Glucose Monitoring Flashcards
- What is the normal range for fasting blood glucose levels?
A) 60-80 mg/dL
B) 70-99 mg/dL
C) 100-120 mg/dL
D) 130-150 mg/dL
B) 70-99 mg/dL
Rationale: The normal fasting blood glucose range is 70-99 mg/dL.
- Which type of diabetes is characterized by the immune system destroying insulin-producing cells?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Gestational
D) Pre-diabetes
A) Type 1
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition where the immune system attacks and destroys insulin-producing beta cells in the pancreas.
- What is the main issue in Type 2 diabetes?
A) Lack of insulin production
B) Insulin resistance
C) Excess insulin production
D) Low blood sugar
B) Insulin resistance
Rationale: In Type 2 diabetes, the body becomes resistant to insulin, leading to inadequate use of insulin and, eventually, reduced secretion.
- A patient has a blood glucose level of 105 mg/dL. How would this be classified?
A) Normal
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Pre-diabetes
D) Diabetes
C) Pre-diabetes
Rationale: A fasting blood glucose level of 100-125 mg/dL indicates pre-diabetes.
- What is a common symptom of Type 1 diabetes?
A) Weight gain
B) Increased thirst and urination
C) Insulin resistance
D) Fatigue
B) Increased thirst and urination
Rationale: Excessive thirst and frequent urination are common symptoms due to high blood glucose levels in Type 1 diabetes.
- Which type of diabetes typically develops in childhood or adolescence?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Gestational
D) Maturity Onset Diabetes of the Young (MODY)
A) Type 1
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes often develops in childhood or adolescence but can occur at any age.
- In which type of diabetes is insulin usually required for management?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Gestational
D) All types
A) Type 1
Rationale: Individuals with Type 1 diabetes typically require insulin for survival due to the lack of insulin production.
- Which lifestyle factor is most commonly associated with Type 2 diabetes?
A) Sedentary lifestyle
B) Excessive exercise
C) Low carbohydrate intake
D) High protein diet
A) Sedentary lifestyle
Rationale: A sedentary lifestyle is a significant risk factor for developing Type 2 diabetes due to its link to obesity and insulin resistance.
- What is the role of insulin in the body?
A) Increases blood sugar levels
B) Decreases blood sugar levels
C) Produces energy
D) Stimulates hunger
B) Decreases blood sugar levels
Rationale: Insulin helps lower blood glucose levels by facilitating the uptake of glucose into cells for energy.
- A patient with Type 2 diabetes is advised to lose weight. What is the primary reason for this recommendation?
A) To increase insulin production
B) To reduce insulin resistance
C) To avoid hypoglycemia
D) To improve appetite
B) To reduce insulin resistance
Rationale: Weight loss can significantly improve insulin sensitivity and help control blood glucose levels in individuals with Type 2 diabetes.
- What blood glucose level indicates hypoglycemia?
A) Less than 70 mg/dL
B) 70-99 mg/dL
C) 100-125 mg/dL
D) Greater than 200 mg/dL
A) Less than 70 mg/dL
Rationale: A blood glucose level less than 70 mg/dL is considered hypoglycemic and may require prompt treatment.
- Which of the following is a common complication of unmanaged diabetes?
A) Increased energy levels
B) Hypertension
C) Diabetic neuropathy
D) Enhanced healing
C) Diabetic neuropathy
Rationale: Diabetic neuropathy is a common complication resulting from prolonged high blood sugar levels damaging nerves.
- How does Type 2 diabetes typically progress?
A) Immediate onset of symptoms
B) Slow progression with occasional hyperglycemia
C) Complete insulin dependence
D) Rapid weight loss
B) Slow progression with occasional hyperglycemia
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes often develops gradually, with symptoms that may be overlooked initially.
- What is the primary treatment for Type 1 diabetes?
A) Oral medications
B) Insulin therapy
C) Lifestyle modifications
D) Monitoring blood sugar only
B) Insulin therapy
Rationale: Individuals with Type 1 diabetes require insulin therapy for blood sugar regulation due to the absence of insulin production.
- Which of the following statements is true regarding Type 2 diabetes?
A) It only affects older adults
B) It is always insulin-dependent
C) It can be managed with diet and exercise
D) It requires daily insulin injections
C) It can be managed with diet and exercise
Rationale: Many individuals with Type 2 diabetes can manage their condition through lifestyle changes, especially in early stages.
- What condition may occur if blood glucose levels remain consistently high?
A) Hyperglycemic crisis
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Insulinoma
D) Adrenal crisis
A) Hyperglycemic crisis
Rationale: Persistently high blood glucose levels can lead to complications such as hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state or diabetic ketoacidosis.
- A patient with diabetes is experiencing fatigue and increased urination. What could this indicate?
A) Effective blood sugar control
B) Low blood sugar
C) High blood sugar
D) Insulin resistance
C) High blood sugar
Rationale: Fatigue and increased urination are classic signs of hyperglycemia in individuals with diabetes.
- What is the most common form of diabetes?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Gestational
D) MODY
B) Type 2
Rationale: Type 2 diabetes is the most prevalent form of diabetes, affecting millions worldwide.
- Which of the following is a risk factor for developing Type 2 diabetes?
A) Regular exercise
B) Low-fat diet
C) Family history of diabetes
D) High fiber intake
C) Family history of diabetes
Rationale: A family history of diabetes is a significant risk factor for developing Type 2 diabetes.
- Which lab test is commonly used to diagnose diabetes?
A) Hemoglobin A1c
B) Complete blood count
C) Basic metabolic panel
D) Thyroid function test
A) Hemoglobin A1c
Rationale: The Hemoglobin A1c test measures average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months and is commonly used to diagnose diabetes.
- What is the primary action of Metformin?
A) Increases insulin production
B) Decreases hepatic glucose production
C) Promotes weight gain
D) Increases glucose absorption
B) Decreases hepatic glucose production
Rationale: Metformin primarily works by reducing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity.
- Glipizide belongs to which class of diabetes medications?
A) Biguanides
B) Sulfonylureas
C) Thiazolidinediones
D) DPP-4 inhibitors
B) Sulfonylureas
Rationale: Glipizide is a sulfonylurea that stimulates insulin secretion from the pancreas.
- Which type of insulin is classified as short-acting?
A) NPH
B) Regular
C) Glargine
D) Detemir
B) Regular
Rationale: Regular insulin is a short-acting insulin used to control blood glucose levels during meals.
- When is it most appropriate to administer Glipizide?
A) 30 minutes before a meal
B) After meals
C) At bedtime
D) Anytime during the day
A) 30 minutes before a meal
Rationale: Glipizide should be taken before meals to ensure effective management of postprandial blood glucose levels.
- What is the action of NPH insulin?
A) Long-acting
B) Rapid-acting
C) Intermediate-acting
D) Ultra-long acting
C) Intermediate-acting
Rationale: NPH insulin is an intermediate-acting insulin that covers insulin needs for a portion of the day.
- How is correctional insulin administered?
A) Based on weight
B) According to a sliding scale
C) At fixed times
D) Only at bedtime
B) According to a sliding scale
Rationale: Correctional insulin doses are determined based on the patient’s current blood glucose levels using a sliding scale.
- What is a common side effect of Metformin?
A) Weight gain
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Gastrointestinal upset
D) Fluid retention
C) Gastrointestinal upset
Rationale: Gastrointestinal upset, including nausea and diarrhea, is a common side effect of Metformin, especially when initiating therapy.
- When should Regular insulin be administered in relation to meals?
A) 1 hour after meals
B) 30 minutes before meals
C) At bedtime
D) Anytime
B) 30 minutes before meals
Rationale: Regular insulin should be administered about 30 minutes before meals to effectively manage blood glucose levels during digestion.
- What type of insulin is often used for basal control?
A) Regular
B) NPH
C) Lispro
D) Glargine
D) Glargine
Rationale: Glargine insulin is a long-acting insulin that provides basal glucose control over 24 hours.
- A patient on Glipizide presents with symptoms of hypoglycemia. What is a common intervention?
A) Administer insulin
B) Give glucose or sugary snacks
C) Increase oral intake of carbohydrates
D) Provide protein snacks
B) Give glucose or sugary snacks
Rationale: Immediate treatment for hypoglycemia includes administering glucose or sugary snacks to quickly raise blood sugar levels.
- What is the primary indication for using NPH insulin?
A) To treat Type 1 diabetes
B) For postprandial control
C) For overnight coverage
D) To manage acute hyperglycemia
C) For overnight coverage
Rationale: NPH insulin provides coverage for insulin needs during the night and for longer durations during the day.
- Which medication is most likely to cause hypoglycemia as a side effect?
A) Metformin
B) Glipizide
C) NPH
D) Both B and C
D) Both B and C
Rationale: Both Glipizide (a sulfonylurea) and NPH insulin can lead to hypoglycemia due to their actions in lowering blood sugar levels.
- What lab value should be monitored regularly in patients taking Metformin?
A) Serum potassium
B) Liver function tests
C) Renal function tests
D) Blood glucose levels
C) Renal function tests
Rationale: Metformin is contraindicated in patients with impaired renal function, so monitoring kidney function is essential.
- Which insulin type has the fastest onset of action?
A) NPH
B) Regular
C) Lispro
D) Glargine
C) Lispro
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with a quick onset, effective for controlling post-meal blood glucose spikes.
- What should be done if a patient misses a dose of Glipizide?
A) Double the next dose
B) Take it as soon as remembered unless close to the next dose
C) Skip it and resume normal schedule
D) Take an extra dose later
B) Take it as soon as remembered unless close to the next dose
Rationale: If the missed dose is close to the next scheduled dose, skip it; otherwise, take it to maintain glucose control.
- What is the primary reason for administering insulin in a sliding scale?
A) To prevent weight gain
B) To control variable blood glucose levels
C) To increase insulin production
D) To reduce side effects
B) To control variable blood glucose levels
Rationale: Sliding scale insulin allows for flexible dosing based on current blood glucose readings to manage fluctuations.
- A patient asks about the difference between Regular insulin and NPH insulin. What is the key difference?
A) Regular is long-acting; NPH is short-acting
B) NPH is a basal insulin; Regular is a bolus insulin
C) Regular can only be given IV; NPH cannot
D) NPH has a faster onset
B) NPH is a basal insulin; Regular is a bolus insulin
Rationale: Regular insulin is used for mealtime coverage (bolus), while NPH is used for basal control throughout the day and night.
- When should a nurse monitor a patient’s blood glucose after administering Regular insulin?
A) 1 hour after administration
B) 30 minutes before the next meal
C) Immediately
D) 2 hours after administration
A) 1 hour after administration
Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels approximately 1 hour after administering Regular insulin helps assess its effect on glucose levels.
- What condition can result from using correctional insulin without regular monitoring?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Hypoglycemia
C) Ketoacidosis
D) Diabetic neuropathy
B) Hypoglycemia
Rationale: Failing to monitor blood glucose levels can lead to unintentional hypoglycemia due to excessive correctional insulin administration.
- Which of the following best describes the action of sulfonylureas like Glipizide?
A) Increases glucose excretion in urine
B) Stimulates insulin release from the pancreas
C) Reduces insulin sensitivity
D) Inhibits glucose absorption
B) Stimulates insulin release from the pancreas
Rationale: Sulfonylureas work by stimulating the pancreas to release more insulin, helping to lower blood glucose levels.
- What are common symptoms of hypoglycemia?
A) Confusion and sweating
B) Increased thirst
C) Fatigue
D) Weight gain
A) Confusion and sweating
Rationale: Symptoms of hypoglycemia often include confusion, sweating, shakiness, and irritability.
- What is the first step in managing hypoglycemia?
A) Administer glucagon
B) Provide IV glucose
C) Administer quick-acting carbohydrates
D) Call a code
C) Administer quick-acting carbohydrates
Rationale: The immediate treatment for hypoglycemia involves administering quick-acting carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels.
- If a patient does not improve after 15 minutes of treatment for hypoglycemia, what should the nurse do next?
A) Administer glucagon
B) Repeat quick-acting carbs
C) Monitor for symptoms
D) Notify the healthcare provider
B) Repeat quick-acting carbs
Rationale: If there is no improvement after 15 minutes, repeat the administration of quick-acting carbohydrates.
- Which of the following is an example of quick-acting carbohydrates?
A) Crackers
B) 4-6 oz of regular soda
C) Peanut butter
D) Whole grain bread
B) 4-6 oz of regular soda
Rationale: Regular soda (not diet) provides quick sugar to rapidly increase blood glucose levels.
- After administering quick-acting carbohydrates, when should the nurse reassess the patient?
A) Immediately
B) After 5 minutes
C) After 15 minutes
D) After 30 minutes
C) After 15 minutes
Rationale: The patient should be reassessed after 15 minutes to evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment.
- What should be provided after the initial treatment if the patient is stable?
A) More quick-acting carbs
B) Longer-acting carbohydrates with protein
C) Insulin
D) Water
B) Longer-acting carbohydrates with protein
Rationale: After stabilization, it is important to provide longer-acting carbohydrates combined with protein to maintain blood glucose levels.
- In severe cases of hypoglycemia, what should the nurse administer?
A) Oral glucose gel
B) 25-50 mL of 50% glucose IV
C) Juice
D) Bread
B) 25-50 mL of 50% glucose IV
Rationale: In severe hypoglycemia, administering 50% glucose IV or glucagon is necessary for rapid correction.
- What is the recommended dosage for glucagon administration in severe hypoglycemia?
A) 0.5 mg
B) 1 mg
C) 2 mg
D) 5 mg
B) 1 mg
Rationale: The standard dose of glucagon for treating severe hypoglycemia is 1 mg, given subcutaneously or intramuscularly.
- Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hypoglycemia?
A) Shakiness
B) Sweating
C) Blurred vision
D) Excessive thirst
D) Excessive thirst
Rationale: Excessive thirst is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia rather than hypoglycemia.
- What should a nurse do if a patient becomes unconscious due to hypoglycemia?
A) Administer oral glucose
B) Administer glucagon
C) Offer food
D) Reassess in 15 minutes
B) Administer glucagon
Rationale: If a patient is unconscious, glucagon should be administered because oral glucose cannot be given safely.
- If a patient is able to swallow and has hypoglycemia, what is the preferred treatment?
A) IV glucose
B) Oral carbohydrates
C) Insulin injection
D) Glucagon
B) Oral carbohydrates
Rationale: If the patient can swallow, administering oral carbohydrates is the safest and most effective way to treat hypoglycemia.
- Which of the following would be an appropriate longer-acting carbohydrate to provide after treating hypoglycemia?
A) Candy
B) Juice
C) Crackers with peanut butter
D) Soda
C) Crackers with peanut butter
Rationale: Crackers with peanut butter provide longer-lasting carbohydrates along with protein to stabilize blood glucose levels.
- What is the potential risk of administering glucagon?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Allergic reaction
C) Nausea and vomiting
D) Insulin resistance
C) Nausea and vomiting
Rationale: One potential side effect of glucagon is nausea and vomiting, especially as blood glucose levels begin to rise.
- How often should blood glucose be monitored in a patient with hypoglycemia?
A) Every hour
B) Every 15 minutes until stable
C) Only once
D) Every 30 minutes
B) Every 15 minutes until stable
Rationale: Blood glucose levels should be monitored every 15 minutes until they stabilize after hypoglycemic treatment.
- If a patient is treated for hypoglycemia but still exhibits symptoms after 15 minutes, what is the best action?
A) Wait another 15 minutes
B) Call a code
C) Administer more quick-acting carbohydrates
D) Increase insulin dose
C) Administer more quick-acting carbohydrates
Rationale: If symptoms persist, more quick-acting carbohydrates should be given while continuing to monitor the patient.
- What should the nurse educate the patient to carry for emergency hypoglycemia treatment?
A) Insulin
B) Snacks
C) Glucagon kit
D) Water
C) Glucagon kit
Rationale: Patients at risk for severe hypoglycemia should carry a glucagon kit to use in emergencies when they are unable to self-treat.
- Which of the following is an important nursing consideration when treating hypoglycemia?
A) Administering food regardless of the patient’s condition
B) Monitoring for hyperglycemia
C) Checking the patient’s ability to swallow
D) Only focusing on symptoms
C) Checking the patient’s ability to swallow
Rationale: Assessing the patient’s ability to swallow is crucial before administering oral carbohydrates to prevent choking.
- After treatment for hypoglycemia, how can the nurse help the patient prevent future episodes?
A) Educate about insulin use
B) Advise skipping meals
C) Encourage increased physical activity
D) Provide dietary education on carbohydrate intake
D) Provide dietary education on carbohydrate intake
Rationale: Educating patients about carbohydrate intake and meal planning can help prevent future hypoglycemic episodes.