IV Therapy

Question 1

1. What is the primary purpose of IV therapy?
   A) To provide oral medications
   B) To deliver fluids, medications, and nutrients directly into the vascular system
   C) To monitor vital signs
   D) To replace oral intake

Answer 1

B) To deliver fluids, medications, and nutrients directly into the vascular system
Rationale: IV therapy provides direct access to the bloodstream for immediate effects.

Question 2

2. Which of the following is a common goal of IV therapy?
   A) To induce sleep
   B) To prevent or correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances
   C) To promote oral hydration
   D) To decrease blood pressure

Answer 2

B) To prevent or correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances
Rationale: One of the main goals of IV therapy is to maintain or restore fluid and electrolyte balance in patients.

Question 3

3. What is the most critical assessment prior to initiating IV therapy?
   A) Patient’s dietary preferences
   B) Patient’s weight
   C) Patency of the IV access site
   D) Patient’s level of activity

Answer 3

C) Patency of the IV access site
Rationale: Ensuring that the IV access site is patent is essential to prevent complications during IV therapy.

Question 4

4. Which type of IV solution is typically used to provide electrolytes and hydration?
   A) Hypertonic saline
   B) Dextrose in water
   C) Normal saline
   D) Lipid emulsion

Answer 4

C) Normal saline
Rationale: Normal saline is commonly used to provide hydration and correct electrolyte imbalances in patients receiving IV therapy.

Question 5

5. What should the nurse monitor for when administering IV therapy?
   A) Patient’s emotional state
   B) IV site for signs of infiltration or phlebitis
   C) Only the patient’s blood pressure
   D) Dietary intake

Answer 5

B) IV site for signs of infiltration or phlebitis
Rationale: Regularly monitoring the IV site for complications such as infiltration or phlebitis is critical for patient safety.

Question 6

1. Which type of IV access is primarily used for short-term therapy?
   A) Central line
   B) Peripheral IV
   C) Venous port
   D) PICC line

Answer 6

B) Peripheral IV
Rationale: Peripheral IVs are typically used for short-term access, often in the veins of the arms or legs.

Question 7

2. What is a key characteristic of a central line?
   A) It is always inserted in the hand
   B) It is used for short-term therapy
   C) It can remain in place for weeks to months
   D) It is not used for medication administration

Answer 7

C) It can remain in place for weeks to months
Rationale: Central lines are designed for long-term use and can be maintained for extended periods.

Question 8

3. Which of the following is a common indication for using a PICC line?
   A) Short-term antibiotic therapy
   B) Frequent blood draws
   C) Long-term medication administration
   D) Routine hydration

Answer 8

C) Long-term medication administration
Rationale: PICC lines are ideal for patients needing long-term intravenous therapy, such as chemotherapy.

Question 9

4. What advantage does a venous port provide?
   A) It is less costly
   B) It allows for easy access without repeated venipuncture
   C) It can be inserted by nurses
   D) It is only used in emergencies

Answer 9

B) It allows for easy access without repeated venipuncture
Rationale: Venous ports provide access to the bloodstream without the need for multiple needle sticks.

Question 10

5. Which location is most commonly used for peripheral IV insertion?
   A) Neck
   B) Subclavian vein
   C) Antecubital fossa
   D) Femoral vein

Answer 10

C) Antecubital fossa
Rationale: The antecubital fossa is a common site for peripheral IV insertion due to the larger veins present.

Question 11

6. What is a potential complication of peripheral IV therapy?
   A) Infection
   B) Central line thrombosis
   C) Catheter misplacement
   D) Air embolism

Answer 11

A) Infection
Rationale: Infection is a risk with any IV access but is particularly common with peripheral IVs due to their frequent use and shorter duration.

Question 12

7. Which type of IV access is least likely to cause a phlebitis reaction?
   A) Peripheral IV
   B) Central line
   C) PICC line
   D) Venous port

Answer 12

D) Venous port
Rationale: Venous ports are less likely to cause phlebitis since they are accessed less frequently than peripheral IVs.

Question 13

8. What is an important nursing action before inserting a peripheral IV?
   A) Check the patient’s vital signs
   B) Assess the patient’s fluid intake
   C) Choose an appropriate site and clean it thoroughly
   D) Administer a sedative

Answer 13

C) Choose an appropriate site and clean it thoroughly
Rationale: Proper site selection and cleaning are crucial to prevent infection and ensure successful IV placement.

Question 14

9. What is a primary benefit of using a central line over a peripheral IV?
   A) It is less invasive
   B) It is more comfortable for the patient
   C) It allows for administration of larger volumes and irritating substances
   D) It is cheaper

Answer 14

C) It allows for administration of larger volumes and irritating substances
Rationale: Central lines can safely deliver larger volumes and medications that may irritate peripheral veins.

Question 15

10. When caring for a patient with a PICC line, what should the nurse regularly monitor?
    A) Peripheral pulses
    B) Insertion site for signs of infection
    C) Patient’s weight
    D) Blood pressure only

Answer 15

B) Insertion site for signs of infection
Rationale: Monitoring the PICC line insertion site for infection is essential for preventing complications.

Question 16

11. Which type of IV access is ideal for patients requiring frequent blood draws and IV medications?
    A) Peripheral IV
    B) Venous port
    C) Central line
    D) Both A and C

Answer 16

D) Both A and C
Rationale: Both peripheral IVs and central lines can be used for frequent blood draws and medication administration, depending on the patient’s needs.

Question 17

12. What is the main concern with long-term use of a central line?
    A) Cost
    B) Infection and thrombosis
    C) Patient discomfort
    D) Skin irritation

Answer 17

B) Infection and thrombosis
Rationale: Long-term use of central lines carries risks of infection and thrombosis due to the presence of a foreign body in the vascular system.

Question 18

13. In which situation would a nurse most likely use a venous port?
    A) For hydration in an emergency
    B) For a patient requiring long-term chemotherapy
    C) For short-term IV antibiotics
    D) For blood transfusions

Answer 18

B) For a patient requiring long-term chemotherapy
Rationale: Venous ports are commonly used for patients needing long-term access for chemotherapy and other treatments.

Question 19

14. What should the nurse do if a patient experiences swelling at the IV site?
    A) Continue the infusion
    B) Assess for infiltration or phlebitis
    C) Apply heat to the area
    D) Remove the IV immediately

Answer 19

B) Assess for infiltration or phlebitis
Rationale: Swelling at the IV site may indicate infiltration or phlebitis, and assessment is necessary to determine the appropriate action.

Question 20

15. What is an essential teaching point for a patient with a central line?
    A) Avoid all physical activity
    B) Keep the area clean and dry
    C) Change the dressing weekly
    D) Use the line only for IV medications

Answer 20

B) Keep the area clean and dry
Rationale: Maintaining cleanliness around the central line insertion site is critical to prevent infection.

Question 21

16. What complication can occur if a venous port is not accessed correctly?
    A) Allergic reaction
    B) Catheter rupture
    C) Infection
    D) Hematoma

Answer 21

C) Infection
Rationale: Improper access of a venous port can introduce bacteria, leading to potential infection.

Question 22

17. Which of the following is a common indication for peripheral IV access?
    A) Long-term fluid replacement
    B) Administering IV medications for a few days
    C) Continuous parenteral nutrition
    D) Central venous pressure monitoring

Answer 22

B) Administering IV medications for a few days
Rationale: Peripheral IVs are commonly used for short-term medication administration, typically lasting a few days.

Question 23

18. What is a critical step when flushing a central line?
    A) Use saline only
    B) Apply pressure to the line
    C) Flush with sterile water
    D) Follow a specific protocol for flushing

Answer 23

D) Follow a specific protocol for flushing
Rationale: Following established flushing protocols is essential to prevent complications and ensure patency of the line.

Question 24

19. What assessment should the nurse perform after inserting a peripheral IV?
    A) Assess for redness and swelling at the site
    B) Ask the patient about their dietary preferences
    C) Check for a pulse in the opposite limb
    D) Measure the patient’s temperature

Answer 24

A) Assess for redness and swelling at the site
Rationale: Assessing the IV site for redness, swelling, or other signs of complications is crucial immediately after insertion.

Question 25

20. When is it appropriate to use a central line instead of a peripheral IV? A) For hydration in a healthy adult B) When long-term therapy is anticipated C) For a single dose of medication D) For routine vaccinations

Answer 25

B) When long-term therapy is anticipated Rationale: Central lines are indicated for long-term therapy, such as chemotherapy or long-term antibiotic administration.

Question 26

1. What is the primary goal of large-volume infusions? A) To deliver medications quickly B) To provide hydration and electrolytes safely over time C) To increase blood pressure D) To perform a blood transfusion

Answer 26

B) To provide hydration and electrolytes safely over time Rationale: Large-volume infusions are primarily used to administer fluids and maintain hydration and electrolyte balance.

Question 27

2. What defines a bolus in IV therapy? A) Continuous infusion B) Rapid injection of a concentrated dose C) Small volume of fluid D) Use of a peripheral IV only

Answer 27

B) Rapid injection of a concentrated dose Rationale: A bolus refers to a quick injection of a concentrated medication or fluid, often for immediate therapeutic effects.

Question 28

3. In which scenario would an IV piggyback be used? A) To provide large volumes of saline B) To infuse a medication mixed in a small volume of IV fluid through an existing line C) For hydration therapy D) To monitor blood pressure

Answer 28

B) To infuse a medication mixed in a small volume of IV fluid through an existing line Rationale: An IV piggyback allows for the administration of medications without disrupting the primary IV line.

Question 29

4. What is a key consideration when administering large-volume infusions? A) Administer at a rapid rate B) Monitor for signs of fluid overload C) Use only dextrose solutions D) Avoid using a pump

Answer 29

B) Monitor for signs of fluid overload Rationale: When administering large-volume infusions, it's essential to monitor for signs of fluid overload, such as edema or difficulty breathing.

Question 30

5. What is the typical volume range for a large-volume infusion? A) 50-100 mL B) 250-500 mL C) 500-1000 mL D) 1000-2000 mL

Answer 30

C) 500-1000 mL Rationale: Large-volume infusions typically range from 500 to 1000 mL, depending on the clinical situation and patient needs.

Question 31

6. Which of the following is a potential complication of bolus administration? A) Fluid overload B) Slow infusion rates C) Drug interactions D) Prolonged therapy

Answer 31

A) Fluid overload Rationale: Rapid administration of a bolus can lead to fluid overload, particularly in patients with compromised cardiac or renal function.

Question 32

7. What is the main advantage of using an IV piggyback system? A) It reduces medication administration time B) It allows for multiple medications to be infused simultaneously C) It minimizes the risk of infection D) It facilitates continuous infusion

Answer 32

B) It allows for multiple medications to be infused simultaneously Rationale: The IV piggyback system enables the infusion of additional medications without disrupting the primary line.

Question 33

8. How should the nurse prepare to administer a bolus? A) Dilute the medication before administration B) Verify the correct dosage and administration rate C) Administer through a peripheral IV only D) Delay administration until the patient is asleep

Answer 33

B) Verify the correct dosage and administration rate Rationale: Verifying the dosage and rate is critical to ensure safe and effective bolus administration.

Question 34

9. When is it appropriate to change the IV administration from a large-volume infusion to an IV piggyback? A) When hydration is no longer needed B) When a medication needs to be administered intermittently C) Only at the end of the shift D) When the IV site is painful

Answer 34

B) When a medication needs to be administered intermittently Rationale: IV piggyback setups are appropriate for intermittent medication administration while maintaining the primary IV.

Question 35

10. What should the nurse do if a patient experiences discomfort during a large-volume infusion? A) Continue the infusion B) Assess the IV site and stop the infusion if needed C) Administer pain medication D) Increase the infusion rate

Answer 35

B) Assess the IV site and stop the infusion if needed Rationale: The nurse should assess the IV site for complications such as infiltration or phlebitis and stop the infusion if necessary.

Question 36

11. Which solution is often used for large-volume infusions? A) Dextrose 5% in water B) Normal saline C) 0.45% saline D) All of the above

Answer 36

D) All of the above Rationale: Various solutions, including dextrose in water and saline, can be used for large-volume infusions depending on patient needs.

Question 37

12. What is a critical nursing action before starting an IV piggyback infusion? A) Ensure the primary line is disconnected B) Verify the medication with another nurse C) Administer a bolus first D) Change the IV site

Answer 37

B) Verify the medication with another nurse Rationale: Medication verification is essential to ensure patient safety and correct administration of the IV piggyback medication.

Question 38

13. When administering a bolus dose, how should the nurse monitor the patient? A) Check vital signs every hour B) Observe for immediate adverse reactions C) Administer additional fluids immediately D) Provide a snack

Answer 38

B) Observe for immediate adverse reactions Rationale: Monitoring for immediate adverse reactions is crucial when administering a bolus due to the rapid delivery of medication.

Question 39

14. What should be included in patient education regarding large-volume infusions? A) Explain the purpose of the infusion and what to expect B) Advise against drinking fluids C) Instruct to notify staff only for pain D) No education is necessary

Answer 39

A) Explain the purpose of the infusion and what to expect Rationale: Educating patients about the infusion process helps reduce anxiety and encourages them to report any concerns.

Question 40

15. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using bolus administration? A) Requires a longer infusion time B) Increased risk of complications C) It is not suitable for all medications D) It is more cost-effective

Answer 40

B) Increased risk of complications Rationale: Rapid administration of a bolus can increase the risk of complications such as fluid overload or adverse drug reactions.

Question 41

16. How can the nurse prevent complications during a large-volume infusion? A) Administer quickly B) Use a smaller IV catheter C) Monitor the patient closely for signs of overload D) Limit patient movement

Answer 41

C) Monitor the patient closely for signs of overload Rationale: Close monitoring helps identify complications such as fluid overload early, ensuring timely intervention.

Question 42

17. What is the primary purpose of using a secondary IV line for a piggyback infusion? A) To administer fluids more rapidly B) To reduce the volume of fluid administered C) To infuse medications that require dilution D) To allow for medication administration without interrupting the primary infusion

Answer 42

D) To allow for medication administration without interrupting the primary infusion Rationale: A secondary IV line enables medication administration while maintaining the primary IV flow.

Question 43

18. What is an essential step when transitioning from a large-volume infusion to a bolus? A) Increase the infusion rate B) Ensure the line is free of air C) Stop the IV immediately D) Change the IV site

Answer 43

B) Ensure the line is free of air Rationale: Ensuring that the line is free of air prevents air embolism during the transition from a large-volume infusion to a bolus.

Question 44

19. What is a common medication that may be administered via an IV piggyback? A) Normal saline B) Antibiotics C) Electrolyte solutions D) Vitamin B12

Answer 44

B) Antibiotics Rationale: Antibiotics are often administered via IV piggyback to ensure they are delivered effectively while minimizing disruption to the primary IV fluid.

Question 45

20. In which circumstance is a bolus administration particularly useful? A) For routine hydration B) During a medical emergency requiring rapid drug effect C) When a patient is stable D) For scheduled medication doses

Answer 45

B) During a medical emergency requiring rapid drug effect Rationale: Bolus administration is ideal in emergencies when rapid therapeutic effects are needed.

Question 46

1. Which of the following IV solutions is considered isotonic? A) 0.45% Normal Saline B) 0.9% Normal Saline C) Dextrose 5% in water D) 3% Normal Saline

Answer 46

B) 0.9% Normal Saline Rationale: Isotonic solutions, like 0.9% Normal Saline, have the same osmolality as body fluids, making them suitable for fluid replacement.

Question 47

2. What is the primary effect of administering a hypotonic IV solution? A) Increases blood volume B) Pulls water out of cells C) Moves water into cells D) Stabilizes blood pressure

Answer 47

C) Moves water into cells Rationale: Hypotonic solutions have lower osmolality, causing water to move into the cells, which can help rehydrate them.

Question 48

3. Which IV solution would be best for treating a patient with hypernatremia? A) 0.9% Normal Saline B) Dextrose 10% in water C) 0.45% Normal Saline D) Lactated Ringer's

Answer 48

C) 0.45% Normal Saline Rationale: A hypotonic solution like 0.45% Normal Saline is appropriate for treating hypernatremia by diluting serum sodium levels.

Question 49

4. What is the primary purpose of hypertonic IV solutions? A) To hydrate cells B) To pull water out of cells C) To maintain osmotic balance D) To deliver medications

Answer 49

B) To pull water out of cells Rationale: Hypertonic solutions have a higher osmolality, drawing water out of cells and into the vascular space, which can increase blood volume.

Question 50

5. Which of the following is an example of a hypertonic solution? A) Dextrose 5% in water B) 0.9% Normal Saline C) 3% Normal Saline D) Lactated Ringer's

Answer 50

C) 3% Normal Saline Rationale: 3% Normal Saline is a hypertonic solution that can be used in specific clinical scenarios to treat hyponatremia or cerebral edema.

Question 51

6. What effect does an isotonic solution have on blood cells? A) Causes them to swell B) Causes them to shrink C) No effect on cell size D) Causes them to burst

Answer 51

C) No effect on cell size Rationale: Isotonic solutions do not alter the size of blood cells because their osmolality is equal to that of the body’s fluids.

Question 52

7. In what situation would you typically use a hypertonic solution? A) To hydrate a patient B) To treat severe dehydration C) To reduce cerebral edema D) For routine maintenance

Answer 52

C) To reduce cerebral edema Rationale: Hypertonic solutions can help manage conditions like cerebral edema by drawing fluid out of swollen cells.

Question 53

8. Which of the following IV solutions is commonly used for fluid resuscitation? A) 0.45% Normal Saline B) Lactated Ringer's C) Dextrose 5% in water D) 3% Normal Saline

Answer 53

B) Lactated Ringer's Rationale: Lactated Ringer's is isotonic and commonly used for fluid resuscitation due to its balanced electrolyte content.

Question 54

9. When would a nurse use Dextrose 5% in water? A) To treat hyperkalemia B) To provide calories and hydration C) For fluid resuscitation D) To correct hypernatremia

Answer 54

B) To provide calories and hydration Rationale: Dextrose 5% in water is used to provide hydration and calories, especially in patients who may not be able to eat.

Question 55

10. What should the nurse monitor for when administering a hypotonic solution? A) Signs of fluid overload B) Electrolyte imbalances C) Blood pressure D) All of the above

Answer 55

D) All of the above Rationale: The nurse should monitor for potential complications such as fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances when administering hypotonic solutions.

Question 56

11. Why might hypertonic solutions be contraindicated in some patients? A) They can cause fluid overload B) They can cause cellular dehydration C) They are too costly D) They can cause allergic reactions

Answer 56

B) They can cause cellular dehydration Rationale: Hypertonic solutions can lead to cellular dehydration, making them contraindicated in certain patient populations.

Question 57

12. Which IV solution is often used for maintenance fluids? A) 0.9% Normal Saline B) Dextrose 5% in 0.45% Normal Saline C) 3% Normal Saline D) Lactated Ringer's

Answer 57

B) Dextrose 5% in 0.45% Normal Saline Rationale: This solution provides hydration and electrolytes, making it suitable for maintenance therapy.

Question 58

13. In what situation would a nurse choose an isotonic solution? A) To correct dehydration B) To provide IV medications C) To treat hypernatremia D) For surgical patients

Answer 58

D) For surgical patients Rationale: Isotonic solutions are often used for fluid replacement during surgery to maintain hemodynamic stability.

Question 59

14. What is the primary danger of administering hypotonic solutions too rapidly? A) Hypervolemia B) Cellular lysis C) Electrolyte imbalance D) Phlebitis

Answer 59

B) Cellular lysis Rationale: Rapid administration of hypotonic solutions can lead to cellular swelling and potentially lysis, especially in sensitive cells like red blood cells.

Question 60

15. What should the nurse consider when selecting an IV solution for a patient? A) Only the patient’s age B) The patient's electrolyte status and clinical condition C) The cost of the solution D) The color of the solution

Answer 60

B) The patient's electrolyte status and clinical condition Rationale: Understanding the patient's clinical condition and electrolyte status is essential for selecting the appropriate IV solution.

Question 61

16. Which of the following is true regarding hypertonic solutions? A) They can cause swelling of cells B) They are isotonic C) They should be given cautiously to patients with cardiac issues D) They dilute body fluids

Answer 61

C) They should be given cautiously to patients with cardiac issues Rationale: Hypertonic solutions can increase blood volume and pressure, which can be risky for patients with cardiac problems.

Question 62

17. When administering a hypertonic solution, what is an important nursing action? A) Administer quickly without monitoring B) Monitor for signs of fluid overload C) Limit patient intake of fluids D) Use a large bore needle only

Answer 62

B) Monitor for signs of fluid overload Rationale: Monitoring for fluid overload is critical when administering hypertonic solutions, especially in susceptible patients.

Question 63

18. How do isotonic solutions affect blood pressure? A) Increase blood pressure B) Decrease blood pressure C) Have no significant effect on blood pressure D) Cause hypotension

Answer 63

C) Have no significant effect on blood pressure Rationale: Isotonic solutions do not significantly alter blood pressure when administered appropriately.

Question 64

19. Which IV solution is most appropriate for a patient with low blood pressure due to dehydration? A) 0.9% Normal Saline B) Dextrose 5% in water C) 3% Normal Saline D) 0.45% Normal Saline

Answer 64

A) 0.9% Normal Saline Rationale: 0.9% Normal Saline is isotonic and helps restore blood volume and pressure in dehydrated patients.

Question 65

20. What is the effect of administering Dextrose 5% in Normal Saline? A) It creates a hypertonic solution B) It dilutes the normal saline C) It provides calories and hydration D) It causes fluid retention

Answer 65

C) It provides calories and hydration Rationale: Dextrose 5% in Normal Saline offers both hydration and calories, making it suitable for various clinical situations.

Question 66

1. What are Vascular Access Devices (VADs) primarily used for? A) Monitoring vital signs B) Delivering fluids and medications C) Drawing blood D) Performing surgeries

Answer 66

B) Delivering fluids and medications Rationale: VADs, such as catheters and infusion ports, are specifically designed for the administration of fluids and medications.

Question 67

2. Which of the following is a primary function of an infusion pump? A) To hydrate the patient B) To monitor blood pressure C) To regulate flow rates D) To administer blood

Answer 67

C) To regulate flow rates Rationale: Infusion pumps are used to control the rate at which fluids or medications are delivered to the patient.

Question 68

3. What is the purpose of using IV fluids and tubing? A) To provide nutrition B) To facilitate fluid delivery based on patient needs C) To enhance medication absorption D) To prevent infection

Answer 68

B) To facilitate fluid delivery based on patient needs Rationale: IV fluids and tubing are selected according to the type of solution and the specific requirements of the patient.

Question 69

4. What type of VAD would be appropriate for long-term medication administration? A) Peripheral IV catheter B) Central line C) IV piggyback D) Infusion pump

Answer 69

B) Central line Rationale: Central lines are designed for long-term use, allowing for sustained medication administration and nutrition without repeated venipuncture.

Question 70

5. Which IV fluid administration device allows for precise volume control? A) Gravity drip B) Infusion pump C) Syringe D) Peripheral catheter

Answer 70

B) Infusion pump Rationale: Infusion pumps provide precise control over the volume and rate of fluid administration, making them essential in critical care.

Question 71

6. Which type of infusion tubing is typically used for blood products? A) Microdrip tubing B) Macrodrip tubing C) Blood administration tubing D) Standard IV tubing

Answer 71

C) Blood administration tubing Rationale: Blood administration tubing is specifically designed to safely and effectively transfuse blood products.

Question 72

7. What is a potential complication of using a VAD? A) Dehydration B) Infection C) Electrolyte imbalance D) Hypotension

Answer 72

B) Infection Rationale: VADs can introduce pathogens into the bloodstream, increasing the risk of infection if not maintained properly.

Question 73

8. What is the primary reason for using an infusion pump over a gravity drip system? A) Cost-effectiveness B) Simplicity of use C) Ability to deliver medications at a precise rate D) Increased flow rate

Answer 73

C) Ability to deliver medications at a precise rate Rationale: Infusion pumps allow for accurate control of medication and fluid delivery rates, which is crucial in many clinical situations.

Question 74

9. When would a nurse choose a peripheral IV catheter? A) For short-term fluid administration B) For long-term IV therapy C) For blood transfusions D) For central venous pressure monitoring

Answer 74

A) For short-term fluid administration Rationale: Peripheral IV catheters are ideal for short-term use, typically lasting a few days for hydration or medication administration.

Question 75

10. Which piece of equipment is essential for monitoring fluid infusion rates? A) VAD B) Infusion pump C) IV fluid bag D) IV tubing

Answer 75

B) Infusion pump Rationale: Infusion pumps are specifically designed to monitor and regulate fluid infusion rates accurately.

Question 76

11. What type of VAD is used for accessing the bloodstream in infants? A) Central line B) Peripheral IV catheter C) Intraosseous device D) Infusion port

Answer 76

C) Intraosseous device Rationale: Intraosseous devices are often used in infants and young children when IV access is challenging, allowing for fluid and medication administration directly into the bone marrow.

Question 77

12. What is a key benefit of using a port for vascular access? A) It requires frequent changes B) It can be used for both IV medications and blood draws C) It is inexpensive D) It is only for short-term use

Answer 77

B) It can be used for both IV medications and blood draws Rationale: Ports provide long-term vascular access and can be used for various purposes, including medication administration and blood sampling.

Question 78

13. When is a macrodrip tubing most appropriate to use? A) For precise fluid management B) When rapid fluid administration is required C) For patients with small veins D) For blood transfusions only

Answer 78

B) When rapid fluid administration is required Rationale: Macrodrip tubing has a larger drop factor, allowing for quicker fluid delivery, which is useful in emergencies.

Question 79

14. How often should IV tubing typically be changed? A) Every 24 hours B) Every 48 hours C) Every 72 hours D) Every week

Answer 79

A) Every 24 hours Rationale: IV tubing should generally be changed every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection and ensure effective fluid delivery.

Question 80

15. What should a nurse do if an infusion pump alarms? A) Ignore it if the infusion is still running B) Check for kinks or occlusions in the line C) Increase the flow rate D) Change the IV site

Answer 80

B) Check for kinks or occlusions in the line Rationale: An alarm indicates a potential issue, and the nurse should check for obstructions or other problems before proceeding.

Question 81

16. Which device is commonly used for administering medications intermittently via IV? A) Continuous infusion pump B) IV piggyback setup C) Macrodrip tubing D) Peripheral IV catheter

Answer 81

B) IV piggyback setup Rationale: An IV piggyback setup allows for the administration of medications at scheduled intervals without interrupting the primary infusion.

Question 82

17. What is an important consideration when using infusion pumps? A) They are always accurate B) Regularly check for air bubbles C) Only used in critical care settings D) They cannot be used with blood products

Answer 82

B) Regularly check for air bubbles Rationale: Regularly checking for air bubbles is essential to prevent air embolism during IV infusions.

Question 83

18. When should a nurse assess the IV site? A) Only when the patient complains B) At the beginning of every shift C) Every hour D) Whenever administering medications

Answer 83

D) Whenever administering medications Rationale: The IV site should be assessed prior to medication administration to ensure there are no complications like infiltration or phlebitis.

Question 84

19. Which of the following is NOT a function of an infusion pump? A) Delivering medication at a set rate B) Monitoring blood pressure C) Alerting for occlusions D) Storing fluid volumes

Answer 84

B) Monitoring blood pressure Rationale: Infusion pumps do not monitor blood pressure; they focus on fluid and medication delivery and ensuring proper flow rates.

Question 85

20. What is a potential risk associated with using a VAD? A) Overhydration B) Infiltration C) Allergic reaction to medications D) Increased mobility

Answer 85

B) Infiltration Rationale: Infiltration can occur when the IV catheter dislodges from the vein, leading to fluid leaking into surrounding tissues, which can cause swelling and discomfort.

Question 86

1. Why is sterile technique crucial when preparing an IV site? A) To save time B) To prevent infection C) To ensure comfort D) To improve flow rate

Answer 86

B) To prevent infection Rationale: Maintaining a sterile technique during IV site preparation is essential to reduce the risk of infection at the insertion site.

Question 87

2. What should the nurse do to ensure the patency of an IV line? A) Change the IV site every 24 hours B) Use a tourniquet C) Flush the IV line with saline D) Remove the IV catheter

Answer 87

C) Flush the IV line with saline Rationale: Flushing the IV line with saline helps ensure patency and prevents occlusions from forming in the catheter.

Question 88

3. How often should the nurse assess the IV site for signs of complications? A) Every hour B) Only when changing the dressing C) At the beginning of each shift D) Whenever administering medications

Answer 88

D) Whenever administering medications Rationale: The IV site should be assessed whenever medications are administered to identify any issues like infiltration or infection.

Question 89

4. What is the primary purpose of regulating the flow rate of an IV infusion? A) To reduce nursing time B) To ensure the correct dosage over time C) To prevent fluid overload D) To speed up the infusion

Answer 89

B) To ensure the correct dosage over time Rationale: Regulating the flow rate is crucial for delivering the correct dosage of medication or fluids to the patient.

Question 90

5. Which of the following indicates that an IV site may not be patent? A) Warmth around the site B) Pain or discomfort at the site C) Edema around the IV site D) All of the above

Answer 90

D) All of the above Rationale: Warmth, pain, and edema are all signs that the IV site may not be patent and could indicate complications such as infiltration or phlebitis.

Question 91

6. What is the appropriate action if an IV line is determined to be occluded? A) Increase the flow rate B) Attempt to flush the line C) Change the IV site D) Notify the physician

Answer 91

C) Change the IV site Rationale: If an IV line is occluded, the appropriate action is to change the IV site to ensure safe and effective medication administration.

Question 92

7. What should be done prior to administering medication via an IV line? A) Assess vital signs B) Change the IV tubing C) Check the IV site for patency D) Ask the patient about allergies

Answer 92

C) Check the IV site for patency Rationale: Checking the IV site for patency is essential to ensure that the medication can be administered without complications.

Question 93

8. Which action demonstrates proper site preparation for an IV insertion? A) Wiping the site with alcohol in a circular motion B) Using a clean glove without washing hands C) Shaving hair at the site D) Scrubbing the site with an antiseptic swab for 30 seconds

Answer 93

D) Scrubbing the site with an antiseptic swab for 30 seconds Rationale: Properly scrubbing the site with an antiseptic for an adequate duration ensures effective disinfection.

Question 94

9. What should a nurse do if an IV solution bag appears to be empty? A) Replace it immediately B) Wait to see if the patient complains C) Call the physician D) Assess the IV site for infiltration

Answer 94

A) Replace it immediately Rationale: The IV solution bag should be replaced promptly to ensure continuous fluid or medication delivery to the patient.

Question 95

10. What is the best practice for securing an IV catheter to prevent movement? A) Using tape only B) Using a transparent dressing C) Tying the catheter with string D) Using gauze and tape

Answer 95

B) Using a transparent dressing Rationale: A transparent dressing provides secure stabilization while allowing for visualization of the IV site and surrounding area.

Question 96

11. What does assessing the IV site for infiltration involve? A) Checking for redness and swelling B) Monitoring the patient's blood pressure C) Flushing the IV line D) Observing the patient’s mood

Answer 96

A) Checking for redness and swelling Rationale: Assessing for infiltration involves checking for signs such as redness, swelling, and coolness around the IV site.

Question 97

12. What is the most important reason for regular patency checks? A) To prevent phlebitis B) To ensure proper medication absorption C) To maintain fluid balance D) To avoid complications

Answer 97

D) To avoid complications Rationale: Regular patency checks help identify issues early and prevent complications such as infiltration or thrombosis.

Question 98

13. When changing the IV site, what is the recommended frequency? A) Every 48 hours B) Every 72 hours C) Every 24 to 96 hours, depending on facility policy D) Once a week

Answer 98

C) Every 24 to 96 hours, depending on facility policy Rationale: The frequency of changing IV sites varies based on hospital protocols and the type of device used.

Question 99

14. How can a nurse ensure that an infusion rate is correctly set? A) By estimating the rate visually B) By consulting the physician C) By using a flow rate calculator D) By adjusting the rate manually every hour

Answer 99

C) By using a flow rate calculator Rationale: Using a flow rate calculator or referring to the IV pump settings ensures that the infusion rate is accurately set according to the physician's orders.

Question 100

15. If a patient experiences discomfort at the IV site, what should the nurse do first? A) Change the IV solution B) Assess the IV site for complications C) Increase the infusion rate D) Notify the physician immediately

Answer 100

B) Assess the IV site for complications Rationale: The first step should be to assess the IV site to determine the cause of the discomfort before taking further action.

Question 101

16. What is an appropriate action if the IV site becomes red and swollen? A) Apply a warm compress B) Remove the IV catheter C) Change the IV solution D) Document the findings only

Answer 101

B) Remove the IV catheter Rationale: If the IV site shows signs of redness and swelling, the catheter should be removed to prevent further complications and assess for infiltration.

Question 102

17. What should the nurse do if there is a change in the infusion rate? A) Ignore it B) Document it C) Check for kinks in the tubing D) Change the IV site

Answer 102

C) Check for kinks in the tubing Rationale: The nurse should first check for any kinks or blockages in the tubing that may be affecting the infusion rate before taking other actions.

Question 103

18. What is the purpose of using a clear dressing over an IV site? A) To make the IV site look neat B) To allow for visualization of the site C) To prevent movement of the catheter D) To absorb any fluid leakage

Answer 103

B) To allow for visualization of the site Rationale: A clear dressing allows the nurse to see the IV site for signs of infection or infiltration while still protecting it.

Question 104

19. When should a nurse consider changing the IV site? A) Only when the patient requests B) At the beginning of every shift C) If there are signs of phlebitis or infiltration D) Every 12 hours

Answer 104

C) If there are signs of phlebitis or infiltration Rationale: The IV site should be changed if there are any signs of complications, such as phlebitis or infiltration.

Question 105

20. What is the role of the nurse in IV maintenance? A) To ensure the IV is visible at all times B) To educate the patient about the IV therapy C) To provide emotional support only D) To change the IV fluid every 12 hours

Answer 105

B) To educate the patient about the IV therapy Rationale: Patient education is an important role for nurses, helping patients understand the purpose and process of IV therapy.

Question 106

1. What is a key sign of fluid overload in a patient receiving IV therapy? A) Increased appetite B) Shortness of breath C) Increased energy levels D) Reduced urine output

Answer 106

B) Shortness of breath Rationale: Shortness of breath is a classic sign of fluid overload, indicating that excess fluid is affecting the patient's respiratory function.

Question 107

2. If a patient shows signs of fluid overload, what should the nurse do first? A) Increase the flow rate B) Elevate the head of the bed C) Call the physician D) Administer diuretics

Answer 107

B) Elevate the head of the bed Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed helps the patient breathe easier while the nurse addresses the fluid overload.

Question 108

3. What is the primary sign of infiltration during IV therapy? A) Increased heart rate B) Pain and swelling at the site C) Fever D) Flushing of the skin

Answer 108

B) Pain and swelling at the site Rationale: Infiltration occurs when IV fluid enters the surrounding tissue, leading to pain, swelling, and coolness around the site.

Question 109

4. What is the first action a nurse should take if infiltration is suspected? A) Apply a cold compress B) Continue the infusion C) Stop the infusion D) Change the IV site

Answer 109

C) Stop the infusion Rationale: Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further fluid leakage into the tissue and potential complications.

Question 110

5. How should a nurse manage extravasation of a caustic medication? A) Apply a cold compress B) Administer more medication C) Aspirate the drug if possible D) Change the IV site immediately

Answer 110

C) Aspirate the drug if possible Rationale: Aspirating the drug can help reduce tissue damage from the caustic fluid, along with stopping the infusion and applying warmth.

Question 111

6. Which complication is characterized by inflammation of the vein? A) Infiltration B) Phlebitis C) Infection D) Fluid overload

Answer 111

B) Phlebitis Rationale: Phlebitis is specifically the inflammation of a vein, which can cause pain, redness, and warmth at the site.

Question 112

7. What signs indicate phlebitis at an IV site? A) Coolness and swelling B) Pain, redness, and warmth C) Excessive bleeding D) Numbness

Answer 112

B) Pain, redness, and warmth Rationale: These signs are classic indicators of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein.

Question 113

8. When managing a patient with signs of infection at the IV site, what is the first step? A) Apply a cold compress B) Remove the IV catheter C) Increase the flow rate D) Document the findings only

Answer 113

B) Remove the IV catheter Rationale: If signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, and discharge, are present, the catheter should be removed to prevent further complications.

Question 114

9. What is an appropriate management strategy for treating phlebitis? A) Cold compresses B) Warm compresses C) Increase fluid infusion D) Elevate the IV site

Answer 114

B) Warm compresses Rationale: Applying warm compresses can help reduce discomfort and promote blood flow to the inflamed area.

Question 115

10. What should the nurse do if a patient develops crackles in their lungs during IV therapy? A) Administer diuretics B) Decrease the IV flow rate C) Elevate the patient's legs D) Continue the current infusion

Answer 115

B) Decrease the IV flow rate Rationale: Decreasing the flow rate is essential to prevent further fluid overload, which can cause respiratory distress.

Question 116

11. Which of the following is a sign of fluid overload? A) Localized swelling B) Fever C) Crackles in lungs D) Skin rash

Answer 116

C) Crackles in lungs Rationale: Crackles in the lungs indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common sign of fluid overload.

Question 117

12. What is a key management step for treating infiltration? A) Apply a cold compress B) Continue the infusion C) Document the incident D) Apply warm compress

Answer 117

D) Apply warm compress Rationale: After stopping the infusion, applying a warm compress can help promote absorption of the infiltrated fluid.

Question 118

13. In the event of phlebitis, how should the nurse document the findings? A) Only note the time B) Document signs, symptoms, and actions taken C) Write a report to the physician only D) Use vague terms for clarity

Answer 118

B) Document signs, symptoms, and actions taken Rationale: Comprehensive documentation is crucial for continuity of care and legal protection.

Question 119

14. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for managing an infected IV site? A) Change the IV solution B) Administer antibiotics as ordered C) Apply ice to the site D) Cover the site with a bandage

Answer 119

B) Administer antibiotics as ordered Rationale: Administering antibiotics helps treat the infection, and the IV site should also be removed and documented.

Question 120

15. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing signs of extravasation? A) Notify the physician B) Remove the IV immediately C) Administer analgesics D) Elevate the affected area

Answer 120

B) Remove the IV immediately Rationale: Removing the IV is critical to prevent further damage from the caustic fluid and to assess the extent of injury.

Question 121

16. What nursing action is indicated if a patient presents with signs of infiltration? A) Flush the IV line with heparin B) Change the dressing C) Stop the infusion and assess the site D) Notify the physician immediately

Answer 121

C) Stop the infusion and assess the site Rationale: Stopping the infusion and assessing the site allows the nurse to evaluate the extent of the infiltration and take appropriate action.

Question 122

17. If a patient is experiencing pain at the IV site, what should the nurse assess for? A) Fluid overload B) Phlebitis or infiltration C) Fever D) Hypotension

Answer 122

B) Phlebitis or infiltration Rationale: Pain at the IV site is often indicative of phlebitis or infiltration, requiring immediate assessment and intervention.

Question 123

18. Which nursing intervention is NOT appropriate for a patient with phlebitis? A) Applying warm compresses B) Continuing the infusion C) Stopping the infusion D) Documenting the findings

Answer 123

B) Continuing the infusion Rationale: Continuing the infusion in the presence of phlebitis can worsen the condition; the infusion should be stopped immediately.

Question 124

19. What are common signs of infection at an IV site? A) Coolness and swelling B) Redness, swelling, and discharge C) Bruising only D) Pain without redness

Answer 124

B) Redness, swelling, and discharge Rationale: These signs indicate infection at the IV site, necessitating prompt assessment and intervention.

Question 125

20. Which intervention is appropriate if a patient exhibits shortness of breath and crackles in the lungs during IV therapy? A) Increase the infusion rate B) Administer oxygen and reduce the flow rate C) Change the IV site D) Notify the physician and continue the infusion

Answer 125

B) Administer oxygen and reduce the flow rate Rationale: Administering oxygen and reducing the flow rate helps alleviate symptoms of fluid overload.

Question 126

1. Why is it important to label IV medications correctly? A) To save time B) To prevent medication errors C) To avoid patient questions D) For aesthetic reasons

Answer 126

B) To prevent medication errors Rationale: Correct labeling helps ensure that patients receive the right medications, reducing the risk of errors.

Question 127

2. What should a nurse include when documenting IV medication administration? A) Only the time B) Dosage and site of administration C) Patient’s mood D) Other nurses present

Answer 127

B) Dosage and site of administration Rationale: Accurate documentation should include the medication name, dosage, time, and site to ensure clear communication.

Question 128

3. How often should the nurse document changes in IV therapy? A) Once a day B) Only if there are complications C) Every shift or when changes occur D) At discharge only

Answer 128

C) Every shift or when changes occur Rationale: Regular documentation ensures that all staff are informed of the current IV therapy and any changes made.

Question 129

4. What is a critical component of documenting complications related to IV therapy? A) Describing the patient’s emotional response B) Noting the time of the incident C) Ignoring minor issues D) Using vague language

Answer 129

B) Noting the time of the incident Rationale: Documenting the time of complications is essential for tracking the progression and timing of the patient's condition.

Question 130

5. If a patient develops a complication during IV therapy, what should the nurse do first? A) Document the complication B) Notify the physician C) Remove the IV D) Apply a dressing

Answer 130

C) Remove the IV Rationale: Immediate action to remove the IV is critical to prevent further complications, followed by documentation and notifying the physician.

Question 131

6. What is the purpose of following facility policies for documentation? A) To please management B) To ensure consistency and legal protection C) To avoid extra work D) For personal preference

Answer 131

B) To ensure consistency and legal protection Rationale: Adhering to policies helps maintain standardized practices and provides legal documentation for patient care.

Question 132

7. When documenting the administration of IV medications, what is essential to include? A) Only the medication name B) Route and time of administration C) Patient’s opinion of the medication D) All staff present

Answer 132

B) Route and time of administration Rationale: Documenting the route and time is critical for understanding how and when medications were given to the patient.

Question 133

8. How should a nurse document a medication error related to IV therapy? A) Hide it from the chart B) Document only in the nurse's personal notes C) Report and document truthfully in the patient’s record D) Only notify the charge nurse

Answer 133

C) Report and document truthfully in the patient’s record Rationale: Accurate reporting and documentation of errors are necessary for patient safety and quality improvement.

Question 134

9. If a nurse observes a change in the IV site, what should be documented? A) Patient's discomfort only B) The time and nature of the change C) Nothing, unless the patient complains D) Previous IV site history only

Answer 134

B) The time and nature of the change Rationale: Documenting changes in the IV site is essential for assessing the patient's response and planning further care.

Question 135

10. What should a nurse do if they notice discrepancies in IV medication orders? A) Administer the medication as ordered B) Contact the physician for clarification C) Document the discrepancy D) Ignore it

Answer 135

B) Contact the physician for clarification Rationale: Ensuring clarity and accuracy in orders is crucial for patient safety; discrepancies should always be addressed.

Question 136

11. When should a nurse document an IV medication's adverse reaction? A) Only if it’s severe B) At the end of the shift C) As soon as it occurs D) After the patient is discharged

Answer 136

C) As soon as it occurs Rationale: Timely documentation of adverse reactions ensures prompt response and continuity of care for the patient.

Question 137

12. If a nurse changes an IV site, what should be documented? A) Only the new site B) The old site’s condition C) Reason for the change and new site details D) The patient's mood

Answer 137

C) Reason for the change and new site details Rationale: Comprehensive documentation provides context and continuity for ongoing patient care.

Question 138

13. How should a nurse document the administration of a medication that requires specific timing? A) Ignore timing B) Note the exact time of administration C) Use general terms like "morning" D) Only write the date

Answer 138

B) Note the exact time of administration Rationale: Precise timing is essential for medications that require specific schedules for effectiveness and safety.

Question 139

14. What should be included in the documentation for IV fluids administered? A) Only the total volume B) The type, volume, rate, and duration C) Just the patient’s response D) The brand of the IV fluid

Answer 139

B) The type, volume, rate, and duration Rationale: Comprehensive documentation of IV fluids ensures all relevant information is captured for safe care.

Question 140

15. When documenting patient education regarding IV therapy, what is important to include? A) Only the date B) Patient's understanding and response C) Other patients' opinions D) Nurse's feelings about the patient

Answer 140

B) Patient's understanding and response Rationale: Documenting the patient’s understanding ensures that education was effective and provides a basis for future care.

Question 141

16. How should a nurse document IV medication administration in a patient's record? A) Only the drug name B) Medication name, dose, time, route, and patient’s response C) The name of the nurse administering D) Use abbreviations only

Answer 141

B) Medication name, dose, time, route, and patient’s response Rationale: This information is crucial for continuity of care and ensuring patient safety.

Question 142

17. What is a potential consequence of poor documentation in IV therapy? A) Improved patient outcomes B) Increased liability and risk for patient safety C) Easier communication D) Enhanced care coordination

Answer 142

B) Increased liability and risk for patient safety Rationale: Inadequate documentation can lead to misunderstandings, errors, and legal consequences.

Question 143

18. If a nurse notes a change in a patient's IV site, what documentation should be included? A) Just the location B) The time and nature of the change, along with the nurse's assessment C) Nothing D) The patient's opinion

Answer 143

B) The time and nature of the change, along with the nurse's assessment Rationale: Documenting assessments provides context and supports ongoing care decisions.

Question 144

19. What should a nurse do if they forget to document an IV medication administration? A) Leave it out B) Document it as soon as remembered, including the reason for the delay C) Only inform the physician D) Document it as if it was done on time

Answer 144

B) Document it as soon as remembered, including the reason for the delay Rationale: Accurate retrospective documentation helps maintain the integrity of the medical record.

Question 145

20. In what scenario is it essential to document the reason for changing an IV site? A) Always B) Only if it looks bad C) Only for legal purposes D) When it’s inconvenient

Answer 145

A) Always Rationale: Documenting the reason for a change in the IV site ensures clear communication among healthcare providers and maintains quality of care.