Neuromuscular Blockade Week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

The nervous system is divided into ______

A

the central and peripheral nervous system

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2
Q

The peripheral nervous system is divided into _____

A

the somatic and autonomic nervous system

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3
Q

The autonomic nervous systems is divided into ____

A

the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system

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4
Q

Somatic nerves include _____

A

sensory and motor neurons

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5
Q

Sensory neurons from skeletal muscle carry ____

A

action potentials to the spinal cord via the dorsal (back) horn

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6
Q

Motor neurons to skeletal muscle originate in ____

A

the ventral (front) horn of the spinal cord

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7
Q

Acetylcholine (ACh) is __

A

the stimulating neurotransmitter for all cholinergic receptors

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8
Q

What are two major subtypes of cholinergic receptors?

A

muscarinic and nicotinic

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9
Q

Where are muscarinic receptors found?

A

peripherally in tissues innervated by parasympathetic postganglionic neurons such as heart, smooth muscle and exocrine glands
Exception: sweat gland

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10
Q

Where are nicotinic receptors found?

A

Locations:

  1. peripherally in the motor end-plate of skeletal muscle
  2. Cell bodies of post ganglionic (sympathetic and parasympathetic) autonomic nerves
  3. Central nervous system
  4. Adrenal medulla
  5. Neuromuscular junction
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11
Q

ACh is released from _______

A

Preganglionic autonomic fibers

Postganglionic parasympathetic nerve fibers

Motor neurons

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12
Q

Describe the Steps of the Release of Acetylcholine from the Nerve Terminal

A
  1. The motor nerve action potential arrives at and depolarizes a nerve terminal.
  2. Depolarization causes voltage-gated calcium channels to open.
  3. Calcium (Ca++) diffuses down a concentration gradient into the nerve terminal.
  4. Inside the nerve terminal, Ca++ causes vesicles to fuse with the nerve cell membrane and open to the exterior.
  5. ACh spills out into the synaptic cleft (exocytosis).
  6. The presynaptic nicotinic receptor responds to ACh by increasing the synthesis and release of Ach. This is a positive feedback system that prevents depletion of ACh at the neuromuscular junction
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13
Q

Describe the Steps: Events at the Postsynaptic Membrane

A
  1. ACh combines with nicotinic receptors of the protein channel.
  2. When both alpha subunits of the nicotinic receptor channel are occupied by ACh, the channel snaps open, and sodium and calcium diffuse into the cell and potassium ions diffuse out to the extracellular space.
  3. The diffusion of these three types of ions through the channel causes the motor end-plate to depolarize.
  4. At a critical level of depolarization (threshold), an action potential is initiated.
  5. The action potential sweeps across the skeletal muscle cell and triggers contraction.
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14
Q

Describe the steps: Termination of Neurotransmitter Action

A
  1. Acetylcholinesterase (AChE), also known as “true” cholinesterase, breaks down acetylcholine to choline and acetate.
  2. As ACh is metabolized, the motor end-plate repolarizes and the muscle cell becomes ready for another squirt of ACh from the nerve terminal.
  3. The choline is transported back into the nerve terminal where it is used to re-synthesize ACh
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15
Q

What is the Clinical use of
Neuromuscular Blocking Agents?

A

Facilitate tracheal intubation

Reduce risk of vocal cord damage, difficult intubations, manage difficult airways

Improve surgical working condition

Mechanical ventilation

Immobility for surgery or ICU

Remember: no hypnosis or analgesia

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16
Q

What are the characteristics of the ideal neuromuscular blocking agent?

A

Nondepolarizing Rapid onset

Rapid reliable recovery or reversal No histamine release

Does not accumulate in long cases

Not MH trigger Dose-dependent duration

No hemodynamic side-effects No placental transfer

Elimination independent of organ function

No active or toxic metabolites Cost effective

User friendly packaging and preparation

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17
Q

Peripheral Class of Relaxants

A

Acts at NMJ on nicotinic ACh receptors

Depolarizing (mimics acetylcholine)

Nondepolarizing (interferes with the action of acetylcholine)

•Short, intermediate and long acting

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18
Q

Central Class of Relaxants

A

Direct acting muscle relaxants, inhalation agents

Toxins that act at CNS (organophosphates, CNS and peripheral)

ACh central stimulants (Alzheimer’s drug, donepezil) inactivate acetylcholinesterase and increase acetylcholine circulation

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19
Q

Structure and Solubility of all NMBA?

A

All NMBA are quaternary ammonium in structure

Water soluble in the body

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20
Q

Do NMBA agents cross the blood brain barrier?

A

Do not cross the blood brain barrier – no CNS effects

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21
Q

Intubating dose

A

NMBA Dose needed to relax a patient who is not relaxed in other ways for intubation

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22
Q

Rapid Sequence Intubation dose

A

usually 1.5x intubating dose to achieve intubating conditions in 60 sec

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23
Q

Relaxing dose

A

Dose given when succinylcholine used for intubation for surgical relaxation

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24
Q

Supplemental dose

A

Small dose (about 1/5 intubating dose) given to continue muscle relaxation during case, as indicated

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25
Q

Onset of Neuromuscular Block

A
  1. Diaphragm
  2. Orbicularis oculi
  3. Adductor pollicis

**Order is the same for recovery (diaphargm “wakes” up first)

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26
Q

Succinylcholine is composed of _____

A

two acetylcholine molecules linked together; thus, succinylcholine mimics the action of acetylcholine.

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27
Q

Succinylcholine, after it is administered intravenously, ____

A

diffuses into tissues from the blood.

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28
Q

Those succinylcholine molecules that reach the motor nerve terminal of skeletal muscle _____.

A

combine with nicotinic receptors and cause the channels of the motor end-plate to open; the motor end-plate depolarizes, and a single contraction occurs.

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29
Q

acetylcholinesterase does not metabolize succinylcholine…. describe this further..

A

the succinylcholine remains attached to the receptors, and the channels stay open until the succinylcholine diffuses back into the circulation; depolarization is maintained for several minutes.

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30
Q

Action potentials cannot be initiated in the skeletal muscle cell until the cell ______.

(MOA of succinylcholine)

A

repolarizes (the sodium gates are in the inactivated state). Thus, so long as the motor end-plate does not repolarize, additional action potentials and hence contractions cannot be initiated. There is skeletal muscle paralysis. This is a depolarizing block.

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31
Q

Succinylcholine is metabolized by _____.

A

an enzyme in the plasma called plasma cholinesterase.

The metabolism of succinylcholine in the plasma is rapid. As the circulating succinylcholine is metabolized, a gradient develops for succinylcholine to diffuse from the skeletal muscle motor end-plate back into the plasma, and the effect of the succinylcholine is terminated.

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32
Q

Plasma cholinesterase is known by what two other names?

A

pseudocholinesterase and butyrocholinesterase.

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33
Q

Class, Absorption & Clinical Use of Succinylcholine

A

Class: Depolarizing muscle blocking agent

Absorption: IV, IM

Clinical use: Rapid sequence induction, laryngospasm, ECT

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34
Q

Dosing of Succinylcholine

A

Induction dosing: 1 – 1.5 mg/kg

IM induction: 4 mg/kg

Laryngospasm: 20 - 40 mg

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35
Q

Onset, DOA, and Redistribution of Succinylcholine

A

Onset: 30 – 60 seconds

DOA: 5 – 15 minutes

Redistribution: Diffusion away from the neuromuscular junction into the ECF

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36
Q

Metabolism and Excretion of Succinylcholine

A

Metabolism: Plasma cholinesterases. Plasma choliesterases are made by the liver.

Metabolism is prolonged in patients with plasma cholinesterase deficiency.

Excretion: Eliminated by the kidneys

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37
Q

Succinylcholine can cause: ___

A

Bradycardia due to direct stimulation of muscarinic receptors of the SA node

Hyperkalemia risk: plasma K+ concentration may increase by 0.5 mEq/liter in normal patients and 5–10 mEq/liter in burn, trauma, or head-injury patients

Increased Pressures (ICP, IOP, gastric)

Muscular: Fasciculations/post op muscle pain (myalgias)

Rhabdomyolysis leading to hyperkalemia and cardiac arrest

Masseter spasm early sign of MH, MH trigger (malignant hyperthermia)

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38
Q

Why is succinylcholine riskier in pts with history of head trauma, skeletal muscle disease, TBI, burns, or spinal cord injury?

A

Each of those conditions is associated with proliferation of “extrajunctional postsynaptic cholinergic nicotinic receptors”.

When nerve action potentials to skeletal muscle are interrupted, post- synaptic nicotinic receptors up-regulate and spread from the neuromuscular junction to the entire muscle fiber. As you know, potassium exits the cells when the nicotinic receptor is stimulated and the channel opens. The major concern, therefore, is hyperkalemia which may occur in these patients upon administration of succinylcholine.

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39
Q

How can we premedicate to prevent increased ICP with succinylcholine use?

A

defasciculating dose of non depolarizer

40
Q

How could you prevent increased gastric pressure when administering succinylcholine?

A

defasciculating dose of non depolarizer

41
Q

How long would increased IOP last with succinylcholine administration? What condition should we avoid giving it alltogether?

A

6 minutes

Do not give to pt with an open globe injury

42
Q

Which types of patients are at highest risk for developing rhabdomyolosis after receiving succinylcholine?

A

have undiagnosed skeletal muscle myopathy, most frequently Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

43
Q

It is recommended that the use of succinylcholine in children 8 and younger should be ______.

A

reserved for emergency intubation or instances where immediate securing of the airway is necessary (e.g., laryngospasm, difficult airway, full stomach) or for intramuscular use when a suitable vein is inaccessible.

44
Q

Potential contraindications for use of Succinylcholine

A

Hyperkalemia Severe muscle trauma

Burn patients with injuries of over 35% total body surface area (TBSA), third-degree burn

Neurologic injury (e.g., paraplegia, quadriplegia)

Severe sepsis (e.g., abdominal) Malignant hyperthermia

Muscle wasting, prolonged immobilization, extensive muscle denervation

Duchenne muscular dystrophy Select muscle disorders

Should be used in children under 8 years old only in emergency situations; not for routine intubation

Genetic variants of pseudocholinesterase Allergy

45
Q

The diagnosis of malignant hyperthermia is made with the unexplained signs of ______.

A

pyrexia (fever), or tachycardia, or cyanosis, or rigidity, or failure of the masseter muscle to relax (trismus).

46
Q

What lab values are found in malignant hyperthermia?

A

acidosis

hyperkalemic

hypercalcemic

hypercapnia

hypoxia

47
Q

Describe the patho of malignant hyperthermia

A

The defect in malignant hyperthermia is in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle. The sarcoplasmic reticulum fails to sequester calcium, so sustained contractions with increased metabolism result.

48
Q

What is used to treat malignant hyperthermia(MH)?

A

Dantrolene is used to treat malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene acts on the sarcoplasmic reticulum to decrease the release of calcium to contractile proteins.

49
Q

Signs and Symptoms of Malignant Hyperthermia

A

One of the earliest and most sensitive signs of malignant hyperthermia is an unexplained doubling or tripling in end-expiratory CO2

Increased PaCO2 (possibly > 100 mmHg) and decreased pH (possibly to less than 7.0).

Sympathetic hyperactivity manifested by increased heart rate is also an early sign of increased metabolism

Trismus (masseter muscle spasm) appears in 50% of patients who develop the disorder.

Whole body rigidity appears 75% of the time.

50
Q

Which drugs or conditions increase succinylcholine’s DOA?

A

Antibiotics (neomycin, streptomycin, dihydrostreptomycin, kanamycin, gentamicin, polymyxin A, polymyxin B, colistin, lincomycin)

amide local anesthetics anticholinesterase agents

hyperkalemia, hypermagnesemia

lithium

calcium channel blockers

inherited pseudocholinesterase defect (atypical pseudocholinesterase)

51
Q

Dibucaine test

A

(Tests if you have a pseudocholinesterase abnormality)

Local anesthetic that inhibits normal pseudocholinesterase by ~ 80%, but abnormal pseudocholinesterase types will be less inhibited

normal = 80%

heterozygous = 50-60%

homozygous = 20%

l% inhibited = Dibucaine #

52
Q

What are the two classes of nondepolarizing NMBAs?

A

Steroidal: Rocuronium bromide, Vecuronium bromide, Pancuronium bromide

Benzylisoquinoliniums: Atracurium besylate, Mivacurium chloride, Cisatracurium Besylate

53
Q

Quick facts about nondepolarizing agents?

A

ACh antagonist/blocker

Quarternary ammonium compounds

Steroids or benzoisoquinolines

Do not depolarize membrane

Reversible

Do not trigger MH

54
Q

Mechanism of Action of Nondepolarizing NMBAs

A
  1. After intravenous administration, a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker (NDNB) circulates to all tissues, including skeletal muscle.
  2. Diffuses from the vascular compartment into the synaptic cleft of the neuromuscular junction.
  3. Combines with the nicotinic receptors of the channels of the motor end-plate.
  4. No direct effect on the channel.
  5. Competitively blocks acetylcholine from attaching to its receptors so the channel cannot open.
  6. The channel stays closed, and the postsynaptic membrane remains polarized. Thus, a nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockade is established.
55
Q

Class, Absorption & Use of Rocuronium

A

Class: Steroidal nondepolarizing muscle blocking agent

Absorption: IV

Clinical use: Standard and rapid sequence induction, maintenance of neuromuscular blockade

56
Q

Dosing, Onset and Duration of Rocuronium

A

Dosing

Induction dosing: 0.6 – 1.2 mg/kg

RSI dose: 1.2 mg/kg

Distribution

Onset: 1 – 3 minutes

DOA: 30 – 60 minutes

57
Q

Metabolism and Excretion of Rocuronium

A

Metabolism: Hepatic and renal

Excretion: Eliminated by the liver (20%) and kidneys (80%)

58
Q

What can you give to reverse rocuronium?

A

sugammadex

*remember that sugammadex can only be used to reverse steroidal NDBA

59
Q

Class, Absorption & Use of Vecuronium

A

Class: Steroidal nondepolarizing muscle blocking agent

Absorption: IV

Clinical use: Standard induction and maintenance of neuromuscular blockade

60
Q

Dosing, Onset and Duration of Vecuronium

A

Dosing: Induction dosing: 0.1 mg/kg

Distribution

Onset: 2 – 4 minutes

DOA: 30 – 60 minutes

61
Q

Metabolism and Excretion of Vecuronium

A

Metabolism

Hepatic and renal

Excretion

Eliminated by the liver (50%) and kidneys (50%)

62
Q

What is unique about Vecuronium?

A

Stored in a powder and must be reconstituted before adminstration

63
Q

Reversal of Vecurononium?

A

Sugammadex

64
Q

Class, Absorption & Use of Cisatracurium

A

Class: Benzylisoquinolinium nondepolarizing muscle blocking agent

Absorption: IV

Clinical use: Standard induction and maintenance of neuromuscular blockade

65
Q

Dosing, Onset and Duration of Cisatracurium

A

Dosing: Induction dosing: 0.1 mg/kg

Onset: 2 – 4 minutes

DOA: 30 – 60 minutes

66
Q

Metabolism and Excretion of Cisatracurium

A

Metabolism: Hofmann elimination (75%) and nonspecific esterase hydrolysis (25%)

Laudanosine metabolite, which is a CNS stimulant

•20% less laudanosine is produced when compared to atracurium

Excretion

lEliminated by the kidneys

67
Q

What is Hofmann elimination?

A

a temperature- and pH-dependent break- down of the drug molecule.

68
Q

Class, Absorption & Use of Atracurium

A

Class: Benzylisoquinolones nondepolarizing muscle blocking agent

Absorption: IV

Clinical use: Standard induction and maintenance of neuromuscular blockade

69
Q

Dosing, Onset and Duration of Atracurium

A

Dosing: Induction dosing: 0.5 mg/kg

Onset: 2 – 4 minutes

DOA: 30 – 60 minutes

70
Q

Metabolism and Excretion of Atracurium

A

Metabolism

Hofmann elimination and nonspecific esterase hydrolysis

Laudanosine metabolite, which is a CNS stimulant

Excretion

Eliminated by the kidneys

71
Q

Atracurium & Mivacurium can ___.

A

release histamine and cause hypotension, tachycardia, and flushing

72
Q

Pancuronium is _____.

A

vagolytic and causes slight catecholamine release (indirect sympathomimetic), producing tachycardia.

73
Q

rocuronium, vecuronium, and pancuronium have what in common regarding elimination?

A

all depend on both renal and hepatic elimination

(in varying degrees)

74
Q

What two drugs are the most common in intraoperative allergic reactions?

A

Neuromuscular blocking agents and antibiotics

75
Q

How is an allergy to NMBA determined?

A

The initial diagnosis is presumptive, whereas the etiological assessment is linked to the clinical presentation, tryptase levels, and skin test results

76
Q

Anaphylaxis to NMBAs present with ___.

A

significant hypovolemia and vasoplegia

77
Q

How is anaphylaxis to NMBAs managed?

A

Aggressive fluid therapy and epinephrine

78
Q

Which patient exhibits a prolonged duration of action to all muscle relaxants?

A

Hypothermic patients

10-15% ↓ for every degree below 36 ▪ Most with cis and atrac due to Hofmann (colder = slower)

79
Q

Which drugs can prolong the effect of Nondepolarizing NMBAs?

A

Volatiles (desflurane the most often)

Magnesium

Lithium

IV local anesthetic ▪ If on drip, check dosing!

80
Q

Which conditions/drugs can shorten the effect of Nondepolarizing NMBAs?

A

Long term anti-epileptics – resistant to NMB

Steroids antagonize NMB

81
Q

Describe the pathway of a NMBA through the body

A

Inject into intravascular system: High Plasma Concentration of ionized drug

Tissue concentration increases

Effect is seen, drug bound to receptor

Elimination starts and plasma concentration decreases

Drug leaves tissues and enters plasma

Diminished effect

Eliminated or metabolized

82
Q

How do we assess for NMBA reversal? (3 main categories)

A

Peripheral Nerve Stimulator: Qualitative Train of Four (TOF) inexact science

Single twitch (appropriate for depolarizing block)

Train of four Double burst Sustained tetanus

Respiratory mechanics: Vital Capacity 15-20 cc/kg & Inspiratory force -40 cm H2O

Physical Performance: Hand grip, Opens eyes, Sustained head lift (5-10 seconds), Strong cough

83
Q

Describe how a single twitch assesses NMBA blockade

A

a single pulse that is delivered at 70 - 80 mA for 0.1msec. Increasing block results in decreased evoked response to stimulation.

Train of four (TOF) denotes a frequency of 2 Hz (four (4) successive stimuli every 0.5 seconds).

The twitches in the TOF pattern progressively fade as relaxation occurs. It is more convenient to visually observe the sequential disappearance of the twitches. Used with NDMR, you also see fade.

*disappearance of the 4th twitch = 75% blockade

*disappearance of the 3rd twitch = 80% blockade

*disappearance of the 2nd twitch = 90% blockade

84
Q

Clinical relaxation requires what percentage of blockade via TOF?

A

75-95% neuromuscular blockade

85
Q

Qualitative vs. Quantitative TOF

A

Qualitative TOF: Visual and tactile response of electrical stimulus assessed by clinician

Quantitative: Stimulator coupled with displacement transducer to measure movement, a value number is displayed

86
Q

Characteristics of a Phase I Block

A

Fasciculations appear prior to paralysis.

Block is enhanced (augmented) by cholinesterase inhibitors (edrophonium, neostigmine, pyridostigmine).

Amplitude of single twitch contractions decreases in proportion to the severity of the block.

Fade does not occur during tetanic stimulation or train-of-four stimulation, although the amplitudes of the tetanic contraction and train-of-four beats are reduced.

The train-of-four ratio (amplitude of fourth beat to amplitude of first beat) is greater than 70% (T4/T1 >70% = T4/T1 >0.7).

Post-tetanic facilitation (post-tetanic potentiation) is absent.

Block is antagonized by nondepolarizing muscle relaxants.

87
Q

Transition from Phase I to Phase II Block

A

In phase I block, the motor end-plate is depolarized; succinylcholine has activated the nicotinic receptors of the motor end-plate and the ion channels have opened and remained open.

Treatment with higher doses of succinylcholine and/or prolonged exposure of the motor end-plate to succinylcholine leads to the development of phase II, or desensitization, block.

Phase II (desensitization) block is a very complex phenomenon; ion channels of the motor end-plate close for reasons that are unknown, and the motor end-plate repolarizes.

Phase II block has the characteristics of a nondepolarizing block; use of a peripheral nerve stimulator during phase II block will show fade and post-tetanic facilitation.

88
Q

Characteristics of a Phase II Block

A

Muscle fasciculations do not appear prior to paralysis.

Block is antagonized by agents that inhibit true acetylcholinesterase (edrophonium, neostigmine, pyridostigmine).

Amplitude of single twitch contractions decreases with increasing intensity of block.

Fade occurs during train-of-four stimulation and also during tetanic stimulation.

Post-tetanic facilitation (potentiation) is present.

The train-of-four ratio (amplitude of fourth beat to amplitude of first beat) is less than 70%.

(T4/T1 < 70%).

89
Q

Best area to measure onset of blockade (intubating conditions) = ____

A

Muscle = orbicularis oculi (close eyelid) or corrugator supercilia (eyebrow twitch)

Nerve = Facial

90
Q

Best place to measure recovery of blockade (return of airway muscle function) = _____.

A

Muscle = adductor pollicis (thumb adduction) or flexor hallucis (big toe flexion)

Nerve = ulnar nerve or posterior tibial nerve

91
Q

General Assessment of NMBA reversal

A

Evidence of return of NM function

Patient temperature

Extent of surgery

Fluids

What NM blockers were used, last dose,

Acid –base –electrolyte derangements

Renal/hepatic function

Other drugs

92
Q

Questions to ask yourself when selecting a drug

A

Patient information/comorbidities

What is needed to accomplish airway management?

Is difficult ventilation or intubation anticipated?

Does the patient have a full stomach?

What is needed to complete the surgery?

Can the patient breath spontaneously?

How brief may the surgery be?

Cost effectiveness?

93
Q

Why is the adductor pollicis the gold standard to monitor NMB?

A

it is the only hand muscle solely innervated by the ulnar nerve so it is less likely that you would be getting false twitches from direct muscle stimulation rather than nerve stimulation

“There is more than meets the eye; a hand is needed.”

94
Q

What are we looking for in terms of vital capacity to assess recovery of NMBA?

A

VC greater than or equal to 20mL/kg

This would mean that a maximum of 70% of receptors are occupied when this clinical enpoint is acheived

95
Q

Acceptable clinical endpoint for tidal volume when assessing recovery of NMBA?

A

greater than or equal to 5mL/kg

This would mean that a maximum of 80% of receptors are occupied when this clinical enpoint is acheived

96
Q

What would be an acceptable clinical enpoint for the TOF to assess readiness to extubate?

A

no fade

This would mean that a maximum of 70% of receptors are occupied when this clinical enpoint is acheived

97
Q

What would be an acceptable clinical endpoint for insiratory force when assessing readiness to extubate?

A

Inspiratory force better than -40cm H20

This would mean that a maximum of 50% of receptors are occupied when this clinical enpoint is acheived