Documentation, Ethics & Standards Flashcards

1
Q

What does SOAP stand for in SOAP documentation?

A

S = Subjective data, O = Objective data, A = Assessment, P = Plan

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2
Q

What type of data is documented under ‘S’ in SOAP documentation?

A

Subjective data

Includes patient experiences, feelings, duration, intensity, and past history.

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3
Q

What is included in the ‘O’ section of SOAP documentation?

A

Objective data

Includes interventions, physical exam results, and vital signs.

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4
Q

What is assessed in the ‘A’ section of SOAP documentation?

A

Assessment

Includes diagnosis, problem identification, and treatment tolerance.

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5
Q

What is documented in the ‘P’ section of SOAP documentation?

A

Plan

Includes follow-up, further testing, and treatment goals.

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6
Q

What does DAR stand for in DAR documentation?

A

D = Data, A = Action, R = Response

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7
Q

What is included in the ‘D’ section of DAR documentation?

A

Data

Comprised of subjective and objective information related to a problem.

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8
Q

What types of data can be included as subjective data in DAR documentation?

A

Examples include direct patient quotes like ‘I can’t breathe’ or ‘I’m scared’

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9
Q

What does the ‘A’ in DAR documentation refer to?

A

Action

Refers to past, present, or future actions based on patient assessment.

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10
Q

What is described in the ‘R’ section of DAR documentation?

A

Response

Describes patient progress and response to therapy.

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11
Q

What is the primary role of physiotherapists as experts?

A

To promote, improve, and maintain mobility, health, and well-being

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12
Q

What does the physiotherapist role of ‘Communicator’ involve?

A

Using effective communication to develop professional relationships

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13
Q

What is the responsibility of physiotherapists as ‘Managers’?

A

To manage time, resources, and priorities for sustainable practice

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14
Q

What is required for the maintenance of clinical records?

A

An accurate, legible, permanent, and confidential record must be maintained

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15
Q

What must be included in a clinical record regarding patient consent?

A

All consents given by a patient or their legal representative

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16
Q

What must be documented regarding changes in patient status?

A

Any change in patient status and/or treatment provided must be documented

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17
Q

What is the minimum retention period for clinical records?

A

16 years from the date of the last entry

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18
Q

How must clinical records be destroyed to maintain confidentiality?

A

By effective shredding, burning, or computer/video erasure

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19
Q

What is the definition of electrophysical agents?

A

Electrical, electromagnetic, thermal, light, or sound energies used therapeutically

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20
Q

What must all electrophysical agents have according to regulations?

A

A medical device license issued by Health Canada

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21
Q

What is required before using new electrophysical equipment?

A

Calibration must be performed according to manufacturers’ specifications

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22
Q

What must be verified before applying an electrophysical agent?

A

There must be no contraindications to the proposed application

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23
Q

What must be documented after applying an electrophysical agent?

A

Modality, dosage, specific area treated, and response to treatment

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24
Q

What is the role of a PT support worker?

A

To assist in the provision of physiotherapy services under a physiotherapist’s direction

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25
Q

What must a physiotherapist ensure about the PT support worker?

A

That the support worker is competent to replicate the correct application procedure

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26
Q

What should be documented regarding treatment plans?

A

Proposed treatment plan and any changes made to it must be documented

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27
Q

What is the role of the PTA?

A

To assist the physiotherapist in ensuring that physiotherapy services are delivered in a safe, effective, and efficient manner.

PTAs help provide physiotherapy services that achieve and maintain optimal client outcomes.

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28
Q

How does the relationship between the physiotherapist and the PTA vary?

A

It is dynamic, with the type of supervision and tasks assigned determined by the supervising physiotherapist in accordance with provincial physiotherapy regulations.

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29
Q

What factors do physiotherapists consider when assigning tasks to PTAs?

A

Education, training, competence of PTAs, complexity and stability of individual client needs, and the environment.

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30
Q

Are PTAs accountable for their own performance?

A

Yes, PTAs are accountable for their own individual performance.

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31
Q

What does ‘assignment of task’ mean?

A

Transfer of a component of a physical therapy treatment plan to a physical therapist support worker.

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32
Q

What is a Physical Therapist Support Worker (PTSW)?

A

An individual who works under the direction and supervision of a physical therapist.

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33
Q

What is the definition of supervision in the context of PTSWs?

A

The means by which the physical therapist monitors the performance of the PTSW to ensure competent care.

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34
Q

What are the two types of supervision?

A
  • Direct supervision (physical therapist is present)
  • Indirect supervision (physical therapist is not present)
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35
Q

What accountability do physical therapists have regarding task assignment?

A

Physical therapists must demonstrate accountability for the assigning process, including monitoring and supervision of the PTSW.

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36
Q

What is the first step in assigning a task?

A

Explaining to each patient the relationship between the physical therapist and the PTSW.

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37
Q

What must be obtained from each patient regarding the involvement of a PTSW?

A

Informed consent.

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38
Q

What should a physical therapist do if a patient revokes consent?

A

The PTSW must be made aware that patient consent can be revoked at any time.

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39
Q

What is required before a PTSW can carry out assigned tasks?

A

The PTSW must be taught the assigned task and deemed competent.

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40
Q

What should a PTSW do in case of adverse treatment reactions?

A

Cease treatment and immediately report to the appropriate person as indicated in the supervision plan.

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41
Q

What must be documented in the supervision and communication plan?

A

An appropriate supervision and communication plan must be established and documented.

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42
Q

What must physical therapists do in the event of planned or unplanned absences?

A

Have an appropriate supervision and communication plan in place or arrange for transfer of supervision to another physical therapist.

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43
Q

What tasks are appropriate for PTAs?

A
  • Fit/adjust an assistive/ambulation device
  • Supervision of exercise activities
  • Gait training activities
  • Daily progress notes
  • Apply modalities (without determining prescription)
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44
Q

What tasks must NOT be assigned to PTSWs?

A
  • Interpretation of referrals, diagnosis, or prognosis
  • Performance of assessment/evaluative procedures
  • Interpretation of assessment findings
  • Discussion of physical therapy diagnosis or treatment rationale
  • Planning or initiating physical therapy treatment goals or programs
  • Tasks requiring a physical therapist’s clinical judgment
  • Modification of treatment beyond established limits
  • Completion of documentation that is the physical therapist’s responsibility
  • Teaching of the assigned task to another person
  • Discharge planning
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45
Q

What is necessary for documenting assigned tasks?

A

Documentation must include details of the assigned tasks, identity of the support worker, supervision plan and process, and any changes made.

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46
Q

What must physical therapists ensure regarding receipts when billing on a fee-for-service basis?

A

Receipts must be transparent and indicate who is providing physical therapy treatment on a given day.

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47
Q

True or False: A physical therapist can submit inaccurate billing accounts.

A

False

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48
Q

What is the responsibility of each physical therapist regarding consent?

A

To read and be familiar with the consent requirements as set out in the Health Care Consent and Facilities Admission Act (HCCFAA) and the Infant’s Act.

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49
Q

What are the methods by which a physical therapist may obtain consent?

A

Consent may be expressed orally, in writing, or implied from the client’s words, writing, and/or actions.

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50
Q

What must a written consent form include?

A
  • Patient’s name and signature
  • Date
  • Brief description of the treatment or procedure
  • Name of the physical therapist
  • Any other relevant information
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51
Q

What is required for valid patient consent?

A

Clear and ongoing communication between the physical therapist and the patient.

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52
Q

What must be documented in the clinical record regarding consent?

A

Documentation that informed consent has occurred and a client’s refusal to consent, including explanations of the consequences.

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53
Q

What information must a physical therapist provide to the patient for informed consent?

A
  • Nature, purpose, and risks of treatment
  • Alternative treatments
  • Consequences of refusing treatment
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54
Q

What is the definition of informed consent?

A

Consent is informed if the person received information that a reasonable person would require to make a decision about treatment.

55
Q

True or False: Consent to health care applies only to the specific health care consented to.

56
Q

What are the rights of every adult regarding consent to health care?

A
  • Right to give or refuse consent on any grounds
  • Right to select a form of health care
  • Right to revoke consent
  • Right to expect decisions will be respected
  • Right to be involved in case planning
57
Q

What constitutes an adult’s consent to health care?

A
  • Relates to proposed health care
  • Given voluntarily
  • Not obtained by fraud or misrepresentation
  • Adult is capable of making a decision
  • Provider gives necessary information
  • Opportunity to ask questions
58
Q

Who can provide substitute consent for an adult?

A
  • Adult’s spouse
  • Adult’s child
  • Adult’s parent
  • Adult’s sibling
  • Adult’s grandparent
  • Adult’s grandchild
  • Anyone related by birth or adoption
  • Close friend
  • Person related by marriage
59
Q

What criteria must a person meet to qualify for giving substitute consent?

A
  • At least 19 years old
  • Contact with adult in the last 12 months
  • No dispute with adult
  • Capable of giving consent
  • Willing to comply with adult’s wishes
60
Q

What must a physical therapist do if a treatment plan is altered?

A

Update patient consent.

61
Q

What does the term ‘mature minor’ refer to in consent?

A

An infant may consent if they understand the nature and consequences of health care and it is in their best interests.

62
Q

According to College Bylaws, what is forbidden in the relationship between a physical therapist and a patient?

A

A sexual relationship.

63
Q

What are the signs of boundary crossing in a therapeutic relationship?

A
  • Excessive time spent with a patient
  • Choosing patients based on looks or social standing
  • Sharing personal problems
  • Providing personal contact information
64
Q

What is a conflict of interest in the context of physical therapy?

A

A breach of professional ethics advancing one’s own or another’s interests to the detriment of the client.

65
Q

What are the characteristics of a professional relationship compared to a personal relationship?

A
  • Professional: Limited duration, confined location, purpose to provide care
  • Personal: May last a lifetime, no boundaries, for enjoyment
66
Q

What should a physical therapist do regarding draping for patients?

A
  • Equip practice with clean draping materials
  • Explain purpose of undressing
  • Maintain patient dignity
  • Drape according to patient needs
67
Q

What title should a physical therapist not use when providing patient care services?

A

Doctor or an abbreviation of the title (Dr).

68
Q

What must be communicated clearly, consistently, and completely?

A

Information about additional education, preferred areas of practice, or practice area of interest.

69
Q

How should physical therapists communicate practice limitations?

A

Practice limited to hand therapy or PT with additional education in pediatric therapy.

70
Q

Are professional association memberships considered credentials?

A

No, they must not be conveyed as such.

71
Q

What is an example of a professional association membership?

A

MCPA (member of the Canadian Physiotherapy Association).

72
Q

What title must physical therapists with a doctorate degree avoid using when providing patient care?

A

Doctor or an abbreviation of the title (Dr).

73
Q

How should the doctoral degree be noted after a physical therapist’s name?

A

With related physical therapist qualification, e.g., BHSc(PT), PhD.

74
Q

What must physical therapists who practice multiple disciplines do regarding their roles?

A

Keep their roles, titles, credentials, documentation, and billing practice separate and distinct.

75
Q

Fill in the blank: Physical therapists who hold a doctorate degree must not use the title ‘_______’ when providing patient care services.

76
Q

True or False: Physical therapists can present their professional association memberships as credentials.

77
Q

What is the purpose of the Canadian Physiotherapy Code of Ethics?

A

To frame the core values of the physiotherapy profession in Canada and provide guidelines for professional behaviour.

78
Q

What are the three main responsibilities outlined in the Canadian Physiotherapy Code of Ethics?

A
  • Responsibilities to the patient/client
  • Responsibilities to society
  • Responsibilities to the profession
79
Q

What does ‘respect and dignity’ mean in the context of the Code of Ethics?

A

To acknowledge, value and appreciate the worth of all patients/clients.

80
Q

What principle refers to respecting a patient/client’s right to make decisions?

A

Respect for patient/client autonomy.

81
Q

What is the principle of beneficence?

A

To provide benefit to patients/clients.

82
Q

What does non-maleficence mean?

A

To do no harm to patients/clients.

83
Q

What is meant by responsibility in the Code of Ethics?

A

To be reliable and dependable.

84
Q

Define trustworthiness and integrity in the context of the Code of Ethics.

A

To be honest and to be trusted.

85
Q

What is the expectation of professionalism in the Code of Ethics?

A

To be a good citizen/member in good standing of the professional association.

86
Q

True or False: CPA members can refuse care to any patient/client based on their social status.

87
Q

What is a key responsibility of CPA members towards their patients/clients?

A

To promote the health and well-being of patients/clients while respecting their rights.

88
Q

What must CPA members respect regarding patients’ rights?

A
  • Rights to be informed about treatment effects
  • Rights to consent to or decline treatment
  • Rights to privacy and confidentiality
89
Q

Fill in the blank: CPA members must practice in a _______ manner within their individual scope of practice.

A

[safe, competent, accountable and responsible]

90
Q

What is the responsibility of CPA members towards society?

A

To improve the standards of health care and the well-being of society.

91
Q

What must CPA members comply with in their practice?

A

All legislation and regulatory requirements pertaining to physiotherapy.

92
Q

What is one responsibility of CPA members to their profession?

A

To uphold the integrity of the profession.

93
Q

What does it mean for CPA members to strive for excellence?

A

To commit to maintaining and enhancing the reputation and standing of the physiotherapy profession.

94
Q

What is expected regarding the sharing of best practices among CPA members?

A

To share evidence-informed and clinical best practices with each other and other health care professionals.

95
Q

What role do CPA members have concerning students?

A

To be willing and diligent preceptors of students.

96
Q

Fill in the blank: The _____ scale is commonly used to measure pain intensity in patients.

A

Visual Analog

97
Q

What is the purpose of using outcome measures in physiotherapy?

A

To evaluate patient progress and treatment effectiveness.

98
Q

Which outcome measure assesses functional ability in patients with lower extremity injuries?

A

The Lower Extremity Functional Scale (LEFS)

99
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a common MSK outcome measure? A) Oswestry Disability Index B) Berg Balance Scale C) Mini Mental State Examination

A

C) Mini Mental State Examination

100
Q

What type of outcome measure is the Numeric Pain Rating Scale?

A

A unidimensional measure of pain intensity

101
Q

True or False: Patient-reported outcome measures (PROMs) only focus on physical health.

102
Q

What does the Oswestry Disability Index assess?

A

The degree of disability in patients with low back pain.

103
Q

Short Answer: Name one psychometric property that is important for outcome measures.

A

Reliability

104
Q

Multiple Choice: Which outcome measure is specifically designed for knee osteoarthritis? A) Western Ontario and McMaster Universities Osteoarthritis Index B) Knee Injury and Osteoarthritis Outcome Score C) Both A and B

A

C) Both A and B

105
Q

True or False: The 6-Minute Walk Test is used to measure cardiovascular endurance.

106
Q

What is the main focus of the Patient-Specific Functional Scale?

A

To evaluate the patient’s perceived functional limitations related to their condition.

107
Q

Fill in the blank: The _____ is a common measure used to assess balance and fall risk.

A

Berg Balance Scale

108
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ scale is commonly used to assess the severity of motor impairment in patients with stroke.

A

Fugl-Meyer Assessment

109
Q

Which outcome measure is specifically designed for assessing balance in patients with neurological disorders?

A

Berg Balance Scale

110
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a common neurological outcome measure? A) Barthel Index B) Mini-Mental State Examination C) Visual Analog Scale

A

C) Visual Analog Scale

111
Q

What aspect of patient performance does the Ashworth Scale measure?

A

Muscle tone and spasticity

112
Q

True or False: The 6-Minute Walk Test is used to assess endurance in patients with neurological impairments.

113
Q

Short Answer: Name one outcome measure that evaluates cognitive function in neurological patients.

A

Montreal Cognitive Assessment (MoCA)

114
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ is used to measure the quality of life in patients with neurological conditions.

A

Neurological Quality of Life Scale

115
Q

Multiple Choice: Which outcome measure is used to assess gait speed? A) Functional Reach Test B) 10-Meter Walk Test C) Gait Abnormality Rating Scale

A

B) 10-Meter Walk Test

116
Q

What does the term ‘validity’ refer to in the context of outcome measures?

A

The extent to which an outcome measure accurately assesses what it intends to measure.

117
Q

True or False: Reliability refers to the consistency of a measurement over time.

118
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ scale is often used to assess pain in patients with neurological disorders.

A

Numeric Pain Rating Scale

119
Q

Short Answer: What is the role of the Functional Independence Measure (FIM)?

A

To assess the level of a patient’s disability and the amount of assistance required for daily living activities.

120
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following measures is commonly used to assess upper limb function? A) Jebsen-Taylor Hand Function Test B) Katz Index C) Tinetti Test

A

A) Jebsen-Taylor Hand Function Test

121
Q

What is the main focus of the Rivermead Mobility Index?

A

To evaluate mobility and functional recovery in stroke patients.

122
Q

True or False: The Dynamic Gait Index assesses a patient’s capacity to modify gait in response to changing task demands.

123
Q

Fill in the blank: The __________ is a scale used to assess the severity of cognitive impairment in patients with dementia.

A

Clinical Dementia Rating Scale

124
Q

Short Answer: Why is it important to use standardized outcome measures in physiotherapy?

A

To ensure consistency, reliability, and comparability of results across different settings and populations.

125
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Chedoke-McMaster Stroke Assessment?

A

To assess and quantify the level of motor recovery in stroke patients.

126
Q

True or False: The Chedoke-McMaster Stroke Assessment includes both upper and lower limb assessments.

127
Q

Fill in the blank: The Chedoke-McMaster Stroke Assessment is designed to measure __________ in patients post-stroke.

A

functional abilities

128
Q

What are the two main components of the Chedoke-McMaster Stroke Assessment?

A

The impairment inventory and the activity inventory.

129
Q

Multiple Choice: Which of the following does NOT form part of the Chedoke-McMaster Stroke Assessment? A) Upper limb function B) Cognitive assessment C) Lower limb function D) Balance assessment

A

B) Cognitive assessment

130
Q

What does AIMS stand for?

A

Alberta Infant Motor Scale

131
Q

True or False: AIMS is used to assess the motor development of infants.

132
Q

Fill in the blank: The AIMS is primarily designed for infants aged _____ months.

133
Q

Which of the following is NOT a category assessed by the AIMS? A) Prone B) Supine C) Walking D) Sitting

A

C) Walking

134
Q

Short Answer: What is the main purpose of the Alberta Infant Motor Scale?

A

To evaluate the motor development of infants and identify potential developmental delays.