NMJ / Muscle Phys Flashcards

1
Q

Another name for the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)

A

end plate

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2
Q

one motor unit innervating one group of muscle fibers

A

motor unit

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3
Q

What is the neuromuscular junction?

A

an axon making single contact with a muscle fiber

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4
Q

another name for the bulge of the synaptic terminal

A

bouton

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5
Q

neurotransmitter used by the presynaptic nerve in the NMJ

A

acetylcholine (ACh)

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6
Q

Postsynaptic structure at the NMJ which is responsible for increasing surface area

A

postjunctional folds

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7
Q

Where is there a meshwork of proteins and proteoglycans in the NMJ?

A

synaptic cleft

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8
Q

Region of presynaptic membrane where synaptic vesciles fuse and relase ACh

A

active zones

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9
Q

location of a high density of AChRs in the NMJ

A

crest of postjunctional folds

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10
Q

How can the current generated by an action potential in muscle contraction be measured?

A

Electromyography (EMG)

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11
Q

ACh molecules needed to open an AChR

A

two

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12
Q

Entrance of sodium ions causing current at the postsynaptic muscle of the NMJ

A

End-plate current (EPC)

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13
Q

Change in potential in the postsynaptic muscle fiber

A

End-Plate Potential (EPP)

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14
Q

Caused by a spontaneous release of trace amounts of ACh. Changes in muscle membrane potential even when the presynaptic motor neuron is not stimulated

A

Miniature End Plate Potentials (MEPPs)

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15
Q

Defined as the difference between an actual EPP and threshold potential required to generate muscle action potential

A

safety factor

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16
Q

(True/False) There will be no action potential in the event of repetitive stimulation of the (muscle) nerve, which reduces EPPs

A

False.

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17
Q

Structure of an AChR

A

five subunits arranged around a central pore

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18
Q

Differences between adult and embryonic AChR

A

Adult receptors have a shorter single channel mean open time and greater single channel current

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19
Q

Describe the communication between motor neurons and target muscles before the formation of the NMJ

A

Motor neurons can release ACh before making contact; likewise the muscle membrane can respond to ACh

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20
Q

What happens to EPPs after a motor neuron makes contact with its muscle target?

A

amplitude of EPPs increases

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21
Q

Describe the changes in AChRs before and after muscle innervation

A

Before innervation, AChRs pre-aggregate at the center of the developing muscle fiber. Afterwards, they become concentrated at the region of interaction

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22
Q

Existing, premature receptors are clustered by the protein _____ which is released from the nerve. It binds to a receptor on the muscle which activates muscle-specific kinase (MuSK)

A

agrin

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23
Q

The activation of MuSK induces clustering of AChRs by which protein?

A

rapsyn

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24
Q

Kinase required for initiating NMJ formation and for assembling other proteins found at the junction

A

Muscle-specific Kinase (MuSK)

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25
Q

Binds to agrin and MuSK and is required for NMJ formation

A

low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4 (LRP4)

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26
Q

Regulates interaction of MuSK with LRP4

A

agrin

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27
Q

muscle protein required to activate MuSK and thus aggregate AChRs

A

Dok-7

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28
Q

Changes in the receptor after muscle innervation (3)

A

1) receptor half-life increases
2) embyonic type receptors disappear
3) adult type receptors appear

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29
Q

True/False: early NMJs follow the one nerve, one muscle fiber rule

A

false. muscle fibers innervated by multiple motor neurons

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30
Q

ACh release at the NMJ is blocked by…

A

botulinum toxin

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31
Q

AChRs at the NMJ are activated by…

A

nicotine

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32
Q

AChRs at the NMJ are inhibited by… (2)

A

d-tubocurarine (curare) and alpha-bungarotoxin (found in snake venom)

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33
Q

AChE at the NMJ is inhibited by… (2)

A

physostigmine and neostigmine

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34
Q

Muscle Na+ channels are blocked by…

A

tetrodotoxin

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35
Q

These peptides produced by fish-hunting marine cone snails block neuronal Ca2+ channels, muscle Na+ channels, and AChRs

A

conotoxins

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36
Q

Most patients have antibodies against AChRs, some to MuSK. Reduced AChR levels and degeneration of post-junctional folds.

A

myasthenia gravis

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37
Q

Effects of myasthenia gravis

A

Both EPPs and MEPPs smaller. EPP may be so small it cannot elicit postsynaptic action potential (esp after repeated stimulation)

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38
Q

Treatment for myasthenia gravis (3)

A

1) Transmission can be partially restored by administration of AChE inhibitors
2) drugs to reduce immune response
3) removal of AChR antibodies

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39
Q

Clinical features of myasthenia gravis (5)

A

1) weakness and fatigue of voluntary muscles
2) symptoms worse or appear on exertion
3) ocular muscle weakness usually is the initial presentation
4) most cases, weakness progresses to involve other muscles
5) symptoms may fluctuate and there may be remissions

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40
Q

Syndrome in which you make antibodies against presynaptic voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

A

Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

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41
Q

Characteristics of Lambert-Eaton Syndrome (4)

A

1) reduction in neurotransmitter release (related to calcium)
2) affects primarily limb muscles
3) symptoms include skeletal muscle weakness
4) exercise improves weakness

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42
Q

Cause of botulism

A

botulinum toxin from Clostridium botulinum

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43
Q

Affects the autonomic nervous system as well as the NMJ. Inhibits synaptic vesicle release and NMJ symptoms include weakness and paralysis of limbs.

A

botulism

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44
Q

How does one die from botulism?

A

respiratory muscle paralysis

45
Q

What can botulinum toxin be used to treat (3)

A

1) muscle contractures and spasms
2) strabismus (cross-eyes)
3) headaches

46
Q

Effects of aging on the NMJ (4)

A

1) becomes unstable over time
2) synaptic area decreases (AChRs fragments and number of post-synaptic folds decreases)
3) eventually lose motor nerves
4) reinnervation less likely to occur

47
Q

Single cell myoblasts fuse to form a multinucleated _____

A

myotube

48
Q

Transcription factors necessary for cells to become myogenic (4)

A

1) MyoD
2) myogenin
3) myf-5
4) MRF-4 (aka herculin or myf-6)

49
Q

Nuclear phosphoprotein containing a bHLH (basic helix-loop-helix) region. Found as a dimer.

A

MyoD

50
Q

Basic region of MyoD is required for binding….

A

DNA

51
Q

HLH region of MyoD is required for what

A

dimerization with other proteins. (MyoD binds to DNA 10x better as a heterodimer than homodimer)

52
Q

DNA binding sequence in muscle genes

A

E-box

53
Q

Early and late roles of myogenic proteins

A

Early - MyoD and myf-5 determination factors

Late - myogenin and MRF4 differentiation factors

54
Q

Myostatin is a member of what family of signaling protein

A

TGFβ family of signaling proteins

55
Q

Result of myostatin mutation

A

increased muscle mass

56
Q

How is myostatin a negative regulator of muscle growth?

A

It inhibits myoblast proliferation and progression of myoblasts from G1 to S

57
Q

This protein binds to the E box in the myostatin promoter, activating myostatin transcription

A

MyoD

58
Q

Recruited to supply myoblasts for repair and regeneration. Located on the surface of muscle fiber, beneath basal lamina

A

satellite cells

59
Q

Components of myosin

A

1) 2 heavy chains (each has globular head and filamentous tail)
2) 2 light chains (two pairs, essential and regulatory)
3) cross bridges (composed of head region, project laterally from thick filament serving as a link between thick and thin myofilaments)

60
Q

Biochemical properties of myosin, both located on the globular head (2)

A

1) Acts as an ATPase, which releases the chemical energy for contraction
2) binds to actin

61
Q

Lies in the groove between the two strands of actin. Has a regulatory function and provides structural rigidity to actin.

A

tropomyosin

62
Q

Subunits of troponin

A

Troponin T, C, and I

63
Q

Function of Troponin T

A

Serves to bind troponin to tropomyosin

64
Q

Function of Troponin C

A

contains two high and two low affinity sites for Ca2+

65
Q

Function of Troponin I

A

Inhibits interaction between actin and myosin

66
Q

Easy way to remember the Troponinins

A

T - tropomyosin
C - Calcium
I - inhibits interaction

67
Q

Acts as a spring to keep myosin filaments centered in the sarcomere and maintain resting tension that allows muscle to snap back if overextended. Extends from M line to Z disc

A

Titin

68
Q

Regulates assembly and alignment of actin filaments.

A

Nebulin

69
Q

Name of the muscle plasma membrane

A

sarcolemma

70
Q

The wave of depolarization from an action potential in the sarcolemma travels through what system

A

T-tubular system

71
Q

Name of specialized voltage-gated calcium channels in T-tubules

A

Dihydropyridine (DHP) – long lasting Ca2+ currents

72
Q

What part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum does calcium get released from during contraction?

A

terminal cisternae

73
Q

Ca2+ channel in charge of release from sarcoplasmic reticulum during contraction

A

ryanodine receptor 1 (RyR1)

74
Q

Channel responsible for Ca2+ reuptake into sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Sarcoendoplasmic Reticulum Calcium ATPase (SERCA)

75
Q

Myosin has a very high affinity for acting and will form very tight bonds in absence of ____ and ____

A

tropomyosin and ATP

76
Q

What causes actin-myosin complexes to dissociate by binding to myosin

A

ATP

77
Q

During contraction (Ca2+ enters sarcoplasm), tropomyosin moves and exposes active sites on ____

A

actin

78
Q

What attaches to the actin active sites?

A

myosin crossbridges

79
Q

Channel responsible for large resting chloride conductance of skeletal muscle. Stabilizes resting membrane potential to prevent false action potential.

A

CIC-1 (chloride channel)

80
Q

Single action potential causes release of enough Ca2+ to fully initiate a contraction but Ca2+ ions are removed from sarcoplasm quick enough that no time to develop force

A

twitch contraction

81
Q

The absolute refractor period of motor nerves much shorter than a twitch contraction. Second stimulus can be applied before relaxation.

A

summation contraction

82
Q

When rate of stimulation of motor nerve increases to point where little or no relaxation is evident, maximum plateau of tension

A

tetanus contraction

83
Q

Glycoprotein that binds Ca2+ ions and which acts to reduce sarcoplasmic reticulum of free Ca2+

A

calsequestrin

84
Q

Enzyme catalyzing: ADP + creatine phosphate -> ATP + creatine

A

creatine phosphokinase

85
Q

First source used to generate ATP in muscle

A

creatine phosphate

86
Q

Muscle changes length, keeping a constant tension

A

isotonic contraction

87
Q

muscle decreases in length against opposing load, such as lifting weight up

A

concentric contraction (isotonic subtype)

88
Q

muscle increases in length as it resists load, such as pushing something down

A

eccentric contraction (isotonic subtype)

89
Q

muscle does not shortern and tension builds up

A

isometric contraction

90
Q

Length of muscle where maximum force generated

A

optimal length (L0)

91
Q

Caused by resistance of muscle’s elasticity to stretch, not caused by actin-myosin crossbridges. Generated by stretching the muscle to different lengths. Also called preload

A

passive tension

92
Q

Generated when muscle is stimulated to contract at different preloads. Sum of tension generated by crossbrdige formation and passive tension.

A

total tension

93
Q

Generated by contractile process. Calculated by subtracting passive tension from total tension

A

active tension

94
Q

Slow myosin ATPase and loaded with mitochondria. Depend on cellular respiration for ATP production. Rich in myoglobin and resistance to fatigue.

A

Type 1 Fibers (“slow-twitch)

95
Q

Muscle fibers activated by small, thus slow-conducting, motor neurons. Used for activities involving repeated low-level contraction

A

Type 1 Fibers (“slow-twitch)

96
Q

Muscle fibers with fast myosin ATPase

A

Type II Fibers (“fast twitch”) (divided into two)

97
Q

Loaded with mitochondria and depend on cellular respiration for ATP production but also use glycolysis. Rich in myoglobin, moderately fatigue-resistant, and activated by large motor neurons. Used for activities involving speed, strength, and power.

A

Type IIa Fibers

98
Q

Few mitochondria, rich in glycogen, and depend on glycolysis for ATP production. Low in myoglobin and fatigue easily. Activated by large motor neurons and used for activities requiring short, fast bursts of power.

A

Type IIb Fibers

99
Q

Type of muscle fibers primarily lost during aging

A

Type II fibers

100
Q

Decrease in muscle mass and strength associated with aging

A

sarcopenia

101
Q

Progressive skeletal muscle weakness, defects in muscle proteins, and death of muscle cells and tissue.

A

muscular dystrophy

102
Q

Duchenne and Becker’s Muscular Dystrophy involve mutations in what gene/rptein

A

dystrophin. Defect leads to instability of the sarcolemma and thus damage during contraction

103
Q

Muscle weakness but also muscle cramps, stiffness, and spasms.

A

Myopathies

104
Q

Causes of myopathies (3)

A

1) congenital
2) genetic abnormalities in mitochondria
3) mutations in genes controlling enzymes that metabolize glycogen and glucose

105
Q

Loss of weight, muscle atrophy, fatigue, weakness and loss of appetite. Can be seen in patients with chronic diseases such as cancer, AIDS, diabetes, multiple sclerosis, and congestive heart failure.

A

Cachexia

106
Q

Inflammation of the muscles, resulting in muscle weakness and pain, particularly in those muscles closest to trunk. Caused by injury, infection, or autoimmune disease.

A

myositis

107
Q

Breakdown of muscle fibers resulting in the release of muscle fiber contents, particularly myoglobin, into circulation. Some toxic to kidney and frequently result in kidney damage.

A

Rhabdomyolysis

108
Q

Common causes of rhabdomyolysis (5)

A

1) crush injury
2) overexertion
3) alcohol abuse
4) certain drugs (statins)
5) toxic substances

109
Q

Defect in the RYR1 channel causes it to open more easily and close more slowly. Activated by certain anesthetics and muscle relaxers given during surgery. Leads to uncontrolled release of Ca2+ and muscles contract abnormally, leading to rigidity and heat production

A

malignant hyperthermia