Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PCE > Neurology W3 > Flashcards

Neurology W3 Flashcards

vestibular, peripheral nerves, mental disorders

1
Q

What are the causes of dizziness?

A

Cardiovascular, neurological, visual, psychogenic, cervicogenic, medications, vestibular

These causes can overlap and may require careful assessment to determine the underlying issue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the function of the vestibular system?

A

Gaze stabilization, postural stabilization, spatial awareness

The vestibular system plays a critical role in balance and orientation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the components of the vestibular system?

A

Semicircular canals, otolith organs, cranial nerves

Each component has specific functions related to balance and spatial orientation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the primary function of the semicircular canals?

A

Stimulate vestibulo-ocular reflex (VOR), detect rotational movements

The semicircular canals are essential for maintaining gaze stability during head movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many semicircular canals are there and what do they detect?

A

Three canals: Horizontal (rotation around a vertical axis), Anterior (sagittal plane rotation), Posterior (frontal plane)

Each canal is oriented to detect specific types of head movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the otolith organs responsible for?

A

*Detect acceleration and deceleration in linear planes
*sense static head position.

The otolith organs help in understanding head position relative to gravity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of the saccule within the otolith organs?

A

Detects vertical plane motion and tilting of the head forwards/backwards

Saccule plays a key role in detecting changes in vertical movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are cranial nerves?

A

12 pairs of nerves emerging from the brain and brainstem

Cranial nerves are essential for various sensory and motor functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the pneumonic to remember the cranial nerves’ order?

A

Only one of the two athletes felt very good victorious and healthy

This pneumonic helps to recall the names of cranial nerves in sequence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the pneumonic ‘Some Say Money Matters, But My Brother Says Big Boobs Matter More’ represent?

A

Sensory, Motor, Both classification of cranial nerves

Each word’s first letter indicates the function of the corresponding cranial nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of the Olfactory nerve (CN I)?

A

Smell

Damage can cause anosmia, the inability to detect smells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the function of the Optic nerve (CN II)?

A

Vision (acuity & field of vision)

Damage can lead to various types of vision loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is assessed with the Oculomotor nerve (CN III)?

A

Extraocular eye movements, pupil size & reactivity, convergence

Issues can lead to diplopia and ptosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the primary function of the Trochlear nerve (CN IV)?

A

Superior oblique - eye movement (down and inward)

Dysfunction may cause difficulty looking downwards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the three branches of the Trigeminal nerve (CN V)?

A

V1 (ophthalmic), V2 (maxillary), V3 (mandibular)

This nerve is responsible for sensation and motor functions in the face.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the main function of the Abducens nerve (CN VI)?

A

eye movements - lateral (lateral rectus)

Damage can result in inability to abduct the eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What functions does the Facial nerve (CN VII) serve?

A

Facial expression, taste (anterior 2/3 of tongue), eyelid and lip closure

Damage can lead to drooping of the face and difficulty with expression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the function of the Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)?

A

Hearing, equilibrium, gaze stability

Dysfunction can lead to balance problems and vertigo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the primary role of the Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)?

A

Gag reflex, swallowing, phonation, taste (posterior 1/3 of tongue)

Damage can impair swallowing and taste.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the functions of the Vagus nerve (CN X)?

A

Gag reflex (motor), swallowing (motor), speech, parasympathetic control

It affects multiple organ systems including heart and digestive tract.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of the Spinal Accessory nerve (CN XI)?

A

Shoulder movement and head rotation (upper trapezius and SCM)

Damage can cause inability to shrug the shoulder or turn the head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the role of the Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)?

A

Muscles of the tongue

Damage can result in dysarthria and deviation of the tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the Vestibular ocular reflex (VOR)?

A

Maintains stable vision during head movement by producing eye movements in the direction opposite to head movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens to VOR with unilateral and bilateral vestibular loss?

A

It becomes deficient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the three spinal tracts involved in autonomic postural control?

A
  • Lateral vestibulospinal
  • Medial vestibulospinal
  • Reticulospinal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the function of the lateral vestibulospinal tract?

A

Maintain posture in limbs and trunk via extensors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the function of the medial vestibulospinal tract?

A

Coordinates head and neck movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does the reticulospinal tract modulate?

A

Muscle tone and aids in posture and locomotion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Define vertigo.

A

The subjective experience of nystagmus (room spinning around you).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What condition is associated with vertigo?

A

Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is dizziness?

A

A sensation of being off balance, unsteady, with a discrepancy between right and left side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is oscillopsia?

A

Blurred vision due to objects in vision jumping/oscillating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is nystagmus?

A

Involuntary, rapid, and repeated movement of the eyes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)?

A

Displacement of otoconia crystals from otolith organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where are otoconia crystals most often displaced into during BPPV?

A

Posterior semicircular canal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What brings on symptoms of BPPV?

A
  • Brief transient vertigo
  • Looking up/down
  • Rolling to that side in bed
  • Sitting to supine
  • Bending forward to pick something up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the Dix-Hallpike maneuver used for?

A

To test for BPPV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the positive test result for the Dix-Hallpike maneuver?

A

Presence of transient nystagmus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are contraindications to the Dix-Hallpike maneuver?

A
  • Arthritis (RA)
  • Vertebral artery insufficiency
  • 5D’s (dizziness, diplopia, dysphagia, dysarthria, drop attacks)
  • Cervical spine instability
  • VBI (vestibular insufficiency)
  • Arnold-Chiari malformation
  • Acute whiplash
  • Prolapsed IV disc with radiculopathy
  • Cervical myelopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the treatment for BPPV in the posterior canal?

A

Epley maneuver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the causes of Unilateral vestibular loss?

A
  • Infection (vestibular neuritis, labyrinthitis)
  • Disease (Meniere’s)
  • Trauma
  • BPPV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What characterizes Meniere’s disease?

A
  • Episodes of vertigo
  • Progressive unilateral nerve deafness
  • Low frequency hearing loss
  • Tinnitus
  • Sense of pressure in the ears
    #footnote disease of the inner ear due to overaccumulation of endolymph
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is Acoustic Neuroma?

A

Benign growth forming on the cells of CN VIII.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the acute signs and symptoms of Unilateral vestibular loss?

A
  • Spontaneous nystagmus away from the affected ear
  • Reduced VOR
  • Vertigo
  • Dizziness
  • Oscillopsia
  • Imbalance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the HINTS exam used for?

A

To differentiate between peripheral and central vestibular disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the components of the HINTS exam?

A
  • Head impulse test
  • Nystagmus observation
  • Test of skew
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does a positive head impulse test indicate?

A

peripheral cause of vestibular disorder; negative = potentially central.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does vertical or bidirectional nystagmus indicate?

A

Central disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does a positive test of skew indicate?

A

98% specific for central disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the causes of Bilateral vestibular loss?

A
  • Toxicity
  • Bilateral vestibular infections
  • Vestibular neuropathy
  • Otosclerosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the presentation of Bilateral vestibular loss?

A

Very poor balance with no sensation of dizziness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are central vestibular disorders caused by?

A
  • TIA
  • Stroke
  • Head injury
  • Brain tumor
  • MS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are red flags for central vestibular disorders?

A
  • Direction changing nystagmus
  • Inconsistency in test results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the treatment for central vestibular disorders based on?

A

Neuroplasticity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is Cervicogenic Dizziness (CGD)?

A

Clinical syndrome of dizziness + neck pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the diagnosis for Cervicogenic Dizziness?

A

Diagnosis of exclusion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of Cervicogenic Dizziness?

A
  • Neck pain
  • Dizziness associated with cervical spine position/movement
  • Reduced cervical ROM
  • Sometimes headache
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the difference between non-vertiginous dizziness and vertigo?

A

Non-vertiginous dizziness is floating, unsteady, lightheaded; vertigo is the world moving around you or you feel like you are moving.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is Acoustic Neuroma also known as?

A

Vestibular Schwannoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the common age range for Acoustic Neuroma?

A

Common later in life, 50-60 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the treatment duration for sensorimotor mismatch exercises?

A

8-12 weeks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a Peripheral Neuropathy?

A

Injury to peripheral nerve that may be due to injury or illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the most common cause of Peripheral Neuropathy?

A

Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

List the types of Peripheral Neuropathies.

A
  • Mononeuropathy
  • Mononeuritis
  • Polyneuropathy
  • Autonomic neuropathy
  • Neuritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is Bell’s Palsy?

A

Peripheral nerve injury to the Facial Nerve (CN VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the functions of CN VII?

A
  • Muscles of facial expression
  • Dampens vibrational sound (Stapedius muscle of inner ear)
  • Taste (ant aspect of tongue)
  • Tears & salivation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the causes of Bell’s Palsy?

A
  • Unknown
  • Idiopathic
  • Tumor
  • Traumatic (e.g., Dental work)
  • Viral infection (e.g., Latent herpes virus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Bell’s Palsy?

A
  • Unilateral facial paralysis
  • Unable to smile, scrunch forehead, raise eyebrows, puff cheeks
  • Drooping of corner of mouth
  • Drooling
  • Drooping of corner of eye
  • “Crocodile tears”
  • Eyelid won’t close
  • Dry eyes
  • No taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the treatments for Bell’s Palsy?

A
  • Corticosteroids
  • Facial muscle exercises
  • Muscle stimulation (poor evidence)
  • Pain management: Heat
  • Protect eye with eye drops
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Compare UMNL and LMNL causing facial paralysis.

A
  • LMNL ➔ entire ipsilateral face droops
  • UMNL ➔ contralateral face droops but forehead is spared
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is Diabetic Neuropathy?

A

Peripheral nerve disorder in diabetes that occurs without any other cause for neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What causes Diabetic Neuropathy?

A
  • Chronic metabolic disturbance affects nerve and Schwann cells
  • Hyperglycemia leads to abnormal micro-circulation
  • Loss of both myelinated and unmyelinated axons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the presenting signs of Diabetic Neuropathy?

A
  • Symmetrical distal pattern
  • Sensory nerve damage
  • Broad sensory deficits
  • Neuropathic pain (20% of those with diabetic neuropathy)
  • Autonomic nerve damage
  • Motor nerve damage (rarer)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the treatment for Diabetic Neuropathy?

A
  • Control hyperglycemia
  • Education on skin care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is Complex Regional Pain Syndrome (CRPS)?

A

Chronic pain condition believed to be the result of dysfunction in central or peripheral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are typical features of CRPS?

A
  • Changes in the color and temp of the skin
  • Intense burning pain
  • Skin sensitivity
  • Sweating
  • Swelling
  • Stiffness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the stages of CRPS?

A
  • Stage 1 (0-3 mo): Puffy swelling, redness, warmth, stiffness, allodynia
  • Stage 2 (3-6 mo): Increased pain and stiffness, firm edema, cyanosis, atrophy
  • Stage 3 (6 mo plus): Tight, smooth, glossy, cool, pale skin, stiffness and contractures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are the types of Peripheral Nerve Injuries?

A
  • Neurapraxia
  • Axonotmesis
  • Neurotmesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is Neurapraxia?

A

Transient disruption with good prognosis as swelling resolves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is Axonotmesis?

A

Disruption of axon with myelin sheath still intact; may cause paralysis of nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is Neurotmesis?

A

Completely severed axon and sheath; will cause paralysis of nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is Wallerian Degeneration?

A

Process that occurs when a nerve fiber is injured but myelin sheath is still intact - axon and myelin sheath are disintegrated in a distal to proximal fashion below the level of the injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

describe how a peripheral nerve regenerates.

A

Distal end of the nerve fiber proximal to the lesion sends out sprouts attracted by growth factors produced by cells in the distal myelin sheath

84
Q

What is Segmental Demyelination?

A

Focal degeneration of the myelin sheath with sparing of the axon

85
Q

What is Cerebral Palsy?

A

Non progressive lesion of the brain that occurs before the age of 2

86
Q

What are the causes of Cerebral Palsy?

A
  • Prenatal conditions
  • Perinatal conditions
  • Postnatal conditions that result in anoxia, hemorrhage or brain damage
87
Q

What is Periventricular Leukomalacia?

A

Most common ischemic brain injury in premature babies characterized by damage to the white matter near the lateral ventricles - often occurs due to lack of blood flow

88
Q

List the risk factors for Cerebral Palsy.

A
  • Older mom
  • Low birth weight/small for gestational age
  • Invitro fertilization (IVF)
  • Abnormal placenta attachment
  • Blood type incompatibility
  • Prematurity
  • Low Apgar score
  • Decreased brain O2 supply
  • Anoxia
89
Q

What are the types of Cerebral Palsy?

A
  • Spastic
  • Ataxic
  • Athetoid
  • Dystonic
  • Hypotonic
90
Q

What is Spastic Cerebral Palsy?

A

Spasticity present with velocity dependent resistance to muscle stretch

91
Q

What is Ataxic Cerebral Palsy?

A

Caused by cerebellar damage, leading to coordination problems

92
Q

What is Athetoid Cerebral Palsy?

A

Caused by damage to basal ganglia, characterized by uncontrolled writhing movements of extremities and oral muscles.
fluctuating muscle tone both hyper and hypotonia

93
Q

What is Dystonic Cerebral Palsy?

A

Caused by damage to basal ganglia, leading to long sustained involuntary movements and postures

94
Q

What are common medical management strategies for Cerebral Palsy?

A
  • Baclofen pump
  • Dorsal rhizotomy
  • Botox
  • Serial casting
  • Tendon release
  • Osteotomy
95
Q

What is Down Syndrome?

A

Genetic disorder caused by the presence of part or all of a third copy of chromosome 21

96
Q

What are signs of cervical instability in Down Syndrome?

A
  • Neck pain
  • Cervical ROM changes
  • Neurological manifestations
97
Q

What is Spina Bifida?

A

Neural tube defect resulting in vertebral and/or spinal cord malformation

98
Q

What are the risks factors for development of Spina Bifida?

A
  • Decreased maternal folic acid
  • Infection
  • Exposure to teratogens (alcohol)
99
Q

What are the types of Spina Bifida?

A
  • Spina Bifida Occulta
  • Spina Bifida Cystica
  • Meningocele
  • Myelomeningocele
100
Q

What is Hydrocephalus?

A

Abnormal accumulation of CSF within the brain

101
Q

What are early warning signs of Hydrocephalus?

A
  • Irritability
  • Changes in sleep patterns
  • Changes in appetite and weight
102
Q

What are common functional outcomes for T12 level Spina Bifida myelomeningocele?

A

Mostly wheelchair-bound

103
Q

What is Erb’s Palsy?

A

Injury to C5-C6 (Upper trunk of brachial plexus) causing loss of elbow flexors and wrist extensors

104
Q

What is the typical position seen in Erb’s Palsy?

A

Arm adducted, internally rotated, elbow extended, and forearm pronated

105
Q

What is the treatment for Erb’s Palsy?

A
  • Immobilization initially
  • Gentle ROM
  • Play exercises
  • Prevent contractures
106
Q

How is C4 tested in the upper extremity nerve routes?

A

Resisted shoulder shrugs/elevation

107
Q

What is the C5 myotome?

A

Resisted shoulder abduction

108
Q

How is C6 tested in the upper extremity nerve routes?

A

Resisted elbow flexion or wrist extension

109
Q

How is C7 tested in the upper extremity nerve routes?

A

Resisted elbow extension or wrist flexion

110
Q

How is C8 tested in the upper extremity nerve routes?

A

Resisted thumb extension or finger flexion

111
Q

How is T1 tested in the upper extremity nerve routes?

A

Fingers abduction or adduction

112
Q

How is L1-L2 tested in the lower extremity nerve routes?

A

Resisted hip flexion

113
Q

How is L3 tested in the lower extremity nerve routes?

A

Resisted knee extension

114
Q

How is L4 tested in the lower extremity nerve routes?

A

Resisted foot dorsiflexion

115
Q

How is L5 tested in the lower extremity nerve routes?

A

Resisted great toe extension

116
Q

How is S1 tested in the lower extremity nerve routes?

A

Resisted plantar flexion or hip extension

117
Q

How is S2 tested in the lower extremity nerve routes?

A

Resisted knee flexion

118
Q

What region does C4 dermatome cover?

A

Over the AC Joint

119
Q

What region does C5 dermatome cover?

A

On lateral side of antecubital fossa just proximal to the elbow joint

120
Q

What region does C6 dermatome cover?

A

On dorsal surface of the thumb

121
Q

What region does C7 dermatome cover?

A

On the dorsal surface of the proximal middle phalanx

122
Q

What region does C8 dermatome cover?

A

On the dorsal surface of the proximal little phalanx

123
Q

What region does T2 dermatome cover?

A

At the apex of the axilla

124
Q

What region does T4 dermatome cover?

A

At the mid clavicular line at the level of the nipples

125
Q

What region does T10 dermatome cover?

A

Located at level of the umbilicus

126
Q

What region does L1 dermatome cover?

A

Inguinal line

127
Q

What region does L2 dermatome cover?

A

Medial upper thigh

128
Q

What region does L3 dermatome cover?

A

Medial knee

129
Q

What region does L4 dermatome cover?

A

Medial malleolus

130
Q

What region does L5 dermatome cover?

A

Dorsum of the foot at the third MTP joint

131
Q

What region does S1 dermatome cover?

A

Lateral calcaneus

132
Q

What region does S2 dermatome cover?

A

Posterior knee

133
Q

What region does S3 dermatome cover?

A

Over the ischial tuberosity

134
Q

What region do S4-S5 dermatomes cover?

A

Perineum (skin tissue between the genitals)

135
Q

What is the purpose of neurodynamic testing?

A

To examine the neurological structures for adaptive shortening and inflammation of the neural structures

136
Q

What finding is inspected with neurodynamic testing?

A

The neuromeningeal system, with tension potentially affecting ROM in the trunk and extremities

137
Q

What are mechanisms of injury related to neural mobility?

A
  • Adverse posture
  • Direct Trauma
  • Extremes of motions
  • Electrical injury
  • Compression/ischemia
138
Q

What is the straight leg raise used for?

A

To stress the sciatic nerve and exert caudal traction on the nerve roots of L4-S2

139
Q

What occurs between 30-70 degrees of straight leg raise?

A

The spinal nerve and their dural sleeves are stretched

140
Q

What is the crossed straight leg raise?

A

SLR that causes pain in the contralateral leg but not when the contralateral leg is tested, indicative of a large disc protrusion

141
Q

What does the slump test detect?

A

Adverse nerve root tension

142
Q

What does the prone knee bend stretch?

A

The femoral nerve using hip extension and knee flexion

143
Q

What does the upper limb tension test assess?

A

Brachial plexus tension through an ordered sequence of movements

144
Q

What is the sequence for testing the median nerve?

A
  • Shoulder girdle depression
  • Humeral abduction to 110 degrees
  • Forearm supination
  • Elbow, wrist, and finger extension
145
Q

What is the sequence for testing the radial nerve (ULTT)?

A
  • Shoulder girdle depression
  • Humeral abduction and internal rotation
  • Forearm pronation
  • Elbow extension
  • Wrist and finger/thumb flexion
146
Q

What is the sequence for testing the ulnar nerve (ULTT)?

A
  • Shoulder girdle depression
  • Humeral abduction
  • Forearm pronation
  • Elbow flexion
  • Wrist extension
147
Q

What does the cervical plexus serve?

A

The head, neck, and shoulders

148
Q

What does the brachial plexus serve?

A

The chest, shoulders, arms, and hands

149
Q

What does the lumbar plexus serve?

A

The back, abdomen, groin, thighs, knees, and calves

150
Q

What does the sacral plexus serve?

A

The pelvis, buttocks, genitals, thighs, calves, and feet

151
Q

What muscles are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve?

A
  • Peroneus Brevis
  • Peroneus Longus
152
Q

What is the sensory area of the superficial peroneal nerve?

A

Anterolateral lower leg and dorsum of foot and big toe (except web space innervated by deep peroneal branch)

153
Q

What movements are weakened by superficial peroneal nerve injury?

A

Eversion (may have mild eversion due to Peroneus Tertius innervation) and plantar flexion (minimally weakened)

154
Q

What muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve?

A
  • Tibialis Anterior
  • EHL
  • EDL
  • Peroneus Tertius
155
Q

What is the sensory area of the deep peroneal nerve?

A

Web space between big toe

156
Q

What movements are affected by deep peroneal nerve injury?

A

Dorsiflexion, toe extension, and inversion (still have Tib Post to help with this movement)

157
Q

What is Klumke’s Palsy?

A

Injury to C8, T1 (Lower trunk of brachial plexus) causing weakness of wrist & finger (4 & 5) flexors and intrinsic muscles of hand

claw hand

158
Q

What causes carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Compression induced ischemia and segmental demyelination of median nerve in the palmar aspect of the wrist

159
Q

What structures does the carpal tunnel contain?

A
  • Flexor pollicis longus
  • FDS
  • FDP
  • median nerve
160
Q

What are common causes of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Anterior dislocation of lunate
  • Tenosynovitis of the flexor tendons
  • Direct trauma
  • Obesity
  • Pregnancy
  • Fracture
  • Occupational demands
  • Overuse
161
Q

What are signs and symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • Sensory changes in median nerve distribution (excluding palm)
  • Night time numbness
  • Thenar atrophy
  • Weakness of opponens pollicis muscle
  • Paresthesia of palmar surface of thumb, index, and middle fingers
  • Pain distally
162
Q

What does the Wright Test or Allen’s Maneuver assess?

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome by palpating radial pulse while abducting arm

163
Q

What is the Military Brace Test for?

A

To assess thoracic outlet syndrome by palpating radial pulse while drawing the shoulder down and back

164
Q

What is double crush syndrome?

A

Nerve irritability that develops symptoms at other areas along its course as well as at the primary site

165
Q

What is the treatment for thoracic outlet syndrome?

A
  • Regain normal muscle length
  • Improve endurance in postural muscles
  • Patient education on posture
166
Q

What is schizophrenia?

A

Psychotic disorder with fragmented thoughts, bizarre ideas, and withdrawal.

167
Q

What are common signs and symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

Experience hallucinations, delusions, grandiose thought, altered sense of self, negative symptoms like depression, low energy, low motivation, reclusiveness, and paranoia.

168
Q

True or False: Schizophrenia is the same as multiple personality disorder.

169
Q

What is paranoia?

A

Psychotic disorder characterized by delusions of persecution and suspicion.

170
Q

What are anxiety disorders?

A

Includes panic disorders/attacks, PTSD, phobias, and OCD.

171
Q

What is psychopathy?

A

Antisocial personality disorder characterized by behavior patterns lacking moral and ethical standards.

172
Q

What characterizes clinical depression?

A

Feelings of sadness or helplessness, low drive for activity or achievement, withdrawal, fatigue, and weight loss.

173
Q

What are the symptoms of bipolar disorder?

A

Extreme mood changes, cycles between mania and depression.

174
Q

Define mania in the context of bipolar disorder.

A

Periods of great excitement, euphoria, delusions, and overactivity.

175
Q

Define depression in the context of bipolar disorder.

A

Fatigue, withdrawal, feelings of worthlessness, often excessive sleep.

176
Q

What is dementia?

A

General term for loss of memory and other mental abilities severe enough to interfere with daily life.

177
Q

What is Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Most common type of dementia, accounting for 60-80% of cases.

178
Q

What are early symptoms of Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Difficulty remembering recent conversations, names, or events; apathy and depression.

179
Q

What are hallmark abnormalities in Alzheimer’s Disease?

A

Deposits of beta-amyloid (plaques) and twisted strands of tau (tangles).

180
Q

What is Dementia with Lewy Bodies (DLB)?

A

Dementia characterized by memory loss, thinking problems, sleep disturbances, visual hallucinations, and parkinsonian features.

181
Q

What causes Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome?

A

Severe deficiency of thiamine (vitamin B-1), often due to alcohol misuse.

182
Q

What is the main symptom of Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome?

A

Severe memory problems with relatively unaffected thinking and social skills.

183
Q

What are the goals of neurorehabilitation?

A

Maintain participation, activity, body structure and function; prevent complications; encourage neuroplasticity; adapt to impairments.

184
Q

What does neuroplasticity require?

A

Task-specific practice and intervention paired with behavior.

185
Q

What is receptive aphasia?

A

Able to verbalize but cannot comprehend verbal commands.

186
Q

What is expressive aphasia?

A

Able to understand instructions but cannot verbalize.

187
Q

Define anosognosia.

A

Lack of awareness or denial of a neurologic defect or illness.

188
Q

What is astereognosis?

A

Inability to identify held objects in the absence of language or sensory loss.

189
Q

Define hypertonia.

A

Increased muscle readiness perceived as excessively stiff and taut.

190
Q

What is hypotonia?

A

Diminished resting muscle tone and decreased ability to generate voluntary muscle force.

191
Q

What is spasticity?

A

Velocity-dependent increase in stretch reflexes with exaggerated tendon jerks.

192
Q

Define rigidity.

A

Increased resistance to passive movement that does not vary with speed.

193
Q

What is dystonia?

A

Hyperkinetic movement disorder with involuntary muscle contractions causing abnormal postures.

194
Q

What is athetosis?

A

Hyperkinetic disorder characterized by slow, writhing movements of the distal extremities.

195
Q

Define chorea.

A

Hyperkinetic movement disorder with involuntary, random, quick jerking movements.

196
Q

What is ataxia?

A

Failure of muscular coordination resulting from cerebellar lesions.

197
Q

What does dysdiadochokinesia refer to?

A

Impaired ability to perform rapid, alternating movements.

198
Q

What is dysmetria?

A

Overshooting or undershooting the intended goal.

199
Q

What does proprioception test?

A

Patient’s ability to determine direct position sense.

200
Q

What is graphesthesia?

A

Ability to recognize written symbols on the skin.

201
Q

Define hyperpathia.

A

Everything feels sharp.

202
Q

What is neuropathy?

A

Disease of nerves characterized by deteriorating neural function.

203
Q

What is diaschisis?

A

Sudden loss of function in a portion of the brain connected to a damaged area.

204
Q

What does myelopathy refer to?

A

Pathology of the spinal cord, characterized by complete spinal cord compression

205
Q

What is fasciculation?

A

Twitching of muscle fibers in a single motor neuron unit.

PCE (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions