Neurology MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

how to differentiate between secondary and primary generalized seizures

secondary generalized seizure = focal to bilateral tonic-clonic seizure

A

on the basis of other evidence that supports a focal epilepsy/etiology, or there may be asymmetry seen in the focal to bilateral tonic-clonic seizure (such as head/eye version to one side, asymmetric amplitude to the motor features), and this asymmetry is seen consistently from seizure to seizure.

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2
Q

patient is able to identify that fear is the primary onset feature of the seizure, and results in immobility, what is the type of seizure

A

focal emotional seizure with fear

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3
Q

somatosensory seizures originate from

A

Postcentral gyrus of parietal lobe

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4
Q

motor seizures originate from

A

Precentral gyrus of Parietal lobe

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5
Q

Visceral and autonomic seizures originate from

A

Insula
cingulate gyrus
frontal temporal areas

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6
Q

Gustatory seizure originates from

A

Parietal areal
insula

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7
Q

Olfactory seizure originates from

A

mesial temporal or orbitofrontal regions

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8
Q

what is the duration of tonic seizures

A

3 seconds ~ 2 minutes

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9
Q

how to differentiate between clonic seizures and repetitive serial
myoclonic seizures

A
  1. rhythmicity of the jerking
  2. Loss of consciousness
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10
Q

duration of epileptic spasms

A

1 ~ 2 seconds

Longer than Myoclonic jerk
shorter than Tonic seizure

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11
Q

The peak age at onset of infantile spasms is

A

3 - 8 Months

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12
Q

what is criteria of epilepsy

A

> 2 unprovoked seizures occurring >24 hours apart

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13
Q

which abnormal lab is most commonly associated with seizures

A
  1. Glucose abnormalities
  2. Hyponatremia
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14
Q

what is the most common cause of seizures in childhood

A

Febrile seizures

occurring in 2 to 5% of children between the ages of 6 months and 6 years
with a temperature of 38°C or higher

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15
Q

what is the peak age of febrile seizures

A

12 ~ 18 months

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16
Q

what is the investigation of choice in epilepsy

A

MRI

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17
Q

choice of drug in Epilepsy depends on

A

Seizure type

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18
Q

in drug therapy of epilepsy, If control is poor on the first drug at the highest tolerated dose, what is the next step?

A

treatment should be then changed to
monotherapy with another first line drug

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19
Q

if treatment with another first line drug failed

A

treat with a maximum of two anti convulsants

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20
Q

when to stop AED

A

after 2 years seizure-free

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21
Q

AED of choice in Generalized tonic–clonic

A
  1. Sodium valproate
  2. Lamotrigine
  3. Levetiracetam
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22
Q

AED of choice in Tonic or Atonic

A

Sodium valproate

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23
Q

AED of choice in Absence

A

ethosuximide

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24
Q

AED of choice in Myoclonic

A

Sodium valproate

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25
AED of choice in **Focal**
Lamotrigine
26
in Status epilepticus, t1 refers to
Time when a seizure is likely to be prolonged leading to continuous seizure activity (or time to start ttt) ## Footnote Tonic - clonic SE = 5 min Focal SE with impaired consciousness = 10 min
27
in Status epilepticus, t2 refers to
Time when a seizure may cause long term consequences (including neuronal injury, neuronal death, alteration of neuronal networks and functional deficits) ## Footnote Tonic - clonic SE = 30 min Focal SE with impaired consciousness = 60 min
28
most common cause of status epilepticus
de novo due to acute cerebral disturbances
29
Age of CP affection
up to 3 years
30
what is the immediate effect of asphyxia
hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
31
what is the immediate effect of kernicterus
1. lethargy 2. ↑ muscle tone 3. decreased Moro sign 4. opisthotonus
32
what is the delayed effect of kernicterus
1. Choreoathetoid CP 2. Sensorineural deafness
33
which area of the brain is affected in Spastic type CP
Motor area 4
34
which area of the brain is affected in ataxic CP
Cerebellum
35
which area of the brain is affected in Extrapyramidal type
Basal ganglia
36
which type of Cerebral palsy is commonly associated with epilepsy
Spastic Quadriplegic CP ## Footnote then spastic hemiplegic
37
what is rapid bed side test for coma
Blood glucose
38
signs of meningeal inflammation in infants
irritability, restlessness, depressed mental status, and poor feeding ## Footnote Babinski and kernig is for children over 12 months
39
Normal rate of CSF production
0.3 ~ 0.5 ml/min = 20 ml/h
40
Normal CSF volume
50 ml in infants 150 ml in Adults
41
Most of CSF is ......
Extra ventricular
42
Most common cause on congenital Hydrocephalus is
Aqueductal stenosis ## Footnote XLR - Spina bifida occulta
43
congenital infection associated with Congenital Hydrocephalus
Toxoplasma
44
patient with congenital infection developed Periventricular calcifications
CMV
45
patient with congenital infection developed scattered calcifications and choreoretinitis
Toxoplasma
46
Why to auscaltate head of patient in Hydrocephalus
to detect Bruit → A-V malformation of Great cerebral vein of Galen
47
most common place for Meningeocele
Lumbosacral area
48
what is the preferred treatment for Hydrocephalus
Surgical
49
most common shunt used in hydrocephalus
ventriculoperitoneal (spitz holter)
50
disadvantage of Ventriculoarterial shunt
arrythmia & Volume overload
51
what is the second line surgical approach for Hydrocephalus
Ventriculopleural shunt
52
Using CT, how to differentiate between compensated & non compensated Hydrocephalus
by transependymal CSF permeation in the periventricular white matter
53
what is the most common cause of death in CP
Aspiration pneumonia & infections
54
in Transverse myelitis, UMNL manifestations appear after
3 ~ 6 weeks
55
value of MRI in transverse myelitis
Exclude Autoimmune encephalitis and spinal cord compression
56
muscle weakness distribution in myopathy vs neuropathy
Myopathy → Proximal > distal Neuropathy Distal > proximal
57
cause of death in SMA I
bronchopneumonia and respiratory failure
58
what are the onsets for SMA
1. SMA I → 2~6 months (starts IU / 1st 24h) 2. SMA II → 6 ~ 18 months 3. SMA III → >18 months 4. SMA IV → Adult onset
59
what is the mainstay treatment for Guilian Barre $
Plasmapheresis/Intravenous Immunoglobulin
60
Regarding congenital myopathies, the definitive diagnosis of each type is determine by
histopathological finding in muscle biopsy
61
how to differentiate between Congenital myopathy and muscular dystrophy
**Congenital myopathy** → Earlier, static, Normal CK, Mutations in Protein / Enzymes **Muscle Dystrophy** → Later, Progressive, ↑↑ CK, Mutations in cell membrane
62
mode of inheritance in DMD
XLR
63
how to differentiate between bulbar and pseudo bulbar palsy
Bulbar → uvula deviated to the normal site and absent Gag reflex
64
most common cause of CP
1. Meningitis 2. head injury
65
most common form of cp
spastic ## Footnote two of the following : Abnormal movement pattern - ↑ Tone - abnormal reflexes
66
a child with ↑ bilirubin develops which type of CP
choreoathetoid
67
arousal depends on
communication between the ascending reticular activating system (ARAS) which is located in the brain stem and its targets in the hypothalamus, thalamus, and cerebral cortex
68
Awareness depends on
connections between cortical and subcortical structures; cerebral hemispheres
69
absent doll's eye response indicates
brainstem dysfunction
70
most common organisms causing meningitis
1. Strept. pneumoniae 2. H. Influenza 3. Neisseria Meningitidis ## Footnote 1 & 3 → Rapid onset
71
MOT of bacterial meningitis
1. Droplet of RT / throat secretion → hematogenous spread to BBB 2. direct inoculation from penetrating head injury
72
most common organism causing brain abscess
Streptococcus anginosus 2nd → Staph aureus
73
mode of inheritance in SMA
AR