MSK W2 Flashcards

UE conditions

1
Q

what is the first step in the Canadian Cspine rules?

A
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2
Q

what is step 2 in the Canadian Cspine rules?

A
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3
Q

what is step 3 in the Canadian Cspine rules?

A
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4
Q

What is Whiplash Associated Disorder (WAD)?

A

Abrupt acceleration-deceleration injury to the cervical spine.

Commonly occurs in motor vehicle accidents or contact sports.

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5
Q

List the acute signs and symptoms of Whiplash Associated Disorder.

A
  • Decreased ROM
  • Pain
  • Increased tone in cervical spinal muscles
  • Headaches
  • Jaw pain
  • Neurological symptoms depending on grade
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6
Q

What factors can affect chronic symptoms of Whiplash Associated Disorder?

A
  • Psycho/Emotional Trauma
  • Pending monetary gain (litigation)
  • Pre-existing injury
  • Pre-injury level of fitness
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7
Q

If there is a disc herniation of C5/C6, what nerve root is anticipated to be affected and what are the expected findings?

A

C6 nerve root
*myotomal = elbow flexion, wrist ext weakness
*dermatomal = lateral elbow
*DTR = biceps brachii or brachioradialis

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8
Q

What is the definition for Cervicogenic Headaches?

A

Disorder of the cervical spine involving bony, disc, and/or soft tissue elements.

Often originates from the atlanto-occipital and upper cervical joints.

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9
Q

Identify the hallmark signs of Frozen Shoulder (Adhesive Capsulitis).

A
  • Pain – dull, diffuse
  • Muscle atrophy
  • Limited ROM (Abduction, ER, IR)
  • Loss of arm swing during gait
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10
Q

What are the three stages of Frozen Shoulder?

A
  • Freezing
  • Frozen
  • Thawing
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11
Q

What happens with an Anterior Disc Displacement in the TMJ?

A

The condyle is blocked by the disc and unable to roll and slide forward (lock jaw).

Can be chronic (reduce on its own) or acute.

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12
Q

What are common signs of Temporomandibular Myofascial Pain?

A
  • Tenderness of Masseter, Temporalis, Medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid, suboccipitals
  • Pain or tenderness of the jaw
  • Difficulty chewing
  • Locking of the joint
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13
Q

What is the main treatment approach for Shoulder Instability?

A
  • Stabilization exercises of scapula
  • Strengthening adductors and internal rotators
  • Postural education
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14
Q

What should be avoided in the treatment of Impingement Syndrome?

A

Immobilizing the arm in a sling, as it could lead to adhesive capsulitis.

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15
Q

What is a Colles Fracture?

A

Fracture to the distal radius, often associated with a FOOSH injury.

Characterized by a linear transverse fracture of the distal radius.

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16
Q

What are the risk factors for a Scaphoid Fracture?

A
  • FOOSH injury
  • Commonly occurs in young and elderly
  • More prevalent in females with osteoporosis
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17
Q

True or False: There are specific risk factors that make one more likely to experience a scaphoid fracture.

A

False

There are no specific risk factors or diseases associated with scaphoid fractures.

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18
Q

What is the typical treatment approach for a scaphoid fracture?

A
  • Initially casting or surgery
  • Use of wrist guard when returning to activities involving falling
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19
Q

What are the WAD red flags to look out fot?

A

Bilateral arm numbness and tingling in arms, signs of concussion.

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20
Q

What is the role of education in the treatment of Frozen Shoulder?

A

Reduce frustration and encourage patient compliance; teach home exercise program.

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21
Q

What grade is assigned for no complaint about the neck and no physical signs?

A

Grade 0

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22
Q

What grade is assigned for a neck complaint of stiffness, pain, or tenderness only with no physical signs?

A

Grade I

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23
Q

What grade involves a neck complaint with MSK signs such as decreased ROM and point tenderness, but no neurological signs?

A

Grade II

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24
Q

What grade includes a neck complaint with peripheral neurological signs but no fracture or dislocation?

A

Grade III

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25
Q

What grade indicates a neck complaint with confirmed fracture or dislocation via medical imaging?

A

Grade IV

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26
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of mastication?

A

Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)

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27
Q

What is the function of the masseter muscle?

A

Closes the jaw and clenches teeth

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28
Q

What is the role of the lateral pterygoid muscle?

A

Assists in depressing the mandible and chewing

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29
Q

What does the medial pterygoid muscle do?

A

Functions for elevation and protraction of the lower jaw

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30
Q

What does the three finger test assess in relation to TMJD?

A

Jaw should be able to open three finger widths

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31
Q

How many joints are in the shoulder complex?

A

Four joints

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32
Q

Name the four joints of the shoulder complex.

A
  • Glenohumeral joint
  • Acromioclavicular joint
  • Sternoclavicular joint
  • Scapulothoracic joint
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33
Q

What type of joint is the sternoclavicular joint?

A

Saddle joint

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34
Q

What is passive ROM?

A

Movement produced entirely by an external force with little to no muscle contraction

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35
Q

What are indications for passive ROM?

A
  • Active is contraindicated
  • Acute inflamed tissue
  • Patient unable to move
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36
Q

What is the goal of passive ROM exercises?

A

Maintain joint and connective tissue mobility

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37
Q

What is active ROM?

A

Movement produced by active contraction of the muscle crossing that joint

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38
Q

When is active ROM indicated?

A

When the patient can actively contract the muscle and move a segment

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39
Q

What are the goals of active ROM?

A

Same as passive ROM, with additional benefits of active muscle contraction

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40
Q

What is active-assistive ROM?

A

A type of ROM where assistance is provided manually or mechanically

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41
Q

What is the aim of scapular stabilization exercises?

A

Focus on middle and lower fibers of trapezius and serratus anterior

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42
Q

What does the serratus punch exercise involve?

A

Using a TheraBand to pull forwards causing scapular protraction

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43
Q

What is the role of the trapezius in scapular movement?

A

Agonist in retraction and elevation of the scapula

44
Q

What is a Bankart lesion?

A

Avulsion of the capsule and ligament complex from the anterior-inferior lip of the glenoid

45
Q

What is a Hill Sachs lesion?

A

Results from a force posteriorly leading to anterior dislocation

46
Q

What is the common symptom of a Pancoast tumor?

A

Severe pain in shoulder region radiating toward the axilla and scapula

47
Q

What are the characteristics of scapular winging?

A
  • Inferior dysfunction
  • Medial dysfunction
  • Superior dysfunction
48
Q

What causes scapular dyskinesia?

A

An alteration or deviation in the normal resting or active position of the scapula

49
Q

What are the components of elbow extension?

A
  • Distal movement of the radius on ulna
  • Abduction of ulna relative to humerus
  • Pronation of ulna relative to humerus
50
Q

What is bursitis?

A

Inflammation of the bursa, small sacs that lubricate surfaces and facilitate movement

51
Q

What are common causes of bursitis?

A
  • Overuse
  • Direct injury/trauma
  • Gout
  • Infection
52
Q

What is the primary treatment goal for tennis elbow in the acute phase?

A

Control pain/inflammation

53
Q

What should be avoided during the treatment of tennis elbow?

A

Gripping and wrist extension

54
Q

What does the term ‘fracture’ refer to?

A

A structural break in the continuity of a bone or joint surface

55
Q

What is a common complication of fractures?

A

Local or systemic complications related to the injury or treatment

56
Q

What should an exercise program for a patient with an olecranon fracture include?

A

Gentle ROM exercises and avoid stress on the fracture site

57
Q

List the carpal bones from proximal to distal, lateral to medial.

A
  • Scaphoid
  • Lunate
  • Triquetrum
  • Pisiform
  • Trapezium
  • Trapezoid
  • Capitate
  • Hamate
58
Q

what would be a positive thomas test for TFL?

A

when the hip is abducted, pt is able to acheive full hip ext.

59
Q

What 3 muscles does the modified thomas test assess?

A

TFL, rectus femoris and Iliopsoas

60
Q

what is the purpose of the modifed thomas test?

A

to investigate the cause of reduced hip extension (normal range is 15-20 deg)

61
Q

what is the sign of the buttock used to test for?

A

serious gluteal pathology ie. RONFISS

62
Q

How do you perform a sign of the buttoc test?

A

SLR in supine, at end range pt’s knee is flexed to see if more hip flexion can be obtained.

63
Q

what is the thompson test of the ankle?

A

Used to assess for achilles tear by squeezing the calf muscle.

64
Q

Describe Apley’s test for the knee.

A

pt is laying in prone; therapits fixes thigh with knee bent to 90deg and rotates the tibia internally and externally with either distraction or compression.
Pain with distraction = ligamentous
pain with compression = meniscal

65
Q

What is the set up of a Mcmurray test for the medial meniscus?

A

valgus stress + External (lateral) rotation - extend the knee

66
Q

What is the main cause of dislocations?

A

Usually result of instability

67
Q

What are the signs and symptoms (S/S) of dislocations?

A

Increased range of motion (ROM), soft end feel, +/- pain

68
Q

What test assesses scapular stability?

A

Wall push up

69
Q

What is the anterior apprehension test used for?

A

To assess anterior glenohumeral instability

70
Q

What is the relocation test?

A

Push glenohumeral head posteriorly

71
Q

What does the sulcus sign indicate?

A

Inferior glenohumeral instability

72
Q

What are the complications associated with dislocations?

A
  • Rotator cuff tears
  • Axillary nerve damage
73
Q

What does TUBS stand for in dislocation types?

A

Traumatic onset, Unidirectional anterior, Bankart lesion, Surgery

74
Q

What is the mechanism of injury (MOI) for TUBS?

75
Q

What is a Bankart lesion?

A

Avulsion fracture of anterior/inferior capsule & ligaments

76
Q

What are the signs of a Bankart lesion?

A
  • Clicking
  • Apprehension
  • Deep vague pain
77
Q

What is a SLAP lesion?

A

Superior labrum lesion anterior to posterior

78
Q

What is a common cause of pain in throwers?

A

SLAP lesion

79
Q

What is a Hill-Sachs lesion?

A

Compression fracture of posterior/lateral humeral head

80
Q

What is AMBRI?

A

Atraumatic, Multidirectional, Bilateral shoulder findings, Rehab appropriate, Inferior capsule shift

81
Q

What is the epiphysis?

A

End of long bone (where joint is)

82
Q

What is the diaphysis?

A

Shaft of long bone

83
Q

What are the types of fractures?

A
  • Spiral
  • Transverse/oblique
  • Compression/crush
  • Comminuted
  • Greenstick
  • Avulsion
  • Impact
84
Q

What is a Colles fracture?

A

Distal radius fracture with dorsal subluxation of distal segment

85
Q

What is the healing time for adults with fractures?

A

10-18 weeks

86
Q

What is avascular necrosis?

A

High rate in some areas, particularly proximal femur, 5th MT, scaphoid, proximal humerus

87
Q

What defines good posture?

A

State of muscular and skeletal balance protecting against injury or deformity

88
Q

What is the plumb line?

A

Line of gravity

89
Q

Where is the center of gravity located?

A

Slightly anterior to S2

90
Q

What is anticipatory postural control?

A

Pre-tuning sensory and motor systems based on previous experience

91
Q

What is postural pain syndrome?

A

Pain from mechanical stress due to prolonged faulty posture

92
Q

What is postural dysfunction?

A

Adaptive shortening of soft tissues and muscle weakness from prolonged poor postural habits

93
Q

What are the types of scoliosis?

A
  • Structural
  • Functional
94
Q

What is the normal range of scoliosis degrees?

A

5-7 degrees is considered normal

95
Q

What is the treatment for scoliosis of 15 degrees or less?

96
Q

What type of postural fault is exaggerated lumbar lordosis?

A

Anterior pelvic tilt with excessive hyperextension of lumbar spine

97
Q

What muscles are short in exaggerated lumbar lordosis?

A
  • Erector spinae
  • Hip flexors
98
Q

What is the neutral sitting position?

A

Equal weight bearing on ischial tuberosities with level ASIS’s and PSIS’s

99
Q

What are the important landmarks at T2?

A

Superior angle of scapula

100
Q

What dermatome corresponds to T4?

A

Nipple level

101
Q

What is Genu Recurvatum?

A

Knee hyperextension

102
Q

What are common postural muscle imbalances?

A
  • Forward head posture
  • Excessive cervical lordosis
  • Exaggerated thoracic kyphosis
103
Q

What is the effect of a posterior pelvic tilt?

A

Reduction of the natural lumbar curvature

104
Q

What is a common cause of Genu Valgus?

A

Knee joint alignment issues

105
Q

What is the effect of tight abdominals in posterior pelvic tilt?

A

Contributes to reduced lumbar curvature