MSK W3 Flashcards

gait, balance, joint mobilizations

1
Q

What type of joint permits motion in 1 plane, typically flexion/extension?

A

Hinge joint

Example: elbow joint

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2
Q

Which joint type is limited to rotation and is uniaxial?

A

Pivot joint

Example: AA joint, proximal radio-ulnar

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3
Q

What type of joint allows for slide or slide & rotation and is triaxial?

A

Planar joint

Example: intercarpal joints, AC joint, Z joints

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4
Q

What joint type allows motion in two planes, typically flexion/extension and abduction/adduction?

A

Condyloid joint

Example: knee, TMJ, atlanto-occipital

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5
Q

Fill in the blank: A joint type that allows flexion, extension, adduction, and abduction but no axial rotation is a _______.

A

Saddle joint

Example: carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, sternoclavicular

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6
Q

What joint type is triplanar and allows for flex/ext, abd/add, IR/ER?

A

Ball and Socket joint

Example: GH joint and hip joint

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7
Q

When should joint mobilization be considered?

A

Pain, muscle guarding, spasm, functional immobility, progressive limited, positional faults, reversible joint hypomobility

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8
Q

List conditions under which joint mobilization should NOT be performed.

A
  • Hypermobility
  • Joint effusion
  • Inflammation
  • Cancer
  • Acute arthritis
  • Fracture or osteoporosis
  • Dislocation
  • Bone disease
  • Empty/bony end feel
  • Anticoagulant/steroid use
  • Sign of buttock
  • Vertebral artery insufficiency
  • Craniovertebral ligament instability
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9
Q

What does the Concave-Convex Rule state?

A

Convex surface is stationary and concave surface moves in the opposite direction; concave surface moves in the same direction as osteokinematic and arthrokinematic motion.

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10
Q

what are the glides for the knee joint?

A

convex is stationary: flexion = posterior glide, extension = anterior glide

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11
Q

What is the glide for the subtalar jt?

A

concave is stationary: inv/supination = lateral, ev/pronation = medial

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12
Q

What is the treatment grade for small amplitude at the beginning of the range?

A

Grade 1

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13
Q

What is an end feel in joint mobilization?

A

The quality of movement perceived at the end of the available range of motion.

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14
Q

What characterizes a capsular end-feel?

A

Hard leather-like stoppage with slight give

Example: Frozen Shoulder

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15
Q

What is the definition of active insufficiency?

A

When a muscle that crosses two or more joints becomes too shortened to develop effective tension.

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16
Q

What is passive insufficiency?

A

Lengthening of a muscle that prevents further movement at the joints it crosses.

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17
Q

What is the full range of motion of a muscle divided into?

A
  • Outer range
  • Inner range
  • Middle range
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18
Q

What does a Grade 5 muscle test indicate?

A

Full ROM against gravity with MAXIMAL resistance

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19
Q

What is the purpose of deep tendon friction massage?

A

Break adhesion and align collagen, prevent scar adhesion, mechanoreceptor stimulation to decrease pain

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20
Q

What is a contraindication for deep tendon friction massage?

A

Infection/Skin breakdown, inflammatory joint disease, recent local injection, ossification/calcification, bursitis

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21
Q

What is a limitation of pain and movement in a joint specific ratio known as?

A

Capsular pattern

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22
Q

What is the capsular pattern for the glenohumeral joint?

A

External/Lateral rotation, abduction, Internal/medial rotation

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23
Q

What is a knee flexion contracture?

A

Shortening of soft tissue causing restriction in knee extension

Example: Tightness of hamstrings

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24
Q

What does the term ‘contracture’ refer to?

A

Shortening of soft tissue

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25
Q

what is the glide used at the talocrural jt?

A

concave surface is stationary
*DF = posterior glide
*PF = anterior glide

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26
Q

what muscles need to be strong in order for a person to ambulate with crutches?

A

Latissimus dorsi, traps, triceps.

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27
Q

as we age what balance strategy do we use more and why?

A

hip strategy - because often have decreased ankle mobility

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28
Q

what muscles become active when someone receives a large push forward in order to maintain balance?

A

would go straight to hip strategy and activate erector spinae and hip extensors.

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29
Q

What is the definition of a gait cycle?

A

Heel strike to heel strike on same leg.

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30
Q

What is a stride in gait mechanics?

A

Distance between successive points of heel contact of the same foot (~1.4m).

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31
Q

What is the distance for a step in gait mechanics?

A

Right heel strike to left heel strike (~0.7m).

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32
Q

What is the average velocity of walking?

A

Total distance traveled in a given amount of time; avg = ~1.3m/s.

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33
Q

What occurs during the initial contact phase of gait?

A

Foot contacts the ground; hip extensors stabilize the hip.

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34
Q

What is the loading response phase in gait?

A

Occurs after initial contact until elevation of opposite limb; bodyweight is transferred onto supporting limb.

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35
Q

Which muscular contractions occur during loading response?

A
  • Ankle dorsiflexors contract eccentrically
  • Quads contract eccentrically.
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36
Q

What defines mid-stance in the gait cycle?

A

From elevation of opposite limb until both ankles are aligned in coronal plane.

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37
Q

What are the muscular contractions during mid-stance?

A
  • Hip extensors and quads undergo concentric contraction
  • Glute medius contracts eccentrically.
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38
Q

What occurs during the terminal stance phase?

A

Begins when the supporting heel rises from the ground until the opposite heel touches the ground.

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39
Q

What muscles are most active during the terminal stance?

A

Calf toe flexors.

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40
Q

What is the pre-swing phase in gait?

A

The start of the second double limb stance in the gait cycle.

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41
Q

What muscular contractions occur during pre-swing?

A

Hip flexors contract to propel advancing limb.

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42
Q

What defines the initial swing phase?

A

From elevation of limb to point of maximal knee flexion.

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43
Q

What muscular contractions occur during initial swing?

A

Hip flexors concentrically contract.

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44
Q

What is the mid-swing phase in gait?

A

Following knee flexion to point where tibia is vertical.

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45
Q

What muscles contract during mid-swing?

A

Ankle dorsiflexors contract.

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46
Q

What defines terminal swing?

A

From point where tibia is vertical to just prior to initial contact.

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47
Q

What muscular contractions occur during terminal swing?

A

Eccentric activation of hamstring muscles.

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48
Q

What are the four main challenges of gait?

A
  • Maintaining upright posture
  • Maintaining equilibrium
  • Control of foot trajectory and ground clearance
  • Control of multiple body segments.
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49
Q

What are the three main tasks in gait?

A
  • Weight acceptance
  • Maintenance of stability during single leg support
  • Limb advancement (swing).
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50
Q

What is the normal wear pattern on shoes?

A
  • Increased wear over lateral portion of outer sole at the heel
  • Even wear along 1st, 2nd, and 3rd MTP joints
  • Even wear over 1st, 2nd, and 3rd MT heads.
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51
Q

What is an antalgic gait?

A

Reduced weight bearing on the injured lower extremity; decreased step length of unaffected limb.

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52
Q

What characterizes steppage gait?

A

Patient cannot dorsiflex, resulting in lifting the knee high.

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53
Q

What is foot slap in gait mechanics?

A

Weak or absent dorsiflexors causing the foot to slap down on the ground.

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54
Q

What is an abducted lurch?

A

Patient leans over the hip to compensate for gluteus medius muscle weakness.

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55
Q

What is gluteus maximus gait?

A

Backward trunk lean or throwing the trunk backward after initial contact due to weakness of hip extensors.

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56
Q

What are the characteristics of Parkinsonian gait?

A
  • Trunk, head, neck forward and flexed
  • Narrow base, small shuffling steps.
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57
Q

What is scissoring gait associated with?

A

Spastic cerebral palsy due to spasticity of adductors.

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58
Q

What does Trendelenburg gait indicate?

A

Weak abductors cause the contralateral side to dip during gait.

59
Q

What is compensated Trendelenburg?

A

Patient side flexes ipsilaterally over standing leg to compensate for weak glute medius.

60
Q

What does the Trendelenburg sign indicate?

A

Opposite pelvis drops when standing in single leg stance; indicates gluteus medius weakness.

61
Q

What are the cardio status criteria for when not to mobilize?

A
  • Mean Arterial Pressure <65 or >110
  • Systolic drop >20 mm Hg or disproportionate rise.
62
Q

What neurological status criteria indicate not to mobilize?

A

Severe agitation, distress, or inability to understand instructions.

63
Q

What are hip precautions for the posterolateral approach after hip replacement?

A
  • No flexion above 90 degrees
  • No internal rotation
  • No adduction past midline.
64
Q

What recommendations are made for home after joint replacements?

A
  • Raised toilet seat with rails
  • Tub bench
  • Hand held shower.
65
Q

When is surgery recommended for knee issues?

A
  • Severe knee pain or stiffness limiting activities
  • Moderate or severe knee pain at rest
  • Chronic knee inflammation not improving with treatment.
66
Q

What is a key characteristic of cemented components in total arthroplasty?

A

Better stability, suitable for sedentary elderly with poor bone quality

Cemented components provide immediate fixation and stability for patients with compromised bone quality.

67
Q

What is the advantage of uncemented components in total arthroplasty?

A

Coated with beads allowing for new bone growth, better for younger patients

Uncemented components promote biological fixation as the bone grows into the porous surface.

68
Q

What is the revision time frame for uncemented components in total arthroplasty?

A

10 years

Regular follow-up is required to monitor the longevity and integrity of uncemented components.

69
Q

Describe the hybrid approach in total arthroplasty.

A

Femoral component is cemented, acetabular component is uncemented

This approach combines the benefits of both cemented and uncemented techniques.

70
Q

What is the post-operative precaution for total arthroplasty using the post-lateral approach regarding hip flexion?

A

No hip flexion past 90°

This precaution helps prevent dislocation and other complications after surgery.

71
Q

What are the restrictions for hip internal rotation (IR) after total arthroplasty?

A

No internal rotation

This is to maintain proper alignment and prevent dislocation.

72
Q

What is the hip adduction restriction for total arthroplasty patients for the first 3 months?

A

No hip adduction past midline

Adherence to this restriction is crucial for the safety of the surgical site.

73
Q

What is the primary movement restriction after a lateral approach in total arthroplasty?

A

No hip flexion past 90°

Similar to the post-lateral approach, this restriction is essential for recovery.

74
Q

What are the post-operative movement restrictions for the anterior approach in total arthroplasty?

A

No hip extension, no external rotation, no hip adduction past midline for 1st 3 months

These restrictions are necessary to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.

75
Q

What are the typical movement restrictions after hemiarthroplasty, cannulated screws, DHS & gamma nails?

A

Typically no restrictions with movement & weight-bearing as tolerated (WBAT)

Always check MD orders for specific patient guidelines.

76
Q

What is replaced in a hemiarthroplasty of the shoulder?

A

Humeral surface replaced with a prosthetic

This is indicated for certain arthritic conditions and fractures.

77
Q

What are the indications for total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA)?

A

Osteoarthritis, inflammatory arthritis, osteonecrosis involving the glenoid, post-traumatic degenerative joint disease

TSA involves replacing both the glenoid and humeral components.

78
Q

What is a mandatory condition for a patient undergoing total shoulder arthroplasty?

A

Intact rotator cuff complex

The rotator cuff is critical for shoulder stability and function post-operatively.

79
Q

What are the post-operative precautions for total shoulder arthroplasty?

A

Immobilization full time for 1 week, nightly for 4 weeks, sling for 4 weeks

These precautions help protect the surgical site during the initial healing phase.

80
Q

What is the purpose of a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA)?

A

To increase stability by switching the ball and socket components

This is particularly useful for patients with rotator cuff deficiencies.

81
Q

What are the post-operative precautions for reverse total shoulder arthroplasty (RTSA)?

A

Flexion/elevation in scapular plane passively up to 90°, pure abduction

Avoiding internal rotation for 6 weeks is critical for recovery.

82
Q

True or False: There are no movement restrictions after shoulder hemiarthroplasty.

A

True

Most patients can move freely and bear weight as tolerated unless otherwise specified by a physician.

83
Q

What are the 5 things that make up the Cluster of Sutlive for hip OA?

A
  1. Hip scour test
    * 2. passive IR <25
    * 3. pain with squatting
    * 4. painful active hip flexion
    * 5. painful active hip ext
84
Q

What causes cartilage loss in osteoarthritis?

A

Release of enzymes and abnormal biomechanical forces

85
Q

What allows bones of the joint to rub together in osteoarthritis?

A

Loss of cartilage

86
Q

What are the symptoms associated with osteoarthritis?

A

Pain, swelling, increased bone turnover, osteophyte formation

87
Q

What are the two conditions that can lead to focal areas of increased loading in osteoarthritis?

A

Normal chondrocyte physiology with abnormal stress or abnormal chondrocyte physiology with normal stress

88
Q

List 7 risk factors for osteoarthritis.

A
  • Increased age
  • Sex (W>M)
  • Genetics
  • Obesity
  • Physical inactivity
  • Injury
  • Joint stress (e.g., occupation, kneeling, squatting, stair climbing)
89
Q

What are the 4 main x-ray features used to diagnose osteoarthritis?

A
  • Joint space narrowing
  • Osteophytes
  • Subchondral sclerosis (increased bone density)
  • Subchondral cysts
90
Q

What are the sources of pain in osteoarthritis?

A
  • Bone
  • Soft tissue
  • Inflammation
  • Muscle spasm
91
Q

What are the 4 subjective questions used to diagnose osteoarthritis?

A
  • Pain most days in last month
  • Pain over the last year
  • Worse with activity
  • Relieved with rest
92
Q

Which joint is the most commonly affected by osteoarthritis?

93
Q

What test can indicate swelling in the knee joint?

A

Patellar tap test

94
Q

What are the 3 tests indicative of osteoarthritis of the knee?

A
  • Flexion contracture
  • Abnormal gait
  • Swipe test or patellar tap
95
Q

What are loose bodies in the context of osteoarthritis?

A

Free floating pieces of bone or cartilage, often resulting from OA or chip fracture

96
Q

What typical symptoms are associated with loose bodies?

A

Locking or catching

97
Q

What is the first line of treatment for osteoarthritis?

A

Exercise (strengthen/stretch muscles around OA joint), activity modification, weight loss, acetaminophen

98
Q

What are the red flags associated with arthritis indicating possible septic arthritis?

A
  • Unable to move the limb
  • Intense joint pain
  • Joint swelling
  • Joint redness
  • Low fever
  • Chills
  • Possible tachycardia
99
Q

True or False: Pain in inflammatory arthritis is worse in the morning.

100
Q

What is a common feature of inflammatory back pain?

A

Morning stiffness usually prolonged >60 min

101
Q

What autoimmune disease is characterized by synovitis?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

102
Q

What is the main feature of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Swollen synovium and proliferation of cells into a dense cellular membrane (pannus)

103
Q

What can the pannus in rheumatoid arthritis lead to?

A
  • Fibrous scar tissue
  • Adhesions
  • Bony ankylosing (union of bones of a joint)
104
Q

What are common presentations of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Symmetrical pattern
  • Pain
  • Fatigue
  • Stiffness (decreased ROM)
  • Swelling
  • Joint deformity
  • Muscle atrophy
105
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosing rheumatoid arthritis?

A

4 of 7 criteria must be present for at least 6 weeks

106
Q

What are the 7 criteria for rheumatoid arthritis diagnosis?

A
  • Morning stiffness >1hr
  • Arthritis of >/= 3 joints
  • Radiographic changes
  • Rheumatoid nodules
  • Symmetric arthritis
  • Arthritis of hand joints
  • Serum rheumatoid factor
107
Q

True or False: The presence of antibodies like HLA-DR4 is common in rheumatoid arthritis.

108
Q

What are some deformities associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Hallux valgus
  • MTP subluxation
  • Claw toe
  • Hammer toe
  • Mallet toe
  • Ulnar drift
  • Swan neck deformity
  • Boutonniere deformity
109
Q

What is the management strategy for acute stage rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Protect: use resting splints, brace joint during ADLs
  • No stretching
  • Energy conservation
  • Gentle ROM (pain-free)
  • Ice to reduce inflammation
  • Heat briefly in AM
110
Q

What are the 4 R’s of surgery for rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Remove (MTP resection)
  • Re-align (tendon rupture)
  • Rest (arthrodesis)
  • Replace (arthroplasty)
111
Q

What is the purpose of the joint count assessment in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

An indicator of the disease activity

112
Q

What does the acronym STOP stand for in joint assessment?

A
  • Swelling Test
  • Tenderness Test
  • Over Pressure Test
113
Q

what are the components that make up a postural Ax for ankylosing spondylitis?

A
  1. Tragus to wall
    * 2. lateral trunk flexion
    * 3. trunk flexion
    * 4. trunk ext
    * 5. trunk rotation
    * 6. chest expansion
    * 7. cervical mobility
    * 8. shoulder and hip ROM
114
Q

What is the umbrella term for a group of inflammatory diseases with common characteristics?

A

Spondyloarthritis

The most common type is Ankylosing Spondylitis.

115
Q

What are the common conditions included in spondyloarthritis?

A
  • Ankylosing Spondylitis
  • Psoriatic arthritis
  • Enteropathic spondylitis
  • Reactive arthritis
  • Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA)
116
Q

What is the hallmark sign of Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A

Sacroiliitis - deep, dull pain in buttocks due to inflamed SI joint.

117
Q

Which genetic marker is associated with spondyloarthritis?

118
Q

What are the common features of Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A
  • Low back pain
  • Inflammation in the spine
  • Synovitis (typically unilateral)
  • Inflammatory eye conditions (iritis/uveitis)
  • Enthesitis
  • Stiffness and fusing of the spine.
119
Q

True or False: Ankylosing Spondylitis affects males more than females.

120
Q

What are the clinical criteria for diagnosing Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A
  • Low back pain and stiffness for more than 3 months
  • Limitation of motion of the lumbar spine
  • Limitation of chest expansion.
121
Q

What medications are commonly used to treat Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A
  • NSAIDs
  • Corticosteroids
  • DMARDs
  • Biologics.
122
Q

What is dactylitis in relation to Psoriatic Arthritis?

A

Sausage-like swelling of fingers due to inflammation.

123
Q

What are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease associated with Enteropathic Spondylitis?

A
  • Ulcerative colitis
  • Crohn’s disease.
124
Q

What characterizes Reactive Arthritis?

A

Painful, short-lasting inflammatory arthritis triggered by infections.

125
Q

Fill in the blank: Gout is characterized by increased serum _______.

A

uric acid.

126
Q

What is Pseudogout?

A

Similar to gout but caused by Calcium Pyrophosphate crystals.

127
Q

What is the common presentation of a patient with osteoporosis?

A

Depleted bone mineral density (BMD).

128
Q

What are the common fracture areas in osteoporosis?

A
  • Thoracic spine
  • Lumbar spine
  • Femoral neck
  • Distal radius.
129
Q

What is a pathological fracture?

A

Broken bone caused by disease leading to weakness of the bone.

130
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Softening of the bones caused by impaired bone metabolism.

131
Q

What is Paget’s disease?

A

Excessive breakdown and formation of bone leading to weakened bones.

132
Q

What is the primary cause of Osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Genetic disorder causing defective development of connective tissue.

133
Q

What is osteomyelitis?

A

Inflammation response in bone caused by infection.

134
Q

What are the red flags indicating possible serious conditions?

A
  • Non-mechanical pain
  • Pain at night
  • Systemic features like fever.
135
Q

What characterizes chronic pain?

A

Pain that persists past the normal time of healing.

136
Q

What is the diagnosis criterion for chronic fatigue syndrome?

A

Persistent fatigue for at least 6 months, not resolved with rest.

137
Q

What are the common symptoms of fibromyalgia?

A
  • Headaches
  • Sensitivity to stimuli
  • Fatigue
  • Sleep disturbances.
138
Q

What are the important types of amputations?

A
  • Transfemoral (above knee)
  • Transtibial (below knee)
  • Ankle disarticulation.
139
Q

What is phantom sensation?

A

Tingling, pressure, or itching in the part of the limb that has been removed.

140
Q

What should be avoided in stump care?

A
  • Lotion on open areas
  • Exposure to extreme temperatures.
141
Q

What are signs of stump infection?

A
  • Redness or heat along the incision
  • Green, yellow, or white drainage.
142
Q

What are pressure tolerant areas for a transtibial amputation?

A
  • Patellar tendon
  • Anterior compartment.
143
Q

What are pressure sensitive areas for a transfemoral amputation?

A
  • Anterior distal tibia
  • Fibular head.