Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

Bradykinesia, unilateral pill-rolling tremor and rigidity are 3 of the core symptoms of parkinson’s disease, name 8 other characteristic features.

A

Micrographia
Hypersalivation
Mask-like facies
Impaired olfaction
Psychiatric features: depression, dementia and psychosis.
Sleep disorders.
Fatigue
Autonomic dysfunction

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2
Q

What are the features of drug-induced Parkinsonism?

A

Motor sx are usually rapid onset and bilateral.
Rigidity and rest tremor are uncommon.

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3
Q

Levodopa is one of the medications used to treat the motor sx of parkinson’s disease, name 2 other classes of medications used to treat Parkinson’s with three examples of each.

A

Dopamine agonists: Ropinirole, Rotigotine and Cabergoline.
Monoamine Oxidase B Inhibitors: Selegiline, Rasafiline and Safinamide.

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4
Q

Which medication can be used to treat the dyskinesia associated with treatment of Parkinsons?

A

Amantadine

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5
Q

What are two examples of COMT inhibitors used in the treatment of Parkinson’s?

A

Tolcapone
Entacapone

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6
Q

What can be prescribed to help prevent the hypersalivation that is associated with Parkinson’s?

A

Glycopyronium bromide

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7
Q

Dry mouth, anorexia and palpitations are 3 side effects assoicated with levodopa, name 2 more.

A

Postural hypotension
Psychosis

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8
Q

What are the ergot-derived dopamine agonists and what side effects are they associated with?

A

Cabergoline
Bromocriptine

Pulmonary, retroperitoneal and cardiac fibrosis.

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9
Q

Which drugs are used in the treatment of drug-induced Parkinsonism?

A

Anti-muscarinics which help with tremor.
Procyclidine

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10
Q

What are the features of progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

Postural instability and falls (stiff broad-based gait)
Impairment of vertical gaze.
Parkinsonism - prominent bradykinesia
Cognitive impairment (primarily frontal lobe dysfunction)

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11
Q

Unilateral upper and lower facial nerve palsy and dry eyes are two features of Bell’s palsy, name 3 more.

A

Post-auricular pain
Altered taste
Hyperacusis

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12
Q

When should people with Bell’s palsy be referred?

A

If the paralysis is persistent after 3 weeks with no signs of improvement.

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13
Q

Which class of drug can worsen the symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

A

Beta blockers
Lithium
Phenytoin
Antibiotics - macroldies, quinolones

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14
Q

What is the most common complication following meningitis?

A

Sensorineural Hearing loss

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15
Q

What is the most appropriate initial management if a cerebral infarction transforms into a cerebral haemorrhage?

A

Stop anticoagulation
Control BP

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16
Q

Which nerve is most likely to be damaged in a mid-shaft humeral fracture and how would this present?

A

Radial nerve
Wrist drop

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17
Q

What is the most common form of motor neuron disease?

A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

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18
Q

What specific abnormalities can topiramate cause if taken during pregnancy?

A

Cleft lip and palate.

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19
Q

What are the three key features of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Gait abnormalities (often similar to Parkinson’s)
Urinary incontinence
Dementia and bradyphenia (slowness of thought)

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20
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, name 3 more features that may be found on examination of the limbs.

A

Ascending weakness (legs affected first)
Reflexes reduced or absent
Mild sensory sx (distal paraesthesia) - may not be present

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21
Q

Patients with Guillian-Barre syndrome may suffer from respiratory muscle weakness, name 5 more features that may be present.

A

Diplopia
Bilateral facail nerve palsy
Oropharyngeal weakness (common)
Urinary retention
Diarrhoea

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22
Q

What investigatons are carried out for a suspected case of Guillain-Barre syndrome and what would positive results show?

A

LP - rise in protein with normla WBC count (found in 66%)
Nerve conduction studies - decreased motor nerve conduction velocity (prolonged distal motor latency, increaded F wave latency).

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23
Q

Nasal discharge, red swollen watering eye and eyelid drooping are common features of a cluster headache, name 2 more features.

A

Pupil constriction
Facial sweating

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24
Q

What is the management for an acute cluster headache?

A

IM triptans
High flow oxygen

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25
What is the firstline prophylaxis for cluster headaches? What other prophylactic options are there?
Verapamil Occipital nerve block Prednisolone - short course to break cycle Lithium
26
What are the features of the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis 1?
Cafe au lait spots (>15mm) Relative with NF1 Axillary or iguinal freckling Bony dysplasia (bowing of a long bone) Iris hamartomas (yellow-brown spots on the iris) Neurofibromas (2 or more are significant) Glioma (optic pathway)
27
Migraines, epilepsy and learning disability are 3 complications of NF1, name 6 more.
Renal artery stenosis Scoliosis of spine Vision loss Gastrointestinal stromal tumour Brain tumours Spinal cord tumours
28
What type of tumour is NF2 particularly associated with?
Acoustic Neuromas
29
What is the characteristic finding of normal pressure hydrocephalus on CT?
Ventriculomegaly with absence of/or out of proportion to sucal enlargement.
30
What is the pathophysiology behind normal pressure hydrocephalus?
Reduction in CSF reabsorption by arachnoid villi - secondary to head injury or SAH.
31
What are the 3 key features of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Ataxia Confusion Ophthalmoplegia
32
What are the 3 types of mutliple sclerosis?
Relapsing and remitting Primary progressive Secondary progressive Progressive forms - worsening in between relapsing.
33
Optic neuritis is a common presenting feature of multiple sclerosis, name 10 more potential presenting features.
Optic atrophy Pins/needles Numbness Trigeminal neuralgia Spastic weakness Ataxia Tremors Urinary incontinence Intellectual deterioration Sexual dysfunction
34
What are the features seen in the CSF for MS?
oligoclonal bands (and not in serum) increased intrathecal synthesis of IgG
35
What are the features seen on MRI for MS?
high signal T2 lesions periventricular plaques
36
What do you give for acute MS relapse?
High dose steroids (IV methylprednisolone)
37
What do you give longterm for MS?
DMARDs
38
What can be given for sx of spasticity?
Baclofen or gabapentin
39
What can be the mx for urinary dysfunction?
Intermittent self-catheterisation Anticholinergics
40
Smoking is a risk factor for MS, name 3 more.
Vitamin D deficiency EBV Obesity
41
What can be used to treat Oscillopsia? (visual fields appear to oscillate)
Gabapentin
42
What is the definition of TIA?
A transient episode of neurologic dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischaemia, without acute infarction.
43
What are examples of TIA mimetics that need to be excluded?
hypoglycaemia intracranial haemorrhage
44
Firstline imaging for TIA if no risk factors for intracranial bleeding?
MRI
45
What cranial nerves can be affected by acoustic neuromas?
V, VII, VIII
46
What is the treatment of Ramsay Hunt?
High dose aciclovir, high dose oral steroids and eye protection
47
Which antiepileptic is most associated with weight gain?
Sodium valproate
48
How does pontine haemorrhage present?
Pinpoint pupils Reduced GCS Paralysis
49
What medication can be administerd in a SAH to prevent cerebral vasospasm?
Nimodipine
50
What drug class can precipitate idiopathic intracranial hypertension?
Tetracyclines
51
Where is the defect in a left homonymous hemianopia?
Right optic tract
52
What are the characteristic features of a posterior cerebral artery stroke?
Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia
53
On examination, you note that he has a loss of vision in the right upper quadrant of the visual field in both eyes. Where is the lesion?
Left temporal lobe, inferior optic radiations
54
What is the most important diagnostic investigation for degenerative cervical myelopathy?
MRI cervical spine
55
What is the firstline treatment for myoclonic seizures in females?
Levetiracetam
56
What is the firstline treatment for tonic or atonic seizures in females?
Lamotrigene
57
Which score is used to measures disability or dependence in activities of daily living in stroke patients?
Barthel Score
58
What type of tumour is an acoustic neuroma?
Cerebellopontine tumour
59
What is the firstline treatment for myasthenia gravis and what is the mechanism of action?
Pyridostigmine Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
60
What is the treatment for Bells Palsy?
Prednisolone (oral) Within 72 hours of sx onset
61
What does a rise in prolactin after an episode of collapse suggest?
Seizure rather than a pseudoseizure.
62
What is the firstline treatment for myoclonic seizures in men?
Sodium valproate
63
In a patient with status epilepticus what are the two most important things to initially rule out?
Hpoxia Hypoglycaemia
64
In a traumatic fracture what is the fasest way to check whether any draining fluid is CSF?
Check glucose = positive result = CSF (not present in mucus)
65
If a seizure begins in one limb and then travels around the body what is this called and where is the seizure most likely occurring in the brain?
Jacksonian march Frontal lobe.
66
What is the medication used to treat restless leg syndrome?
Dopamine agonists e.g. ropinirole
67
Which nerve is at risk in a surgical neck of humerus fracture?
Axillary nerve
68
A 32 year-old female presents with a 3 day history of altered sensation on her left foot and right forearm. On examination she has clonus in both legs and has hyperreflexia in all limbs. Diagnosis?
Multiple sclerosis
69
What are the findings of myotonic dystrophy?
Bilateral weakness in the face. Slow fist opening.
70
What are the findings in facio-scapula-humeral dystrophy?
When asked to raise their arm, their scapula raises first.
71
A 45-year-old female with multiple sclerosis complains of tingling in her hands which comes on when she flexes her neck. What is this an example of?
Lhermitte’s sign
72
What is the most appropriate diagnostic investigation for suspected optic neuritis?
MRI brain and orbit with contrast (gadolinium).
73
What is the most appropriate diagnostic investigation for suspected optic neuritis?
MRI brain and orbit with contrast (gadolinium).
74
What age does Picks Disease present usually?
Under 65
75
What drug can be used for treatment of tremor in Parkinson’s?
Procyclidine
76
What dopamine agonist has the side effect of pulmonary fibrosis?
Cabergoline
77
When does delirium tremens occur with alcohol withdrawal? When do seizures occur?
48-72 hours after last drink 36 hours
78
What are the two characteristic features of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?
Rapid onset dementia Myoclonus (although may not appear as quickly as dementia)
79
What is the associated skin rash with juvenile idiopathic arthritis?
Salmon pink rash (legs)
80
What are the stroke mimetics?
Hypoglycaemia SOL BPPV Migraine Epilepsy
81
What is the most common cause of death post-stroke?
Aspiration
82
What is the ischaemic pernumbra?
Part of stroke that is at risk of infarction but may be salvageable if reperfused.
83
What are poor functional prognostic factors for stroke?
Dense hemipareis Inattention receptive dysphasia cognitive dysfunction
84