse wait between administering different eye medications?
    A) 5 minutes
    B) 10 minutes
    C) 15 minutes
    D) No wait needed
A

A) 5 minutes
Rationale: Waiting at least 5 minutes between different eye medications allows for absorption and prevents dilution.

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44
Q
  1. What is the recommended position for a child receiving ear drops?
    A) Sitting up
    B) Lying on the opposite side
    C) Standing
    D) Lying on the stomach
A

B) Lying on the opposite side
Rationale: Children should lie on the opposite side to facilitate medication distribution in the ear canal.

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45
Q
  1. What is the purpose of ear instillation?
    A) Treat headaches
    B) Soften earwax and treat infections
    C) Provide hydration
    D) Improve hearing
A

B) Soften earwax and treat infections
Rationale: Ear instillation is commonly used to soften earwax and treat infections in the ear.

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46
Q
  1. For vaginal instillation, which position should the patient be in for optimal absorption?
    A) Sitting
    B) Supine with knees bent
    C) Standing
    D) Prone
A

B) Supine with knees bent
Rationale: This position allows for better absorption and retention of the medication in the vaginal area.

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47
Q
  1. Which of the following is crucial for rectal instillation?
    A) High fluid intake
    B) Proper positioning and retention
    C) Immediate urination
    D) Eating before administration
A

B) Proper positioning and retention
Rationale: Proper positioning and ensuring the patient retains the medication are important for effective absorption.

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48
Q
  1. What should the nurse do to ensure the nasal spray is effective?
    A) Administer with the head tilted back
    B) Have the patient sniff deeply
    C) Use the spray on a tissue
    D) Press the spray bottle quickly
A

B) Have the patient sniff deeply
Rationale: Sniffing deeply helps to draw the medication into the nasal passages for better absorption.

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49
Q
  1. Why is it important to use aseptic technique during nasal instillation?
    A) To improve taste
    B) To ensure faster action
    C) To prevent infection
    D) To reduce discomfort
A

C) To prevent infection
Rationale: Aseptic technique minimizes the risk of introducing bacteria into the nasal passages during instillation.

50
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true about eye ointments?
    A) They should be applied directly on the eyeball
    B) They can be used for any eye condition
    C) They can blur vision temporarily
    D) They should be mixed with water
A

C) They can blur vision temporarily
Rationale: Eye ointments can temporarily blur vision, so patients should be cautioned about this effect.

51
Q
  1. How should the nurse administer nasal drops to ensure effectiveness?
    A) Inhale while administering
    B) Have the patient sit upright
    C) Use sterile gloves
    D) Administer while standing
A

A) Inhale while administering
Rationale: Inhaling while administering nasal drops helps the medication reach deeper into the nasal passages.

52
Q
  1. Which of the following is an essential consideration for ear drop administration?
    A) The temperature of the drops
    B) Time of day
    C) Patient’s weight
    D) Medication color
A

A) The temperature of the drops
Rationale: Ear drops should be at room temperature to prevent dizziness or discomfort during administration.

53
Q
  1. What action should the nurse take after administering a vaginal medication?
    A) Have the patient stand immediately
    B) Ensure the patient remains supine for a period
    C) Document without further instruction
    D) Offer a drink
A

B) Ensure the patient remains supine for a period
Rationale: Keeping the patient supine helps with absorption and retention of the medication.

54
Q
  1. Which of the following is a common reason for rectal instillation?
    A) To provide hydration
    B) To treat constipation or deliver medication
    C) To improve appetite
    D) To cleanse the colon
A

B) To treat constipation or deliver medication
Rationale: Rectal instillation is often used for medication delivery or to relieve constipation.

55
Q
  1. For which of the following conditions would nasal instillation be most appropriate?
    A) Eye infection
    B) Sinus congestion
    C) Earwax buildup
    D) Nausea
A

B) Sinus congestion
Rationale: Nasal instillation is effective for treating sinus congestion and related issues.

56
Q
  1. How long should a patient remain in a certain position after rectal medication is given?
    A) 5 minutes
    B) 10 minutes
    C) 15 minutes
    D) Until the urge to defecate
A

B) 10 minutes
Rationale: The patient should remain in the position for about 10 minutes to ensure proper absorption and retention of the medication.

57
Q
  1. When administering ear drops to an adult, what is the correct technique?
    A) Pull the ear lobe down and back
    B) Pull the ear lobe up and back
    C) Keep the head upright
    D) Insert cotton immediately
A

B) Pull the ear lobe up and back
Rationale: For adults, pulling the ear lobe up and back straightens the ear canal for effective drop administration.

58
Q
  1. What should the nurse do if a patient reports a burning sensation after nasal spray administration?
    A) Document and do nothing
    B) Encourage the patient to continue using it
    C) Notify the provider
    D) Reassure and check technique
A

D) Reassure and check technique
Rationale: A burning sensation can be normal, but checking the technique ensures the spray is used correctly and may help.

59
Q
  1. In which circumstance is rectal medication preferred over oral medication?
    A) Patient can swallow pills
    B) Patient is vomiting
    C) Patient has an infection
    D) Patient is allergic to the medication
A

B) Patient is vomiting
Rationale: Rectal medication is preferred when a patient is vomiting, as it bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and ensures absorption.

60
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the method of nasal instillation?
    A) Administering drops in a sitting position
    B) Placing drops while the patient holds their breath
    C) Administering medication through inhalation
    D) Utilizing sprays or drops without touching the nasal passages
A

D) Utilizing sprays or drops without touching the nasal passages
Rationale: Proper nasal instillation involves using sprays or drops without direct contact to avoid contamination.

61
Q
  1. What is the first step in the nursing process for medication administration?
    A) Diagnosis
    B) Assessment
    C) Planning
    D) Implementation
A

B) Assessment
Rationale: Assessment involves gathering patient history, current conditions, and educational needs before administering medications.

62
Q
  1. During the assessment phase, which of the following is most important to gather?
    A) Patient’s favorite food
    B) Allergies and current medications
    C) Family history
    D) Social media activity
A

B) Allergies and current medications
Rationale: Knowing a patient’s allergies and current medications is crucial for safe medication administration and avoiding interactions.

63
Q
  1. Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for a patient with difficulty swallowing medications?
    A) Noncompliance
    B) Impaired swallowing
    C) Knowledge deficit
    D) Anxiety
A

B) Impaired swallowing
Rationale: “Impaired swallowing” directly addresses the physical issue affecting medication administration.

64
Q
  1. If a patient expresses anxiety about taking new medication, which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate?
    A) Knowledge deficit
    B) Noncompliance
    C) Anxiety
    D) Impaired swallowing
A

C) Anxiety
Rationale: Identifying anxiety as a diagnosis allows for targeted interventions to help the patient cope with their concerns about medication.

65
Q
  1. In the planning phase, what is essential for safe medication administration?
    A) Ensuring patient comfort
    B) Organizing care and prioritizing information
    C) Reducing side effects
    D) Maximizing medication doses
A

B) Organizing care and prioritizing information
Rationale: Planning involves organizing care to ensure that medications are administered safely and effectively.

66
Q
  1. Which of the following is a priority during the implementation phase?
    A) Checking vital signs
    B) Documenting the patient’s weight
    C) Patient teaching and accurate dose calculations
    D) Scheduling follow-up appointments
A

C) Patient teaching and accurate dose calculations
Rationale: Patient teaching and accurate dose calculations are critical to ensure safe medication administration.

67
Q
  1. When implementing a medication regimen, what should the nurse do if a patient refuses medication?
    A) Administer it anyway
    B) Document the refusal and educate the patient
    C) Ignore the refusal
    D) Notify the physician only
A

B) Document the refusal and educate the patient
Rationale: Documenting the refusal is essential for legal reasons, and providing education may address the patient’s concerns.

68
Q
  1. Why is patient education important in the medication administration process?
    A) To increase hospital revenue
    B) To improve medication adherence
    C) To minimize nursing workload
    D) To ensure compliance with regulations
A

B) To improve medication adherence
Rationale: Educating patients about their medications can enhance adherence and understanding of their treatment.

69
Q
  1. What should a nurse do to ensure accurate dose calculations?
    A) Estimate the dose
    B) Use a calculator and double-check
    C) Ask a colleague for the correct dose
    D) Refer to outdated guidelines
A

B) Use a calculator and double-check
Rationale: Accurate calculations are critical to patient safety, and using a calculator and double-checking helps prevent errors.

70
Q
  1. Which of the following is a key aspect of documentation after medication administration?
    A) Document only if the patient complains
    B) Document the time and any reactions
    C) Avoid documenting if the patient is stable
    D) Document after the next shift
A

B) Document the time and any reactions
Rationale: Timely documentation of medication administration and any reactions is vital for continuity of care and patient safety.

71
Q
  1. If a nurse identifies a patient’s knowledge deficit about their medication, what action should they take?
    A) Assume the patient will learn on their own
    B) Provide additional education
    C) Document the knowledge deficit only
    D) Reassess only if symptoms occur
A

B) Provide additional education
Rationale: Addressing knowledge deficits through education is essential to empower patients and improve adherence.

72
Q
  1. What is an important consideration when assessing a patient’s current condition related to medication?
    A) Previous hospitalizations
    B) Ability to afford medications
    C) Vital signs and laboratory results
    D) Family opinions
A

C) Vital signs and laboratory results
Rationale: Assessing vital signs and lab results is critical to understanding the patient’s current health status related to medication.

73
Q
  1. In the planning stage, what should be prioritized for a patient starting a new medication?
    A) Time of day for administration
    B) Potential side effects and interactions
    C) Patient’s personal schedule
    D) Medication storage
A

B) Potential side effects and interactions
Rationale: Understanding potential side effects and interactions is vital for ensuring safe medication use and patient safety.

74
Q
  1. Which action is essential for promoting patient safety during medication administration?
    A) Skip patient identification checks
    B) Follow the “5 Rights” of medication administration
    C) Administer multiple medications simultaneously
    D) Use outdated information
A

B) Follow the “5 Rights” of medication administration
Rationale: The “5 Rights” (right patient, medication, dose, route, and time) are fundamental for safe medication administration.

75
Q
  1. If a patient is noncompliant with their medication regimen, what should the nurse assess first?
    A) Patient’s knowledge and understanding of the medication
    B) Their ability to pay for the medications
    C) Their past medical history
    D) Their family support system
A

A) Patient’s knowledge and understanding of the medication
Rationale: Assessing knowledge and understanding can identify barriers to compliance and inform further education.

76
Q
  1. What is a common issue identified during the diagnosis phase related to medications?
    A) Excessive fluid intake
    B) Noncompliance
    C) Overeating
    D) Lack of exercise
A

B) Noncompliance
Rationale: Noncompliance is a common issue that may arise from misunderstanding, side effects, or lack of education regarding medications.

77
Q
  1. How can the nurse evaluate the effectiveness of patient teaching about medications?
    A) Wait for a follow-up visit
    B) Assess the patient’s ability to explain their medication regimen
    C) Observe for side effects only
    D) Document without further assessment
A

B) Assess the patient’s ability to explain their medication regimen
Rationale: Evaluating the patient’s understanding through their ability to explain the regimen is key to assessing effectiveness.

78
Q
  1. During implementation, what should the nurse focus on when administering a new medication?
    A) Avoiding patient questions
    B) Monitoring for adverse reactions
    C) Rushing to finish the medication rounds
    D) Ignoring documentation
A

B) Monitoring for adverse reactions
Rationale: Monitoring for adverse reactions is essential to ensure patient safety after administering a new medication.

79
Q
  1. Which of the following is an important aspect of the assessment phase regarding a patient’s medication history?
    A) Previous medication compliance
    B) Patient’s daily routine
    C) Family medical history
    D) Patient’s diet
A

A) Previous medication compliance
Rationale: Understanding a patient’s past compliance helps predict future adherence and informs nursing care planning.

80
Q
  1. What is a critical element of the nursing process that ensures medication effectiveness?
    A) Only document serious side effects
    B) Regularly reassess patient conditions and responses
    C) Administer medications quickly
    D) Limit patient interaction
A

B) Regularly reassess patient conditions and responses
Rationale: Ongoing reassessment is vital for ensuring that medications are effective and for identifying any necessary adjustments.

81
Q
  1. What is polypharmacy?
    A) Taking only one medication
    B) Concurrent use of multiple medications
    C) Self-medicating with herbal remedies
    D) Using over-the-counter medications only
A

B) Concurrent use of multiple medications
Rationale: Polypharmacy refers to the use of multiple medications, often leading to potential complications.

82
Q
  1. What is a common risk associated with polypharmacy?
    A) Improved health outcomes
    B) Increased medication adherence
    C) Confusion and cognitive impairment
    D) Decreased healthcare costs
A

C) Confusion and cognitive impairment
Rationale: Taking multiple medications can lead to confusion and cognitive issues, especially in elderly patients.

83
Q
  1. How can polypharmacy affect hospital readmission rates?
    A) Decrease readmission rates
    B) No effect on readmission rates
    C) Increase readmission rates
    D) Only affects outpatient visits
A

C) Increase readmission rates
Rationale: Polypharmacy can lead to adverse reactions and complications, contributing to higher rates of hospital readmission.

84
Q
  1. What is a primary solution to reduce the risks of polypharmacy?
    A) Ignore medication lists
    B) Improve communication among healthcare providers
    C) Prescribe more medications
    D) Increase patient self-management
A

B) Improve communication among healthcare providers
Rationale: Enhanced communication can help coordinate care and reduce the risk of inappropriate prescriptions.

85
Q
  1. Which population is most at risk for polypharmacy?
    A) Adolescents
    B) Young adults
    C) Elderly patients
    D) Children
A

C) Elderly patients
Rationale: Older adults are often prescribed multiple medications for chronic conditions, making them more susceptible to polypharmacy.

86
Q
  1. What can healthcare providers do to monitor patients on multiple medications effectively?
    A) Schedule fewer follow-up visits
    B) Regularly review medication regimens
    C) Focus only on new medications
    D) Limit patient interaction
A

B) Regularly review medication regimens
Rationale: Regular reviews help identify potential drug interactions and ensure appropriateness of prescribed medications.

87
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential consequence of inappropriate prescriptions due to polypharmacy?
    A) Decreased side effects
    B) Improved patient compliance
    C) Increased adverse drug reactions
    D) Enhanced drug efficacy
A

C) Increased adverse drug reactions
Rationale: Inappropriate prescriptions can lead to harmful drug interactions and increased adverse reactions in patients.

88
Q
  1. What role can pharmacists play in addressing polypharmacy?
    A) Prescribe medications
    B) Conduct medication reconciliation and provide recommendations
    C) Avoid patient education
    D) Limit their involvement
A

B) Conduct medication reconciliation and provide recommendations
Rationale: Pharmacists can help ensure medication safety through thorough reviews and recommendations.

89
Q
  1. Which of the following is a sign that a patient may be experiencing polypharmacy issues?
    A) Increased energy levels
    B) Decreased medication adherence
    C) Improved mood
    D) Regular follow-up attendance
A

B) Decreased medication adherence
Rationale: Difficulty managing multiple medications can lead to decreased adherence, indicating potential polypharmacy problems.

90
Q
  1. What should nurses educate patients about to mitigate risks associated with polypharmacy?
    A) The benefits of more medications
    B) The importance of medication lists and adherence
    C) Ignoring side effects
    D) Self-diagnosing
A

B) The importance of medication lists and adherence
Rationale: Educating patients on maintaining accurate medication lists helps manage their treatment and reduce risks.

91
Q
  1. Which medication management strategy can help prevent polypharmacy?
    A) Polypharmacy is always unavoidable
    B) Comprehensive medication reviews
    C) Reducing patient education
    D) Prescribing off-label medications
A

B) Comprehensive medication reviews
Rationale: Regular and thorough reviews of a patient’s medications can help prevent polypharmacy and ensure appropriate treatment.

92
Q
  1. In patients with multiple medications, what is essential to monitor for safety?
    A) Vital signs only
    B) Patient compliance
    C) Potential drug interactions and side effects
    D) Social media activity
A

C) Potential drug interactions and side effects
Rationale: Monitoring for interactions and side effects is crucial in patients taking multiple medications to ensure safety.

93
Q
  1. How can technology assist in managing polypharmacy?
    A) By replacing healthcare providers
    B) Through electronic health records and medication management systems
    C) By promoting non-compliance
    D) By reducing communication
A

B) Through electronic health records and medication management systems
Rationale: Technology can help track medications and alert providers to potential interactions.

94
Q
  1. What should a nurse do if they suspect a patient is experiencing adverse effects from polypharmacy?
    A) Ignore the symptoms
    B) Assess the patient and notify the healthcare provider
    C) Administer more medications
    D) Wait for scheduled follow-up
A

B) Assess the patient and notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: Prompt assessment and communication with the healthcare provider are crucial for patient safety.

95
Q
  1. Which strategy can help patients better manage their medications to avoid polypharmacy?
    A) Encourage them to stop all medications
    B) Create a medication schedule or list
    C) Limit their doctor visits
    D) Avoid discussing medications with providers
A

B) Create a medication schedule or list
Rationale: A medication schedule helps patients track their medications, reducing confusion and enhancing adherence.

96
Q
  1. What is a potential effect of polypharmacy on mental health?
    A) Improved cognitive function
    B) Increased risk of depression and anxiety
    C) Enhanced social interactions
    D) Decreased stress levels
A

B) Increased risk of depression and anxiety
Rationale: Polypharmacy can lead to confusion and adverse effects, contributing to increased anxiety and depression.

97
Q
  1. Why is it important to consider the patient’s entire medication regimen when prescribing new medications?
    A) To simplify the regimen
    B) To avoid unnecessary prescriptions
    C) To ensure compatibility and prevent interactions
    D) To follow insurance guidelines
A

C) To ensure compatibility and prevent interactions
Rationale: Understanding the complete medication regimen is crucial to avoid adverse interactions and ensure safety.

98
Q
  1. Which of the following is a sign that a patient may not be effectively managing their medications?
    A) Following the prescribed regimen
    B) Regularly attending appointments
    C) Reporting multiple missed doses
    D) Asking questions about medications
A

C) Reporting multiple missed doses
Rationale: Missing doses may indicate difficulties in managing medications, which is common in polypharmacy situations.

99
Q
  1. How can healthcare teams collaborate to address polypharmacy?
    A) By working independently
    B) By sharing patient information and medication lists
    C) By prescribing more medications
    D) By avoiding communication
A

B) By sharing patient information and medication lists
Rationale: Collaboration and sharing information among healthcare providers help manage and reduce polypharmacy risks.

100
Q
  1. What should nurses encourage patients to do regarding their medications to mitigate polypharmacy risks?
    A) Ignore potential side effects
    B) Share medication lists with all healthcare providers
    C) Avoid asking questions
    D) Self-medicate
A

B) Share medication lists with all healthcare providers
Rationale: Sharing medication lists ensures all providers are aware of a patient’s medications, reducing risks of interactions.

101
Q
  1. What is the primary advantage of inhalation administration of medications?
    A) Slow absorption
    B) Direct delivery to the lungs for rapid effect
    C) Oral administration
    D) Increased side effects
A

B) Direct delivery to the lungs for rapid effect
Rationale: Inhalation allows medications to be delivered directly to the lungs, resulting in quicker therapeutic effects.

102
Q
  1. Which of the following inhalers requires patient coordination for effective use?
    A) Nebulizer
    B) pMDI
    C) Oral syringe
    D) IV pump
A

B) pMDI
Rationale: Pressurized metered-dose inhalers (pMDIs) require the patient to coordinate inhalation with pressing the canister to achieve effective delivery.

103
Q
  1. What is a common type of inhaler that delivers powdered medication?
    A) pMDI
    B) DPI
    C) Nebulizer
    D) Spacer
A

B) DPI
Rationale: Dry powder inhalers (DPIs) deliver medication in powdered form and require the patient to inhale forcefully to activate the device.

104
Q
  1. After administering corticosteroids via inhalation, what is an important nursing action?
    A) Encourage drinking water
    B) Provide mouth care
    C) Skip follow-up appointments
    D) Increase physical activity
A

B) Provide mouth care
Rationale: Mouth care after using corticosteroids helps prevent infections, such as oral thrush, which can occur due to the medication.

105
Q
  1. What should the nurse assess before administering an inhaled medication?
    A) Patient’s last meal
    B) Ability to use the inhaler correctly
    C) Family medical history
    D) Insurance coverage
A

B) Ability to use the inhaler correctly
Rationale: Ensuring that the patient can use the inhaler correctly is crucial for effective medication delivery and outcomes.

106
Q
  1. Which inhalation device is commonly used for continuous medication delivery in patients with severe respiratory distress?
    A) pMDI
    B) DPI
    C) Nebulizer
    D) Spacer
A

C) Nebulizer
Rationale: Nebulizers convert liquid medication into a mist, allowing for continuous delivery and easier inhalation for patients in distress.

107
Q
  1. What technique should a patient use when using a pMDI?
    A) Inhale deeply before activating
    B) Activate and then inhale slowly
    C) Exhale forcefully before activating
    D) Hold the inhaler upside down
A

B) Activate and then inhale slowly
Rationale: The correct technique involves activating the inhaler and then inhaling slowly to ensure the medication reaches the lungs.

108
Q
  1. How can a spacer device assist in the use of a pMDI?
    A) It increases the dose of medication
    B) It eliminates the need for coordination
    C) It decreases side effects
    D) It makes the inhaler easier to carry
A

B) It eliminates the need for coordination
Rationale: A spacer allows the patient to inhale the medication more effectively without needing precise timing with activation.

109
Q
  1. Which patient should be monitored closely after using an inhaled bronchodilator?
    A) A patient with a fever
    B) A patient with asthma
    C) A patient with a rash
    D) A patient with a cold
A

B) A patient with asthma
Rationale: Patients with asthma may require careful monitoring after bronchodilator use to assess effectiveness and any potential adverse effects.

110
Q
  1. What should the nurse educate a patient about when using a DPI?
    A) Shake the inhaler before use
    B) Use the inhaler with a spacer
    C) Inhale quickly and deeply
    D) Hold the breath for 10 seconds
A

C) Inhale quickly and deeply
Rationale: For DPIs, a quick and deep inhalation is essential to ensure the powdered medication reaches the lungs effectively.

111
Q
  1. Which inhalation method is preferred for patients with difficulty using inhalers due to poor coordination?
    A) pMDI
    B) DPI
    C) Nebulizer
    D) Spacer
A

C) Nebulizer
Rationale: Nebulizers are easier to use for patients with coordination difficulties since they deliver medication as a mist without requiring complex techniques.

112
Q
  1. When should the nurse instruct a patient to use a rescue inhaler?
    A) As a daily preventive measure
    B) Only during an asthma attack
    C) Before every meal
    D) When experiencing shortness of breath
A

D) When experiencing shortness of breath
Rationale: Rescue inhalers are used to relieve acute symptoms such as shortness of breath or wheezing.

113
Q
  1. What is an important teaching point regarding the storage of inhalers?
    A) Store in a hot environment
    B) Keep in the refrigerator
    C) Store at room temperature
    D) Keep in direct sunlight
A

C) Store at room temperature
Rationale: Inhalers should be stored at room temperature, away from heat and moisture, to maintain their effectiveness.

114
Q
  1. Why is it important for patients to perform mouth care after using corticosteroid inhalers?
    A) To freshen breath
    B) To prevent systemic absorption
    C) To reduce the risk of oral infections
    D) To improve medication taste
A

C) To reduce the risk of oral infections
Rationale: Mouth care helps prevent fungal infections like oral thrush, which can occur with corticosteroid use.

115
Q
  1. Which of the following is a side effect of inhaled corticosteroids?
    A) Nausea
    B) Oral thrush
    C) Weight gain
    D) Hair loss
A

B) Oral thrush
Rationale: Oral thrush is a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids due to their immunosuppressive effects in the oral cavity.

116
Q
  1. What should patients do if they experience dizziness after using an inhaler?
    A) Ignore the symptoms
    B) Sit down and rest
    C) Increase the dose
    D) Call a friend
A

B) Sit down and rest
Rationale: If a patient feels dizzy, they should sit down to prevent falls and reassess their condition, then report the symptoms to their provider.

117
Q
  1. Which of the following is a critical aspect of patient education regarding inhalation medication?
    A) Encourage the use of medications as needed only
    B) Teach the correct inhalation technique
    C) Advise against follow-up visits
    D) Suggest self-medicating
A

B) Teach the correct inhalation technique
Rationale: Proper inhalation technique is essential for maximizing the effectiveness of inhaled medications.

118
Q
  1. After using a pMDI, how long should a patient wait before using a second inhaler if prescribed?
    A) No wait necessary
    B) 5-10 minutes
    C) 30 minutes
    D) 1 hour
A

B) 5-10 minutes
Rationale: Waiting 5-10 minutes allows the first medication to act and minimizes potential interactions with the second medication.

119
Q
  1. What can help improve medication delivery when using a nebulizer?
    A) Increasing the dose
    B) Using a mask if needed
    C) Shaking the device vigorously
    D) Decreasing treatment time
A

B) Using a mask if needed
Rationale: A mask can improve medication delivery for patients who have difficulty using a mouthpiece or have respiratory distress.

120
Q
  1. What is the purpose of performing a breath-holding maneuver after inhaling medication?
    A) To increase anxiety
    B) To enhance medication absorption in the lungs
    C) To decrease medication effectiveness
    D) To minimize inhaler use
A

B) To enhance medication absorption in the lungs
Rationale: Holding the breath after inhalation helps ensure the medication is absorbed effectively in the lungs.

essentials (16 decks)

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