Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Phase 2a > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

Autoimmune condition that causes muscle weakness that gets progressively worse with activity and improves with rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the epidemiology of myasthenia gravis

A
  • More commonly affects females under 40 or males over 60
  • Association between thymoma and myasthenia gravis (10-20% of patients with myasthenia gravis have a thymoma, 20-40% of patients with a thymoma develop myasthenia gravis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are 2 causes of myasthenia gravis?

A
  1. Acetylcholine receptor (ACh-R) antibodies (85%)
  2. Muscle-specific kinase (MuSK) antibodies and low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein 4 (LRP4) antibodies (15%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis (due to ACh-R antibodies)?

A
  • Antibodies bind to postsynaptic neuromuscular junction receptors
  • This blocks the receptor and prevents acetylcholine from being able to stimulate the receptor and trigger muscle contraction
  • During muscle activity, receptors become increasingly blocked up which causes less effective stimulation of muscle with increased activity
  • = more muscle weakness the more muscles are used
    Antibodies also activate the complement system within the neuromuscular junction which leads to damage to cells at the postsynaptic membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis (due to MuSK and LRP4 antibodies)?

A
  • Important proteins for creation and organisation of acetylcholine receptors
  • Destruction causes inadequate acetylcholine receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the characteristic feature of myasthenia gravis?

A

Weakness that gets worse with muscle use and improves with rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are 7 symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

A
  1. Diplopia
  2. Ptosis
  3. Weakness in facial movements
  4. Difficulty with swallowing
  5. Fatigue in jaw when chewing
  6. Slurred speech
  7. Progressive weakness with repetitive movements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are 5 investigations for patients with myasthenia gravis?

A
  1. Check fatiguability in muscles
  2. Check for a thymectomy scar or CT/MRI of thymus gland
  3. Test forced vital capacity (FVC)
  4. Antibodies
  5. Edrophonium test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are 3 ways of checking fatiguability in muscles?

A
  1. Repeated blinking will exacerbate ptosis
  2. Prolonged upward gazing with exacerbate diplopia
  3. Repeated abduction of one arm 20 times will result in unilateral weakness when comparing both sides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which 3 antibodies should you test for in myasthenia gravis?

A
  1. Acetylcholine receptor antibodies (85%)
  2. Muscle-specific kinase antibodies (10%)
  3. Low-density lipoprotein receptor-related protein antibodies (<5%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the edrophonium test?

A
  • Patient given IV dose of edrophonium chloride
  • Acetylcholinesterase enzymes break down acetylcholine in neuromuscular junctions
  • Edrophonium blocks enzymes to stop the breakdown of acetylcholine
  • Level of acetylcholine increases
  • Briefly and temporarily relieves weakness in patients with myasthenia gravis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the treatment for myasthenia gravis?

A
  • Reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors e.g. pyridostigmine, neostigmine
  • Immunosuppression e.g. prednisolone, azathioprine
  • Thymectomy
  • Monoclonal antibodies e.g. rituximab, eculizumab
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of drugs are pyridostigmine and neostigmine and how do they work?

A

Reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitors - increase the amount of acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction and improve symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is rituximab and how does it work?

A

Monoclonal antibody - targets B cells and reduces the production of antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is eculizumab and how does it work?

A

Monoclonal antibody - targets complement protein C5 to reduce inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the main complication of myasthenia gravis?

A

Myasthenia crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does a myasthenia crisis cause?

A
  • Acute worsening of symptoms (often triggered by another illness e.g. respiratory tract infection)
  • Can lead to respiratory failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is a myasthenia crisis treated?

A
  • Non-invasive ventilation with BiPAP or full intubation and ventilation
  • Immunomodulatory therapies e.g. IV immunoglobulins and plasma exchange
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease?

A

Progressive reduction of dopamine in the basal ganglia leading to disorders of movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Parkinson’s disease

A
  • Most common in older men
  • 2nd most common neurodegenerative disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are 3 risk factors for Parkinson’s disease?

A
  1. Age
  2. Male
  3. Pesticide exposure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Parkinson’s disease

A
  • Basal ganglia are a group of structure responsible for coordinating habitual movements
  • Substantia nigra pars compacta is a part of the basal ganglia that produces dopamine which is essential for the correct functioning of the basal ganglia
  • Parkinson’s = gradual fall in the production of dopamine (impaired nigrostriatal pathway)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the classic triad for Parkinson’s disease?

A
  1. Resting unilateral tremor
  2. ‘Cogwheel’ rigidity
  3. Bradykinesia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does a Parkinson’s tremor differ from a benign essential tremor?

A
  • Asymmetrical
  • 4-6 Hz frequency
  • ‘Pill rolling’ tremor
  • Improves on voluntary movement
  • Worsened if patient is distracted
  • No change with alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How does bradykinesia present in Parkinson’s patients?

A
  • Handwriting gets smaller
  • Can only take small steps when walking
  • Difficulty initiating movement
  • Difficulty turning around when standing
  • Reduced facial movements/expressions (hypomimia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are 5 other clinical presentations of Parkinson’s disease?

A
  1. Depression
  2. Sleep disturbance and insomnia
  3. Loss of sense of smell (anosmia)
  4. Postural instability
  5. Cognitive impairment and memory problems
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the treatment for Parkinson’s disease?

A
  • Synthetic dopamine (levodopa)
  • COMT inhibitors (entacapone)
  • Dopamine agonists (bromocriptine, pergolide, cabergoline)
  • Monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors (selegiline, rasagiline)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is synthetic dopamine often combined with when treating Parkinson’s disease?

A

Peripheral decarboxylase inhibitors e.g. carbidopa, benserazide (stop levodopa being broken down in the body before it can reach the brain)
- Co-beneldopa
- Co-careldopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do COMT inhibitors do and give an example?

A
  • Inhibit catechol-o-methyltransferase (enzyme that metabolises catecholamine neurotransmitters in the body and brain)
  • Extends the effective duration of levodopa
  • E.g. Entacapone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do dopamine agonists do and give 3 examples?

A

Mimic dopamine in the basal ganglia and stimulate dopamine receptors
1. Bromocriptine
2. Pergolide
3. Cabergoline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What do monoamine oxidase-B inhibitors do and give 2 examples?

A

Inhibit monoamine oxidase-B (enzyme that breaks down dopamine)
1. Selegiline
2. Rasagiline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are 3 side effects of excess levodopa (excess dopamine)?

A

Dyskinesias:
1. Dystonia (abnormal posture or exaggerated movements)
2. Chorea (abnormal involuntary jerking movements)
3. Athetosis (involuntary twisting/writhing movements)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a side effect of dopamine agonists?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Huntington’s disease?

A

Autosomal dominant genetic condition that causes a progressive deterioration in the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which gene in affected in Huntington’s disease?

A
  • Autosomal dominant condition
  • Increase of CAG repeats on the Huntington (HTT) gene on chromosome 4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Huntington’s disease

A

Symptoms begin around age 30-50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Huntington’s disease

A
  • Caudate nucleus atrophies
  • Inhibitory neurones in the corpus striatum degenerate
  • Lack of GABA and excessive nigrostriatal pathway activation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Explain the genetics of Huntington’s disease

A
  • Trinucleotide repeat disorder that involves a genetic mutation in the HTT gene on chromosome 4
  • Anticipation = successive generations have more repeats in the gene resulting in earlier age of onset and increased severity of disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are 4 clinical presentations of Huntington’s disease?

A
  1. Chorea (involuntary, abnormal movements)
  2. Eye movement disorders
  3. Dysarthria (speech difficulties)
  4. Dysphagia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are 2 investigations for patients with Huntington’s disease?

A
  1. Genetic test for faulty gene (HTT gene)
  2. MRI/CT (loss of striatal volume)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the treatment for Huntington’s disease?

A

No treatment
Symptomatic relief:
- Antipsychotics e.g. olanzapine
- Benzodiazepines e.g. diazepam
- Dopamine-depleting agents e.g. tetrabenazine
- Antidepressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the life expectancy of patients with Huntington’s disease?

A

15-20 years after the onset of symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the 2 most common causes of death in patients with Huntington’s disease?

A
  1. Respiratory disease e.g. pneumonia
  2. Suicide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A

An acute paralytic polyneuropathy that affects the peripheral nervous system, usually triggered by infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Associated with campylobacter jejuni, cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Molecular mimicry:
- B cells create antibodies against pathogen’s antigens
- These antibodies also match proteins on nerve cells
- Proteins on the myelin sheath of motor nerve cells or nerve axons are targeted (Schwann cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are 8 clinical presentations of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A
  1. Symmetrical ascending weakness (starts at feet and moves up)
  2. Reduced reflexes
  3. Peripheral loss of sensation
  4. Neuropathic pain
  5. Facial nerve weakness
  6. Breathing problems
  7. Urinary retention
  8. Sweating
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are 2 investigations for patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A
  1. Nerve conduction studies = reduced signal through nerves
  2. Lumbar puncture for CSF = raised protein with normal cell count and glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A
  • IV immunoglobulins
  • Immunosuppression
  • Plasma exchange (alternative to IV Ig)
  • Supportive care
  • VTE prophylaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What 2 complications of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

A
  1. Respiratory failure
  2. Locked in syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is multiple sclerosis (MS)?

A

Chronic inflammation of the CNS causing demyelination of myelinated neurones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe the epidemiology of MS

A
  • More common in females
  • Typically presents in young adults under 50 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are 5 causes/associations of MS?

A
  1. Genetics (multiple genes)
  2. Epstein-Barr virus
  3. Low vitamin D
  4. Smoking
  5. Obesity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of MS

A
  • Typically only affects the CNS (oligodendrocytes)
  • Inflammation and infiltration of immune cells causes damage to the myelin
  • Lesions vary in location over time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are 5 clinical presentations of MS?

A
  1. Optic neuritis (demyelination of optic nerve)
  2. Eye movement abnormalities (due to lesions in abducens nerve)
  3. Focal weakness
  4. Focal sensory symptoms
  5. Ataxia (problems with coordinated movement)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Describe the presentation of optic neuritis in patients with MS

A
  • Unilateral reduced vision
  • Central scotoma (enlarged blind spot)
  • Pain on eye movement
  • Impaired coloured vision
  • Relative afferent pupillary defect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Describe eye movement abnormalities in patients with MS

A
  • Diplopia
  • Internuclear ophthalmoplegia (unilateral lesions - problems with muscles around the eye)
  • Conjugate lateral gaze disorder (eye don’t move together to look laterally)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Describe focal weakness in patients with MS

A
  • Bells palsy (sudden weakness in muscles on one side of face)
  • Horners syndrome (ptosis, miosis, anhidrosis)
  • Limb paralysis
  • Incontinence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Describe focal sensory symptoms in patients with MS

A
  • Trigeminal neuralgia
  • Numbness
  • Paraesthesia (pins and needles)
  • Lhermitte’s sign (electric shock sensation)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Describe ataxia in patients with MS

A
  • Sensory ataxia (loss of proprioceptive sense)
  • Cerebellar ataxia (problems with cerebellum coordinating movement)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the 4 disease patterns of MS?

A
  1. Clinically isolated syndrome
  2. Relapsing-remitting
  3. Secondary progressive
  4. Primary progressive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is clinically isolated syndrome in MS?

A
  • First episode of demyelination and neurological signs and symptoms
  • Cannot diagnose with MS (as some patients may never have another episode or develop MS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is relapsing-remitting in MS?

A
  • Episodes of disease and neurological symptoms followed by recovery
  • Can be further classified as active/not active, progressing/not progressing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is secondary progressive in MS?

A
  • Relapsing-remitting disease at first but now progressive worsening of symptoms with incomplete remissions
  • Can be further classified as active/not active, progressing/not progressing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is primary progressive in MS?

A

Worsening of disease and neurological symptoms without initial relapse and remission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What does active/not active, progressing/not progressing mean in MS?

A

Active = new symptoms/lesions developing
Not active = no new symptoms/lesions developing
Progressing = overall worsening of disabilities/disease over time
Not progressing = no worsening of disabilities/disease over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are 4 investigations for patients with MS?

A
  1. Exclude other causes for symptoms
  2. Symptoms must be progressive over a period of 1 year = diagnosis
  3. MRI for lesions
  4. Lumbar puncture for CSF = oligoclonal bands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for MS?

A

McDonald’s criteria:
- Dissemination in time (damage that happened at more than 1 point in time)
- Disseminated in space (damage in at least 2 regions of the brain/spinal cord)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the treatment for MS?

A
  • Disease modifying drugs and biological therapy (interleukins, inflammatory cytokines, immune cells)
  • Steroids e.g. methylprednisolone (for relapse)
  • Steroids for optic neuritis
  • Symptomatic releief
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What symptomatic relief is given for MS?

A
  • Neuropathic pain relief e.g. amitriptyline, gabapentin
  • Antidepressants
  • Anticholinergic medication for urge incontinence e.g. tolterodine, oxybutynin
  • Medication for spasticity e.g. baclofen, gabapentin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is a side effect of anticholinergic medication?

A

Can worsen cognitive impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation in the meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are 4 causes of bacterial meningitis?

A
  1. Neonates = group B strep (s. agalactiae)
  2. Children <2 = strep pneumoniae
  3. Up to 50 years = neisseria meningitis (meningococcus), strep pneumoniae
  4. > 50 = strep pneumoniae, listeria meningitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are 2 causes of viral meningitis?

A
  1. Enterovirus
  2. HSV (herpes simplex virus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are 2 causes of fungal meningitis?

A
  1. Cryptococcus
  2. Candida
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are 6 risk factors for meningitis?

A
  1. Student
  2. Travel
  3. Immunocompromised
  4. Pregnancy
  5. Extremes of ages
  6. Unvaccinated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is characteristic symptom of meningococcal septicaemia?

A

Non-blanching rash - indicates the infection has caused disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) and subcutaneous haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What are 7 clinical presentations of meningitis?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Neck stiffness
  3. Vomiting
  4. Headache
  5. Photophobia
  6. Altered consciousness
  7. Seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are 5 non-specific clinical presentations of meningitis (often in neonates/babies)?

A
  1. Hypotonia
  2. Poor feeding
  3. Lethargy
  4. Hypothermia
  5. Bulging fontanelle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are 5 investigations for patients with meningitis?

A
  1. Lumbar puncture for CSF
  2. Blood culture
  3. Bloods (meningococcal PCR)
  4. Kernig’s test
  5. Brudzinski’s test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What in the CSF do we look at when investigating meningitis?

A
  • Bacterial culture
  • Viral PCR
  • Cell count
  • Protein
  • Glucose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Describe the differences in CSF with bacterial and viral meningitis

A
  • Bacterial = cloudy, viral = clear
  • Bacterial = high protein, viral = mildly raised/normal
  • Bacterial = low glucose, viral = normal glucose
  • High WCC (bacterial = neutrophils, viral = lymphocytes)
  • Culture (bacterial = bacteria, viral = negative)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is Kernig’s test?

A
  • Patient lies on back, flexing one hip and knee to 90 degrees and then slowly straightening the knee whilst keeping the hip flexed at 90 degrees
  • Meningitis = spinal pain or resistance to movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is Brudzinski’s test?

A
  • Patient lies on back
  • Lift their head and neck off the bed and flex their chin to their chest
  • Positive = patient involuntarily flexes hip and knees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the treatment for bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Meningitis and non-blanching rash = IM/IV benzylpenicillin
  • Cefotaxime plus amoxicillin (under 3 months)
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Vancomycin
  • Steroids (dexamethasone)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What other treatment is given for meningitis?

A

Post exposure prophylaxis = ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the treatment for viral meningitis?

A

Aciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are 7 complications of meningitis?

A
  1. Hearing loss
  2. Seizures and epilepsy
  3. Cognitive impairment and learning disability
  4. Memory loss
  5. Cerebral palsy
  6. Limb weakness
  7. Spasticity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is encephalitis?

A

Inflammation of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the most common cause of encephalitis?

A

Herpes simplex type 1 (HSV-1) from cold sores (95%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are 5 other causes of encephalitis?

A
  1. Herpes simplex type 2 (HSV-2) from genital herpes (neonates)
  2. Varicella zoster virus (VZV) associated with chickenpox
  3. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) associated with immunodeficiency
  4. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) associated with infectious mononucleosis, enterovirus, adenovirus and influenza virus
  5. Viruses from vaccinations (polio, mumps, rubella, measles)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are 2 risk factors for encephalitis?

A
  1. Extremes of ages
  2. Immunocompromised
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are 8 clinical presentations of encephalitis?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Headache
  3. Encephalopathy
  4. Altered consciousness
  5. Altered cognition
  6. Unusual behaviour
  7. Acute onset of focal neurological symptoms
  8. Acute onset of focal seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are 4 investigations for patients with encephalitis?

A
  1. Lumbar puncture for CSF (viral PCR testing, CSF may show uraemia)
  2. CT/MRI (unilateral temporal encephalitis)
  3. Swabs
  4. HIV testing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the treatment for encephalitis?

A
  • Aciclovir (for HSV and VZV)
  • Ganciclovir (for CMV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are 9 complications of encephalitis?

A
  1. Lasting fatigue and prolonged recovery
  2. Change in personality or mood
  3. Changes to memory and cognition
  4. Learning disability
  5. Chronic pain
  6. Movement disorders
  7. Sensory disturbance
  8. Seizures
  9. Hormonal imbalance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is dementia?

A

Irreversible, progressive decline and impairment of more than one aspect of higher brain function (concentration, memory, language, personality, emotion) without impairment of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Alzheimer’s disease

A
  • Most common type of dementia
  • Most common neurodegenerative disorder
  • Commonly affects patients over 65
  • More common in females
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are 5 risk factors for Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  1. Down’s syndrome
  2. ApoE E4 allele homozygosity
  3. Reduced cognitive activity
  4. Depression/loneliness
  5. Increasing age
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Alzheimer’s disease

A
  • Extra-cellular deposition of beta-amyloid plaques
  • Tau-containing intracellular neurofibrillary tangles
  • Accumulation leads to damaged synapses and atrophy
  • Tends to progress steadily over time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are 5 clinical presentations of Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  1. Memory - episodic and semantic
  2. Language - difficulty understanding or finding words
  3. Attention and concentration issues
  4. Psychiatric changes e.g. withdrawal, delusions
  5. Disorientation e.g. time and surroundings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are 4 investigations for patients with Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  1. MMSE (mini mental state examination)
  2. Bloods - TFTs, B12
  3. Memory clinical assessment
  4. MRI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the treatment for Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • No cure
  • Supportive therapy
  • Symptomatic management (acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitors e.g. galantamine, donepazil, rivastigmine)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Describe the epidemiology of frontotemporal dementia

A
  • More common dementia in patients under 65
  • 5% of dementias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What is a risk factor for frontotemporal dementia?

A

Family history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of frontotemporal dementia

A
  • Atrophy of frontal and temporal lobes
  • Loss of neurons but no plaque formation
  • Tau protein +ve or TDP-43 +VE inclusions
  • Onset tends to be insidious and progressive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the 3 main symptoms of frontotemporal dementia?

A
  1. Behavioural issues
  2. Progressive aphasia
  3. Semantic dementia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are 3 behavioural issues that present in frontotemporal dementia?

A
  1. Loss of inhibition/empathy
  2. Compulsive behaviours
  3. Difficulty planning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What are 2 progressive aphasia presentations in frontotemporal dementia?

A
  1. Slow, difficulty speech
  2. Grammatical errors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What are 3 semantic dementia presentations in frontotemporal dementia?

A
  1. Loss of vocabulary
  2. Problems understanding
  3. Inability to recognise objects or familiar faces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are 4 investigations for patients with frontotemporal dementia?

A
  1. Bloods - B12, TFTs, U&Es
  2. FBC and LFTs (for suspected encephalopathy)
  3. MMSE (mini mental state examination)
  4. MRI (frontal/temporal atrophy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the treatment for frontotemporal dementia?

A
  • No cure
  • Supportive therapy
  • SSRIs
  • Levdopa/carbidopa (if Parkinson’s symptoms present)
  • Stop exacerbating drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Lewy Body dementia

A
  • Most commonly affects patients over 50
  • More common in males
  • Most commonly associated with Parkinson’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Lewy Body dementia

A
  • Eosinophilic intracytoplasmic neuronal inclusion bodies (Lewy bodies) in the brainstem and neocortex
  • Substantia nigra depigmentation and amyloid deposits
  • Rapidly progressive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are 7 clinical presentations of Lewy Body dementia?

A
  1. Loss of cognitive function
  2. Spatial awareness difficulties
  3. Visual hallucinations
  4. Problems multitasking
  5. Sleep disorders and restless leg syndrome
  6. Memory loss
  7. Parkinson-like symptoms (tremor, rigidity, change in gait)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are 5 investigations for patients with Lewy Body dementia?

A
  1. MMSE (mini mental state examination)
  2. Bloods - B12, TFTs, U&Es
  3. MRI
  4. MSU (mid stream specimen of urine - to check for urine infection)
  5. SPECT/PET scan (low dopamine transported uptake in basal ganglia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

How is Lewy Body dementia diagnosed?

A

Presence of dementia with 2 of:
- Fluctuating attention and concentration
- Recurrent well-formed visual hallucinations
- Spontaneous Parkinsonism
^ if only 1, diagnosis can be made with SPECT/PET scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the treatment for Lewy Body dementia?

A
  • Supportive therapy
  • Cholinesterase inhibitors e.g. rivastigmine (to help with cognitive decline)
  • Avoid use of neuroleptic drugs e.g. haloperidol (can produce severe sensitivity reactions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What is the average prognosis of Lewy Body dementia?

A

Death most commonly in the first 7 years post-diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Describe the epidemiology of vascular dementia

A
  • 2nd most common type of dementia
  • More common in males
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What is the cause of vascular dementia?

A

Multiple small cerebrovascular infarcts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What are 7 risk factors for vascular dementia?

A
  1. Previous stroke/TIA
  2. Hypertension
  3. Smoking
  4. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
  5. Hyperlipidaemia
  6. Obesity
  7. Hypercholesterolaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of vascular dementia

A
  • Most commonly affects white matter of both cerebral hemispheres, grey nuclei, thalamus, striatum
  • Progresses in a sudden stepwise fashion (period of stability, acute decline progression, period of stability)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are 4 clinical presentations of vascular dementia?

A
  1. Cognitive impairment
  2. Mood disturbances and mood disorders
  3. Visual disturbances
  4. UMN signs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What are 5 mood disturbances and mood disorders in vascular dementia?

A
  1. Psychosis
  2. Delusions
  3. Hallucinations
  4. Paranoia
  5. Depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are 3 UMN signs in vascular dementia?

A
  1. Muscle weakness
  2. Overactive reflexes
  3. Clonus (involuntary and rhythmic muscle contractions)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are 3 investigations for patients with vascular dementia?

A
  1. MRI (infarcts)
  2. Patient history (e.g. for previous strokes)
  3. Cognitive impairment screen (orientation, attention, language, visuospatial functions, motor control)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the treatment for vascular dementia?

A
  • Manage predisposing factors
  • Supportive therapy
  • Symptom control with antidepressants (SSRIs) or anti-psychotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are the primary headaches?

A

Migraine, tension, cluster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is a migraine?

A

Recurrent, throbbing headache often preceded by an aura and associated with nausea, vomiting and visual change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Describe the epidemiology of migraines

A
  • Most common cause of episodic headaches
  • 3 x more common in females
  • 90% have an onset before 40 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What are the triggers for migraines?

A

CHOCOLATE
C - chocolate
H - hangovers
O - orgasms
C - cheese
O - oral contraceptives
L - lie-ins
A - alcohol
T - tumult (loud noises)
E - exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are 3 risk factors for migraines?

A
  1. Genetics/family history
  2. Female
  3. Age (adolescence)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Describe a theory for the pathophysiology of migraines

A

Irritation of trigeminal nuclei within the brainstem due to changes to arterial blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What are 4 symptoms of migraines?

A
  1. Unilateral, throbbing-type pain (moderate to severe intensity)
  2. Nausea/vomiting
  3. Motion sensitivity
  4. Photophobia/phonophobia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are 3 prodrome symptoms of migraines?

A
  1. Yawning
  2. Cravings
  3. Mood/sleep changes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is aura?

A
  • Precedes migraine attacks
  • Visual disturbances e.g. lines, dots, zig zags
  • Somatosensory disturbances e.g. paraesthesia, pins and needles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What are 2 investigations for patients with migraines?

A
  1. CT/MRI
  2. Lumbar puncture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

How are migraines diagnosed?

A

At least 2 of:
- Unilateral pain (4-72 hours)
- Throbbing-type pain
- Moderate to severe intensity
- Motion sensitivity
Plus at least 1 of:
- Nausea/vomiting
- Photophobia/phonophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is the treatment for migraines?

A
  • Triptans e.g. sumatriptan
  • NSAIDs e.g. naproxen
  • Anti-emetics e.g. prochlorperazine
  • Avoid opioids and ergotamine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is used to prevent migraines?

A
  • Beta blockers e.g. propranolol
  • TCAs e.g. amitriptyline
  • Anti-convulsants e.g. topiramate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is a tension headache?

A

Mild to moderate pain that is often described as feeling like a tight band around the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Describe the epidemiology of tension headaches

A

Most common chronic daily and recurrent headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What are 9 triggers of tension headaches?

A
  1. Stress
  2. Sleep deprivation
  3. Bad posture
  4. Hunger
  5. Eyestrain
  6. Anxiety/depression
  7. Noise
  8. Dehydration
  9. Alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is the difference between episodic and chronic tension headaches?

A

Episodic <15 days/month
Chronic >15 days/month (for at least 3 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of tension headaches

A
  • Muscle ache in the frontalis, temporalis and occipitalis muscles
  • Come on and resolve gradually
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is the main symptom of tension headaches?

A

‘Pressure behind eyes’ - no aura, vomiting or sensitivity to head movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What is the treatment for tension headaches?

A
  • Avoidance of triggers and stress relief
  • Basic analgesia (aspirin, paracetamol, ibuprofen - avoid opioids)
  • Relaxation techniques
  • Hot towels to local area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is a cluster headache?

A

Excruciating attacks of pain in one side of the head, often felt around the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Describe the epidemiology of cluster headaches

A
  • 4 x more common in males
  • Much rarer than migraines
  • Typically affects adults in 20s-40s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are 4 risk factors for cluster headaches?

A
  1. Male
  2. Genetics (autosomal dominant gene has a link)
  3. Smoker
  4. Alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

How long do cluster headaches last?

A

Episodic headaches, lasting from 7 days up to 1 year with pain-free periods in between that last ~4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

How do cluster headaches present?

A
  • Rapid onset of excruciating pain, classically around the eye (or temples or forehead)
  • Pain is strictly unilateral and localised to one area
  • Pain rises to a crescendo over a few minutes and lasts for 15-160 minutes, once or twice a day, usually around the same time of day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What are 5 ipsilateral autonomic features of cluster headaches?

A
  1. Watery and bloodshot eyes
  2. Facial flushing
  3. Rhinorrhoea (runny nose)
  4. Miosis
  5. Ptosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What is the treatment for acute cluster headaches?

A
  • Analgesics unhelpful
  • 15L 100% O2 for 15 mins via non-rebreather mask
  • Triptans e.g. sumatriptan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What is used to prevent cluster headaches?

A
  • Verapamil (CCB - 1st line)
  • Prednisolone
  • Reduced alcohol consumption and stop smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Type of secondary headache causing sudden, severe facial pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Describe the epidemiology of trigeminal neuralgia

A

Around 5-10% of people with multiple sclerosis have trigeminal neuralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What are 4 triggers for trigeminal neuralgia?

A
  1. Cold weather
  2. Spicy food
  3. Caffeine
  4. Citrus fruits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Describe a theory for the pathophysiology of trigeminal neuralgia

A

Compression of the trigeminal nerve and its branches (ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

How does trigeminal neuralgia present?

A
  • Intense facial pain that comes on spontaneously and lasts anywhere between a few second to hours
  • Often described an electricity-like shooting pain
  • Attacks often worsen over time
  • 90% unilateral, 10% bilateral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is the treatment for trigeminal neuralgia?

A
  • Carbamazepine
  • Surgery to decompress or intentionally damage trigeminal nerve
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is amaurosis fugax?

A

Temporary blockage of artery to retina resulting in loss of vision in one or both eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

When does amaurosis fugax happen?

A

Can happen as a result of strokes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is epilepsy?

A

The recurrent tendency to spontaneous, intermittent, abnormal electrical activity in part of the brain, manifesting in seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Describe the epidemiology of epilepsy

A

Onset is most common in the extremes of ages e.g. <20 or >60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What are 6 causes of epilepsy?

A
  1. 2/3 idiopathic, often familial
  2. Cortical scarring e.g. trauma, cerebrovascular disease, infection
  3. Tumours/space-occupying lesions
  4. Strokes
  5. Alzheimer’s
  6. Alcohol withdrawal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

What are 4 risk factors for epilepsy?

A
  1. Family history
  2. Premature babies
  3. Abnormal cerebral blood vessels
  4. Drugs e.g. cocaine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of epilepsy

A
  • Seizures/convulsions are motor signs of abnormal electrical discharges
  • Epileptic seizures are convulsions that result directly from epileptic syndromes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Describe 6 ways in which non epileptic seizures differ from epileptic seizures

A
  1. Occur in abnormal metabolic circumstances e.g. low Na+, hypoxia
  2. Longer than epileptic seizures
  3. Do not occur in sleep
  4. No incontinence or tongue biting
  5. Pre-ictal anxiety signs
  6. No muscle pain
171
Q

What are the 3 components of a seizure?

A
  1. Prodrome
  2. Aura
  3. Post-ictal
172
Q

What is the prodrome component of a seizure?

A
  • Precedes seizures by hours to days
  • Weird feeling (mood, behavioural changes)
173
Q

What is the aura component of a seizure?

A
  • Patient is aware and precedes other manifestations
  • Strange feelings in gut
  • Deja vu
  • Strange smells
  • Flashing lights
  • Can occur before a partial seizure
174
Q

What is the post-ictal component of a seizure?

A
  • After seizure
  • Headache
  • Confusion
  • Myalgia
  • Sore tongue (often bitten)
  • Temporary weakness after focal seizure in motor cortex = post-ictal Todd’s palsy
  • Dysphasia after temporal lobe seizure
175
Q

What is the diagnosis criteria for epilepsy?

A

One of:
- At least 2 unprovoked seizures occurring more than 24 hours apart
- 1 unprovoked seizure and a probability of future seizures (>60% risk in 10 years)
- Diagnosis of an epileptic syndrome

176
Q

What are 4 investigations for patients with epilepsy?

A
  1. Electroencephalogram (EEG)
  2. MRI (find structural problems e.g. tumours, space-occupying lesions that may be associated with seizures)
  3. ECG (to exclude heart problems)
  4. Bloods (to exclude metabolic disturbances)
177
Q

What are 7 medication options for epilepsy/seizures?

A
  1. Sodium valproate
  2. Carbamazepine
  3. Lamotrigine
  4. Ethosuximide
  5. Phenytoin
  6. Levetiracetam
  7. Topiramate
178
Q

Females of child-bearing potential experiencing seizures should not be given what medication?

A

Sodium valproate, carbamazepine

179
Q

What are the 2 broad types of seizures?

A
  1. Primary generalised seizures
  2. Partial focal seizures
180
Q

What are primary generalised seizures?

A

Abnormal electrical activity in both hemispheres of the brain

181
Q

Describe primary generalised seizures

A
  • 40% of seizures
  • Whole cortex affected
  • Bilateral and symmetrical motor manifestations
  • Loss of consciousness and awareness
182
Q

What are 6 types of primary generalised seizures?

A
  1. Tonic
  2. Clonic
  3. Tonic clonic
  4. Myoclonic
  5. Atonic
  6. Absence
183
Q

What are 6 clinical presentations of tonic clonic seizures?

A
  1. Loss of consciousness
  2. Tonic (muscle tensing) and clonic (muscle jerking) episodes (tonic usually comes before clonic)
  3. Tongue biting
  4. Incontinence
  5. Groaning
  6. Irregular breathing
184
Q

Describe the post-ictal period of a tonic clonic seizure

A

Patient is confused, drowsy and feels irritable or depressed

185
Q

What is the treatment for tonic clonic seizures?

A
  • Sodium valproate (first line)
  • Lamotrigine or carbamazepine (second line)
186
Q

What are 2 clinical presentations of myoclonic seizures?

A
  1. Sudden brief muscle contractions (sudden ‘jump’)
  2. Patient is usually awake during the episode
187
Q

Who do myoclonic seizures most commonly occur in?

A

Children as part of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

188
Q

What is the treatment for myoclonic epilepsy?

A
  • Sodium valproate (first line)
  • Lamotrigine, levetiracetam or topiramate
189
Q

What are 4 clinical presentations of atonic seizures?

A
  1. Brief lapses in muscle tone
  2. Sudden loss of muscle strength
  3. Part/all of the body becomes limp (a.k.a ‘drop attacks’)
  4. Usually last <3 minutes
190
Q

Who do atonic seizures most commonly occur in?

A
  • Typically begin in childhood
  • May be indicative of Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
191
Q

What is the treatment for atonic seizures?

A
  • Sodium valproate (first line)
  • Lamotrigine (second line)
192
Q

What are 4 clinical presentations of absence seizures?

A
  1. Patient become blank and stares into space
  2. Abruptly returns to normal
  3. Patient is unaware of their surroundings and won’t respond during the episode
  4. Typically only last 10-20 seconds
193
Q

Who do absence seizures most commonly occur in?

A
  • Children
  • > 90% of patients stop having absence seizures as they get older
194
Q

What is the treatment for absence seizures?

A

Sodium valproate or ethosuximide

195
Q

Describe partial focal seizures

A
  • 60% (most common type of seizure experience by people with epilepsy)
  • Starts in one side of the brain and usually only affects one side of the body
196
Q

Describe single lobe features of partial focal seizures

A
  • Underlying structural disease
  • Limited to a lobe
  • Progresses to become generalised seizures
197
Q

Describe simple partial seizures

A
  • Does not affected consciousness/memory
  • No post-ictal signs
  • Motor, sensory, autonomic, psychic signs
198
Q

Describe complex partial seizures

A
  • Memory affected before, during and after
  • Usually affects temporal lobe
  • Post-ictal confusion common in temporal lobe seizures
199
Q

What are 5 clinical presentations of seizures affecting the temporal lobes?

A
  1. Hallucinations
  2. Memory flashbacks
  3. Deja vu
  4. Anxiety
  5. Automatisms e.g. lip smacking
200
Q

What do seizures affecting the temporal lobes affect?

A

Hearing, speech, memory and emotions

201
Q

What is the treatment for seizures affecting the temporal lobes?

A
  • Lamotrigine or carbamazepine (first line)
  • Sodium valproate or levetiracetam (second line)
202
Q

How do seizures affecting the frontal lobes present?

A
  • Motor disturbances
  • Jacksonian march (abnormal movement/sensation starting in a small area and then ‘marching’/spreading to a larger part of the body
  • Patients do not lose awareness
  • Post-ictal Todd’s palsy
203
Q

What do seizures affecting the parietal lobes affect?

204
Q

What do seizures affecting the occipital lobes affect?

A

Vision (visual phenomena e.g. spots, lines, flashes)

205
Q

What is sciatica?

A

Pain that travels along the path of the sciatic nerve (L4-S3)

206
Q

What are 9 causes of spinal cord compression?

A
  1. Osteoarthritis
  2. Trauma
  3. Tumours
  4. Central disc protrusion
  5. Prolapsed disc (L4-L5 and L5-S1 most common)
  6. Epidural haematoma
  7. Infection
  8. Cervical spondylitic myelopathy
  9. Scoliosis
207
Q

What are 3 causes of sciatica?

A
  1. Herniated disc
  2. Spondylolisthesis
  3. Spinal stenosis
208
Q

What is spondylolisthesis?

A

Anterior displacement of a vertebra out of line with the one below

209
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of spinal cord compression

A
  • Pressure on the spinal cord causes nerves in the spinal cord to swell and slow down/block blood supply
  • Nerves are unable to function normally
210
Q

What does the sciatic nerve do?

A
  • Supplies sensation to the lateral lower leg and the foot
  • Supplies motor function to the posterior thigh, lower leg and foot
211
Q

Where does the sciatic nerve divide?

A

At the knee into the tibial and common peroneal nerves

212
Q

What are 3 red flag presentations in spinal cord compression?

A
  1. Loss of bladder/bowel function
  2. UMN in lower limbs e.g. clonus, hyperreflexia
  3. LMN signs in upper limbs e.g. atrophy
213
Q

What are 4 clinical presentations of spinal cord compression?

A
  1. Pain and stiffness in the neck, back or lower back
  2. Paraplegia
  3. Paraesthesia
  4. Changes to tendon reflexes
214
Q

What are 5 clinical presentations of sciatica?

A
  1. Unilateral ‘shooting’/’electric’ pain from the buttock radiating to the back of the thigh to below the knee or feet
  2. Paraesthesia
  3. Numbness
  4. Motor weakness
  5. Affected reflexes
215
Q

What is bilateral sciatica an indication of?

A

Cauda equina syndrome

216
Q

What are 5 investigations for patients with spinal cord compression/sciatica?

A
  1. History (SOCRATES for pain, any trauma etc.)
  2. X-ray/CT whole spine
  3. MRI (if suspected cauda equina)
  4. Haemoglobin - to monitor blood loss
  5. Check renal function
217
Q

What is a specific investigation for sciatica?

A

Sciatic stretch test

218
Q

Describe the sciatic stretch test

A
  • Patient lies on their back with leg straight
  • Examiner lifts one leg from the ankle with the knee extended until the limit of hip flexion is reached
  • Examiner dorsiflexes the patient’s ankle
  • Sciatica-type pain in the buttock/posterior thigh indicates sciatic nerve root irritation
  • Symptoms improve with flexing the knee
219
Q

What is the treatment for spinal cord compression/sciatica?

A
  • Dexamethasone until treatment plan confirmed
  • Catheterisation
  • Analgesia
  • Surgical decompression
  • Chemotherapy if indicated
220
Q

What are 3 complications of spinal cord compression/sciatica?

A
  1. Cauda equina syndrome
  2. Chronic pain
  3. Paralysis
221
Q

What is cauda equina syndrome?

A

Compression of the nerve roots of the cauda equina at the bottom of the spine

222
Q

What are 5 causes of cauda equina syndrome?

A
  1. Herniated disc (most common)
  2. Tumours
  3. Spondylolisthesis
  4. Abscess (infection)
  5. Trauma
223
Q

What does the cauda equina do?

A
  • Supplies sensation to the lower limbs, perineum, bladder and rectum
  • Supplies motor innervation to the lower limbs and the anal and urethral sphincters
  • Supplies parasympathetic innervation of the bladder and rectum
224
Q

What are 8 clinical presentations of cauda equina syndrome?

A
  1. Saddle anaesthesia (loss of sensation in the perineum)
  2. Loss of sensation in bladder and rectum
  3. Urinary retention or incontinence
  4. Faecal incontinence
  5. Bilateral sciatica
  6. Bilateral or severe motor weakness in legs
  7. Reduced anal tone
  8. LMN signs (reduced tone and reflexes)
225
Q

What is the investigation for cauda equina syndrome?

226
Q

What is the treatment for cauda equina syndrome?

A

Neurosurgical emergency:
- Immediate hospital admission
- Emergency MRI
- Emergency lumbar decompression surgery
- Anti inflammatory agents
- Antibiotics if infection present
- Chemotherapy if indicated

227
Q

What is a complication of cauda equina syndrome?

A

Permanent neurological dysfunction

228
Q

What is an ischaemic stroke?

A

Occlusion of blood vessels to/in the brain due to a clot

229
Q

What are 4 causes of ischaemic strokes/transient ischaemic attacks?

A
  1. Thromboemboli
  2. Hypoviscosity
  3. Hypoperfusion
  4. Vasculitis
230
Q

What are 9 risk factors for ischaemic/haemorrhagic strokes or transient ischaemic attacks?

A

Same as CVD risk factors:
1. Age
2. Male
3. HTN
4. Smoking
5. Diabetes
6. Recent/past TIA
7. Hyperlipidaemia
8. Heart disease (IHD, valve disease)
9. AF

231
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of ischaemic strokes

A
  • Clot occludes a blood vessel
  • Causes ischaemia and infarction to certain areas of the brain
232
Q

What is a cerebral infarct?

A
  • Occlusion of large blood vessel to cerebrum e.g. internal carotid artery, middle cerebral artery
  • More common
233
Q

What is a lacunar infarct?

A
  • Occlusion of smaller blood vessels
  • Affects smaller areas and produces more specific symptoms
  • e.g. internal capsule, basal ganglia, thalamus, pons
  • Rarer and often asymptomatic
234
Q

What are 4 clinical presentations of ischaemic/haemorrhagic strokes and transient ischaemic attacks?

A
  1. Sudden weakness of limbs and face
  2. Dysphasia
  3. Vision and unilateral, asymmetrical, contralateral sensory loss
  4. Nausea and vomiting
235
Q

What are 2 investigations for patients having ischaemic/haemorrhagic strokes?

A
  1. CT (first line)
  2. Diffusion-weighted MRI
236
Q

Why is a CT necessary for identifying strokes?

A
  • Distinguishes ischaemic from haemorrhagic
  • Shows site of infarct
  • Identifies conditions mimicking a stroke
237
Q

Why is a diffusion-weight MRI good for identifying strokes?

A
  • More sensitive
  • CTs may be negative in the first few hours after infarct
  • Indicated if diagnosis is uncertain
238
Q

What is the immediate treatment for ischaemic strokes?

A
  • Exclude haemorrhagic stroke
  • Aspirin 300mg
239
Q

What is the treatment for ischaemic strokes?

A
  • Antiplatelet therapy e.g. aspirin and clopidogrel
  • Anticoagulation e.g. warfarin
  • Thrombolysis
  • Mechanical thrombectomy (endovascular removal of thrombus)
240
Q

Describe thrombolysis

A
  • Break up clots
  • Must happen within 4.5 hours of symptom onset
  • IV alteplase
  • Can cause lots of bleeding (lots of contraindications)
241
Q

What is a haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Reduced blood flow due to intracranial bleeding

242
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of haemorrhagic strokes

A
  • Rupture of blood vessel within the brain
  • Causes bleeding into brain tissues
  • Pooling blood increases ICP
  • Leads to ischaemia and infarction
243
Q

What is the treatment for haemorrhagic strokes?

A
  • Neurosurgery referral (evacuate blood)
  • IV mannitol for raised ICP
  • Stop anticoagulants immediately
244
Q

What is a transient ischaemic attack?

A

Sudden onset transient neurological dysfunction secondary to ischaemic without infarction

245
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of transient ischaemic attacks

A
  • Reduced blood flow to brain tissue
  • Never any infarction therefore no lasting damage
246
Q

What is a crescendo TIA?

A
  • 2 or more TIAs in one week
  • High risk factor for stroke
247
Q

How do symptoms of transient ischaemic attacks differ from ischaemic/haemorrhagic strokes?

A
  • Temporary
  • Sometimes precede a stroke
  • Always last <24 hours without infarction (typically resolve within 10 minutes)
248
Q

What are the investigations for patients having transient ischaemic attacks?

A
  • CT
  • Diffusion-weighted MRI
  • Can only be differentiated from a stroke until after recovery
249
Q

What is the treatment for TIAs?

A
  • Acute = aspirin
  • Long term prophylaxis = clopidogrel and atorvastatin
250
Q

What is an intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding within brain tissue

251
Q

What are 3 causes of intracerebral haemorrhages?

A
  1. Can occur spontaneously
  2. As a result of bleeding into an ischaemic infarct or tumour
  3. Aneurysm
252
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of intracerebral haemorrhages

A
  • Rupture of blood vessel within the brain
  • Causes bleeding into brain tissues
  • Leads to ischaemia and infarction
  • Pooling blood increases ICP
253
Q

How do intracerebral haemorrhages present?

A

Similarly to ischaemic strokes
- Sudden weakness of limbs and face
- Dysphasia
- Vision and unilateral, asymmetrical, contralateral sensory loss
- Nausea and vomiting

254
Q

What is the treatment for intracerebral haemorrhages?

A
  • Neurosurgery referral
  • IV mannitol for raised ICP
  • Stop anticoagulants immediately
255
Q

What is a complication of intracerebral/subarachnoid haemorrhages?

A

Haemorrhagic stroke

256
Q

What is a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding into the subarachnoid space (in between pia and subarachnoid meningeal layers)

257
Q

What is the most common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhages?

A

Ruptured cerebral aneurysm

258
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of subarachnoid haemorrhages

A
  • Bleeding into subarachnoid space
  • Blood will accumulate and cause raised ICP
  • Increased ICP may push on structures and cause ischaemia and infarction
259
Q

What is the main symptom of subarachnoid haemorrhages?

A

‘Thunderclap’ headache

260
Q

What is the treatment for subarachnoid haemorrhages?

A
  • Neurosurgery referral
  • IV mannitol for raised ICP
  • Stop anticoagulants immediately
261
Q

What is an extradural/epidural haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding into extradural space (between the skull and dura) due to ruptured middle meningeal artery

262
Q

Describe the epidemiology of extradural/epidural haemorrhages

A
  • More common in males
  • More common in young people
263
Q

What is the most common cause of extradural/epidural haemorrhages?

A

Ruptured middle meningeal artery due to fractured temporal bone (associated with traumatic head injury)

264
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of extradural/epidural haemorrhages

A
  • Bleeding into extradural space
  • Blood will accumulate and cause raised ICP
  • Increased ICP may push on structures and cause ischaemic and infarction
265
Q

What are 3 signs of extradural/epidural haemorrhages?

A
  1. Raised ICP
  2. Ipsilateral pupil dilation
  3. Seizures
266
Q

What are 5 symptoms of extradural/epidural haemorrhages?

A
  1. Increasingly severe headaches
  2. Rapidly declining consciousness level
  3. Vomiting
  4. Hemiparesis (weakness on one side of the body)
  5. Deep and irregular breathing
267
Q

Describe extradural/epidural haemorrhages’ lucid interval

A
  • Hours
  • Initial drowsiness/unconsciousness, then recovery
  • Then rapid deterioration later on
268
Q

What are 2 investigations for patients with extradural/epidural haemorrhages?

A
  1. CT
  2. X-ray of skull (fracture lines might be seen)
269
Q

What does a CT look like in patients with extradural/epidural haemorrhages?

A
  • Appears bi-convex (lemon-shaped)
  • Unilateral
  • Shows midline shift
  • Limited by cranial strictures
270
Q

What is the treatment for extradural/epidural haemorrhages?

A
  • Neurosurgery = clot evacuation, ligation of bleeding vessel
  • IV mannitol for raised ICP
  • Stop anticoagulants immediately
271
Q

What can extradural/epidural/subdural haemorrhages lead to?

A

Haemorrhagic stroke (rare)

272
Q

What is a subdural haemorrhage?

A

Bleeding into subdural space (between dura and arachnoid mater) due to ruptured bridging vein

273
Q

Describe the epidemiology of subdural haemorrhages

A

More common in babies or people with brain atrophy (dementia, elderly, alcoholics) as their veins are more susceptible to rupture

274
Q

What are 5 risk factors for subdural haemorrhages?

A
  1. People on anticoagulants
    Accident-prone people:
  2. Dementia
  3. Elderly
  4. Alcoholics
  5. Epileptics
275
Q

What is the most common cause of subdural haemorrhages?

A

Ruptured bridging veins out outer meningeal layers (run from cortex to venous sinuses - associated with traumatic head injury)

276
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of subdural haemorrhages

A
  • Bleeding from bridging veins into subdural space
  • Forms a haematoma (solid swelling of clotted blood)
  • Bleeding stops
  • Weeks/months later the haematoma will start to autolyse
  • This causes a large increase in oncotic and osmotic pressure
  • Water moves in and the haematoma enlarges
  • Blood will accumulate and cause raised ICP
  • Increased ICP may push on structures and cause ischaemic and infarction
277
Q

What are 5 signs of subdural haemorrhages?

A
  1. Raised ICP
  2. Seizures
    Local neurological signs:
  3. Unequal pupils
  4. Hemiparesis
  5. Occur later (often >1 month after injury)
278
Q

What are 7 symptoms of subdural haemorrhages?

A
  1. Fluctuating levels of consciousness
  2. Drowsiness
  3. Headache
  4. Confusion
  5. Insidious physical and intellectual slowing
  6. Personality change
  7. Unsteadiness
279
Q

Describe subdural haemorrhages’ latent interval

A
  • Weeks to months
  • Initial drowsiness/unconsciousness, then recovery
  • Then rapid deterioration later on
280
Q

What is the investigation for patients with subdural haemorrhages?

281
Q

What does a CT look like in patients with subdural haemorrhages?

A
  • Haematoma
  • Appears crescent-shaped (banana-shaped)
  • Unilateral
  • Midline structures shifted away from side of clot
  • Not limited by cranial strictures
282
Q

What is the treatment for subdural haemorrhages?

A
  • Neurosurgery = clot evacuation to remove haematoma, craniotomy, Burr hole washout
  • IV mannitol for raised ICP
  • Stop anticoagulants immediately
283
Q

What are 4 causes of cranial nerve lesions?

A
  1. Trauma
  2. Tumours
  3. Meningitis
  4. MS
284
Q

What is CN I and what will a lesion there cause?

A
  • Olfactory
  • Reduced taste and smell
  • Can still smell ammonia (as it stimulates pain fibres carried in the trigeminal nerve)
285
Q

What is CN II and what will a lesion there cause?

A
  • Optic
  • Visual field defects (unilateral visual loss)
286
Q

What is CN III and what will a lesion there cause?

A
  • Oculomotor
  • Ptosis (dropping eyelids)
  • Down and out eye
  • Fixed dilated pupil
287
Q

What is CN IV and what will a lesion there cause?

A
  • Trochlear
  • Diplopia (double vision) looking down
288
Q

What is CN V and what will a lesion there cause?

A
  • Trigeminal
  • Jaw deviates towards affected side
  • Loss of corneal reflex
  • Trigeminal neuralgia
289
Q

What is CN VI and what will a lesion there cause?

A
  • Abducens
  • Adducted eye
  • Sign of raised ICP
290
Q

What is CN VII and what will a lesion there cause?

A
  • Facial nerve
  • Facial drop with no forehead sparing
  • Due to Bell’s palsy, parotid inflammation
291
Q

What is CN VIII and what will a lesion there cause?

A
  • Vestibulocochlear
  • Hearing loss
  • Loss of balance
  • Due to skull changes, compression
292
Q

What is CN IX and what will a lesion there cause?

A
  • Glossopharyngeal
  • Impaired gag reflex
  • Swallowing, respiratory and vocal issues
  • Due to jugular foramen lesion
293
Q

What is CN X and what will a lesion there cause?

A
  • Vagus
  • Impaired gag reflex
  • Swallowing, respiratory and vocal issues
  • Due to jugular foramen lesion
294
Q

What is CN XI and what will a lesion there cause?

A
  • Spinal accessory
  • Inability to shrug shoulders or turn head
295
Q

What is CN XII and what will a lesion there cause?

A
  • Hypoglossal
  • Tongue deviation towards side of lesion
296
Q

Where do CNs III-XII arise from?

A

The brainstem

297
Q

What is motor neurone disease?

A

A group of progressive neurodegenerative disorders characterised by loss of neurones in the motor cortex, cranial nerve nuclei and anterior horn cells

298
Q

Describe the epidemiology of motor neurone disease

A
  • 5-10% of cases are inherited
  • Most commonly presents in late middle aged (60) men
299
Q

What are 4 motor neurone diseases?

A
  1. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS - most common - 80%)
  2. Progressive bulbar palsy (second most common)
  3. Progressive muscular atrophy
  4. Primary lateral sclerosis
300
Q

What are 4 risk factors for motor neurone disease?

A
  1. Genetics (family history)
  2. Smoking
  3. Exposure to heavy metals
  4. Pesticides
301
Q

Describe the general pathophysiology of motor neurone disease

A
  • Progressive degeneration of both upper and lower motor neurones
  • Does not affect sensory neurones
302
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

A
  • Loss of neurons in the motor cortex and anterior horn
  • Affects both UMN and LMN
  • Asymmetric
303
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of progressive bulbar palsy

A
  • Affects cranial nerves 9-12
  • Affects both UMN and LMN
304
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of progressive muscular atrophy

A
  • Affected anterior horn cells
  • Only affects LMN
305
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of primary lateral sclerosis

A

Only affects UMN

306
Q

What are upper motor neuron lesions?

A

Any damage to motor neurons that reside above the nuclei of cranial nerves or the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord

307
Q

What are lower motor neuron lesions?

A

Damage anywhere from the anterior horn of the spinal cord, peripheral nerve, neuromuscular junction or muscle

308
Q

What are 4 signs of lower motor neurone lesions/disease?

A
  1. Muscle wasting
  2. Hypotonia (reduced tone)
  3. Fasciculations (twitches in muscles)
  4. Reduced reflexes
309
Q

What are 3 signs of upper motor neurone lesions/disease?

A
  1. Hypertonia (increased tone or spasticity)
  2. Brisk reflexes (hyperreflexia)
  3. Clonus (involuntary muscle contractions)
310
Q

What are 5 symptoms of motor neurone disease?

A
  1. Insidious, progressive weakness of muscles affecting limbs, trunk and face
  2. Weakness often first noticed in upper limbs
  3. Increased fatigue when exercising
  4. Clumsiness (dropping things or tripping over)
  5. Dysarthria (slurred speech)
311
Q

What are 5 clinical presentations of progressive bulbar palsy?

A
  1. Dysphagia
  2. Chewing difficulties
  3. Flaccid tongue
  4. Speech is hoarse, quiet and nasal
  5. Normal/absent jaw jerk (LMN)
312
Q

How does progressive muscular atrophy present?

A

Distal muscles affected first then proximal

313
Q

How does primary lateral sclerosis present?

A

Progressive tetraparesis (muscle weakness in all 4 limbs)

314
Q

How is motor neurone disease diagnosed?

A
  • Clinical presentation
  • Excluding other conditions that can cause motor neurone symptoms
315
Q

What is the treatment for motor neurone disease?

A
  • No effective treatment
  • Non-invasive ventilation (NIV) (supports breathing at night to improve survival and quality of life)
  • End of life care
  • ALS = riluzole (slows progression of disease and extends survival by a few months)
316
Q

Which motor neurone disease has the worst prognosis?

A

Progressive bulbar palsy

317
Q

What is Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A

Condition in which the immune system attacks the neuromuscular junctions a.k.a Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome

318
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Lambert Eaton Syndrome

A

Typically occurs in patients with small cell lung cancer

319
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Lambert Eaton Syndrome

A
  • Antibodies against voltage-gated calcium channels produced in small cell lung cancer cells
  • The antibodies also target and damage voltage-gated calcium channels in the presynaptic terminals of neuromuscular junctions
  • Damage to neuromuscular junctions causes less acetylcholine to be released into synapses meaning muscle contractions cannot be as easily stimulated
320
Q

Which condition is Lambert Eaton Syndrome similar to?

A

Myasthenia gravis

321
Q

How does Lambert Eaton Syndrome differ from myasthenia gravis?

A

Symptoms tend to be more insidious and less pronounced

322
Q

Which muscles are most notably affected in Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A

Proximal muscles - most common is proximal leg muscle weakness

323
Q

What are 9 clinical presentations of Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A
  1. Diplopia
  2. Ptosis
  3. Blurred vision
  4. Dysphagia
  5. Slurred speech
  6. Dry mouth
  7. Impotence
  8. Dizziness
  9. Reduced tendon reflexes
324
Q

What is a notable finding in patients with Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A
  • Reduced tendon reflexes
  • Reflexes become temporarily normal for short periods following periods of strong muscle contraction
  • Post-tetanic potentiation
325
Q

What are 4 investigations for patients with Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A
  1. Nerve conduction studies
  2. Low-frequency repetitive nerve stimulation
  3. Anti-P/Q voltage gated calcium channel serology
  4. Chest CT
326
Q

What is the treatment for Lambert Eaton Syndrome?

A
  • Amifampridine
  • Immunosuppressants e.g. prednisolone, azathioprine
  • IV immunoglobulins
  • Plasmapheresis
327
Q

How does amifampridine work?

A
  • Allows more ACh to be released into neuromuscular junction synapses
  • Blocks voltage-gated potassium channels in presynaptic cells
  • This prolongs the depolarisation of cell membranes and assist calcium channels in carrying out their action
328
Q

What is syncope (a.k.a fainting, vasovagal episodes)?

A

Temporary loss of consciousness due to a disruption of blood flow to the brain

329
Q

Describe the epidemiology of syncope

A

Common in children, particularly teenage girls

330
Q

What are 4 causes of primary syncope?

A
  1. Dehydration
  2. Missed meals
  3. Extended standing in a warm environment
  4. Vasovagal response to stimuli e.g. sudden surprise, pain, sign of blood
331
Q

What are 8 secondary causes of syncope?

A
  1. Hypoglycaemia
  2. Dehydration
  3. Anaemia
  4. Infection
  5. Anaphylaxis
  6. Arrhythmias
  7. Valvular heart disease
  8. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
332
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of syncope

A
  • Failure of the autonomic nervous system to regulate blood flow to the brain
  • When the vagus nerve receives a strong stimulus (e.g. emotional event, painful sensation, change in temperature), the parasympathetic nervous system is stimulated
  • Blood vessels dilate, causing blood pressure in the cerebral circulation to drop
  • This leads to hypoperfusion of brain tissue and the patient loses consciousness
333
Q

Describe prodrome in syncope

A
  • Feeling prior to fainting
  • Hot and clammy
  • Sweaty
  • Heavy
  • Dizzy/lightheaded
  • Blurred/dark vision
  • Headache
334
Q

Describe collateral history of syncope

A
  • Sudden loss of consciousness and falling to the ground
  • Unconscious on the ground for a few seconds to a minute
  • May be some twitching, shaking or convulsion activity
335
Q

What are 2 other clinical presentations of syncope?

A
  • Groggy feeling afterwards
  • Incontinence
336
Q

What are 5 investigations for patients experiencing syncope?

A
  1. History
  2. Examination
  3. ECG (arrhythmias)
  4. Echocardiogram
  5. Bloods (FBC, electrolytes, glucose - anaemia, arrhythmias, seizures, diabetes)
337
Q

When discussing syncope, what are 5 important things to gain from taking a history?

A
  1. Distinguish a syncopal episode from a seizure
  2. Triggers
  3. Syncope after exercise is more likely to be secondary to an underlying trigger
  4. Associated cardiac/neurological symptoms
  5. Family history
338
Q

When discussing syncope, what are 4 important things to check when doing an examination?

A
  1. Any physical injuries as result
  2. Concurrent illnesses
  3. Neurological/cardiac examination
  4. Lying and standing blood pressure
339
Q

What is the treatment for syncope?

A
  • Avoid dehydration/missing meals/standing still for long periods
  • Sit or lie down and have some water/eat something when experiencing prodromal symptoms
340
Q

What is carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel, causing pain and numbness

341
Q

Describe the epidemiology of carpal tunnel syndrome

A
  • More common in late 50s and late 70s
  • More common in pregnant women
342
Q

What are 3 causes of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  1. Idiopathic
  2. Swelling of contents (e.g. swelling of tendon sheaths due to repetitive strain)
  3. Narrowing of tunnel
343
Q

What are 7 risk factors for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  1. Repetitive strain
  2. Obesity
  3. Perimenopause
  4. Rheumatoid arthritis
  5. Diabetes
  6. Acromegaly
  7. Hypothyroidism
344
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of carpal tunnel syndrome

A
  • Compression of the contents of the carpal tunnel - median nerve and flexor tendons
  • Median nerve supplies sensation to the thumb, index finger, middle finger and half of the ring finger
345
Q

Which fingers does carpal tunnel syndrome affect?

A

Thumb, index finger, middle finger and lateral half of ring finger (index and middle fingers often affected first)

346
Q

What are 4 sensory symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  1. Paraesthesia (pins and needles)
  2. Pain, can reach the shoulder
  3. Numbness
  4. Burning sensation
347
Q

What are 4 motor symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  1. Weakness of grip strength
  2. Weakness of thumb movements
  3. Difficulty with fine movements involving the thumb
  4. Muscle atrophy of the thenar muscles
348
Q

How are symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome distributed?

A
  • Symptoms come and go
  • Typically worse at night
349
Q

What are 5 investigations for patients with carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  1. Phalen’s test
  2. Tinel’s test
  3. Carpal tunnel questionnaire
  4. Nerve conduction studies
  5. USS/MRI if other damage suspected
350
Q

Describe Phalen’s test

A
  • For carpal tunnel syndrome
  • Fully flex the wrist
  • Positive = position triggers sensory symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome
351
Q

Describe Tinel’s test

A
  • For carpal tunnel syndrome
  • Tap the wrist at the location where the median nerve travels through the carpal tunnel
  • Positive = position triggers sensory symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome
352
Q

What are nerve conduction studies?

A
  • E.g. for carpal tunnel syndrome
  • Small electrical current applied to the median nerve on one side of the carpal tunnel
  • Electrodes over the median nerve on the other side record the electrical current that reaches them
  • Demonstrates how well signals are passing through the carpal tunnel along the median nerve
353
Q

What is the treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A
  • 1/4 cases are self-limiting within 1 year
  • Pregnancy cases usually resolve post-partum
  • Rest the wrist and avoid gripping/squeezing actions
  • Splint
  • Steroid injections
  • Surgery (flexor retinaculum cut to release pressure on the median nerve)
354
Q

What is ‘wrist drop’?

A

Deformity of a radial nerve palsy

355
Q

What are 7 causes of ‘wrist drop’?

A
  1. Fractures of proximal humerus, shaft of humerus or radius
  2. Stab wounds to antecubital fossa, forearm or wrist (includes blood tests and cannulation)
  3. Pressure of crutches on armpits (‘crutch palsy’)
  4. Falling asleep with arm hanging over back of a chair (‘Saturday night palsy’)
  5. Somebody else falling asleep with their head on the patient’s arm (‘honeymoon palsy’)
  6. Excessively tight plaster casts, wristbands or handcuffs
  7. Prolonged tourniquet use on the arm
356
Q

What does the radial nerve supply sensation to?

A
  • Posterior arm and forearm
  • Lateral 2/3 of dorsum of hand
  • Proximal dorsal aspect of lateral 3 1/2 fingers (thumb, index, middle and half of ring finger)
357
Q

What does the radial nerve supply motor sensation to?

A
  • Triceps
  • Posterior forearm
358
Q

What are 4 symptoms of ‘wrist drop’?

A
  1. Numbness of skin over affected areas
  2. Weak elbow extension
  3. Weak wrist
  4. Absent triceps and supinator reflexes
359
Q

What is the investigation for ‘wrist drop’?

A
  • Flex elbow, pronate forearm and ask patient to extend wrist/fingers
  • Positive = patient will be unable to perform this manoeuvre
360
Q

What is the treatment for ‘wrist drop’?

A
  • Analgesia (NSAIDs)
  • Physical therapy
  • Splint or cast
  • Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
  • Surgery
361
Q

What is ‘claw hand’?

A

Deformity of an ulnar nerve palsy

362
Q

What are 4 causes of ‘claw hand’?

A
  1. Supracondylar fracture of the humerus
  2. Fractures or soft tissue injuries to medial epicondyle of humerus
  3. Stab wounds to forearm or wrist (includes blood test and cannulation)
  4. Compression either at the cubital tunnel in the elbow or at Guyon’s canal in the wrist
363
Q

What does the ulnar nerve supply sensation to?

A
  • Skin over hypothenar eminence
  • Medial 1/3 palm of hand
  • Palmar aspect of the medial 1 1/2 fingers
  • Medial 1/3 dorsum of hand
  • Dorsal aspect of medial 1/2 fingers
364
Q

What does the ulnar nerve supply motor sensation to?

A
  • Anterior forearm
  • Intrinsic muscles of the hand
365
Q

What are 6 symptoms of ‘claw hand’?

A
  1. Numbness over hypothenar eminence and ulnar distribution of hand
  2. Weak wrist and adduction
  3. Weak flexion of ring and little finger DIPJs
  4. Weak MCPJ flexion and IPJ extension of ring and little fingers
  5. Loss of finger abduction and adduction
  6. Loss of opposition of little finger
366
Q

What is the investigation for ‘claw hand’?

A
  • Extend IPJs of ring and little fingers
  • Positive = patient unable to do this
367
Q

What is the treatment for ‘claw hand’?

A
  • Analgesia (NSAIDs)
  • Physical therapy
  • Splint or cast
  • Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation
  • Surgery
368
Q

What is ‘foot drop’?

A

Damage to the common peroneal/fibular nerve making it difficult to lift the front part of the foot, result in dragging of the toes

369
Q

What are 6 causes of ‘foot drop’?

A
  1. Injury
  2. Lower back damage
  3. Tumour
  4. Hip replacement
  5. Cauda equina syndrome
  6. Multiple sclerosis
370
Q

What does the common peroneal/fibular nerve supply sensation to?

A

Skin of the lateral leg and dorsum of foot

371
Q

What does the common peroneal/fibular nerve supply motor sensation to?

A
  • Short head of biceps femoris
  • Muscles in lateral and anterior compartments of leg
372
Q

What are 3 symptoms of ‘foot drop’?

A
  1. One foot dragging across the floor when walking
  2. Tripping
  3. Numbness/weakness in the same side (symptoms are unilateral)
373
Q

What are 2 investigations for patients with ‘foot drop’?

A
  1. Imaging (X-ray/USS/CT/MRI) to find underlying cause
  2. Nerve conduction studies to find underlying cause
374
Q

What is the treatment for ‘foot drop’?

A
  • Can be permanent or temporary
  • Brace/splint
  • Physiotherapy
  • Specialised shoes to prevent foot drop when walking)
  • Nerve stimulation
  • Surgery
375
Q

What is peripheral neuropathy?

A

Damage to the peripheral nervous system

376
Q

What is mononeuropathy multiplex?

A

A type of peripheral neuropathy in which there is damage to at least two different areas of the peripheral nervous system

377
Q

What are 5 causes of peripheral neuropathy?

A

DAVID
D - diabetes mellitus
A - alcoholism
V - vitamin B12 deficiency
I - infective/inherited (Guillian-Barre/Charcot-Marie-Tooth)
D - drugs

378
Q

What are 4 causes of mononeuropathy multiplex?

A
  1. Diabetes
  2. Rheumatoid arthritis
  3. Lupus
  4. Diseases affecting the blood vessels
379
Q

What are the 6 main pathophysiology mechanisms of peripheral neuropathy?

A
  1. Demyelination (schwann cell damage e.g. Guillian-Barre syndrome)
  2. Axonal degeneration (axons die but conduction speed remains normal)
  3. Wallerian degeneration (fibre degeneration when the fibre is cut or crushed - axon and myelin degenerate)
  4. Compression (e.g. carpal tunnel syndrome)
  5. Infarction (e.g. Churg-Strauss syndrome, diabetes)
  6. Infiltration (e.g. leprosy. sarcoidosis)
380
Q

What are 5 symptoms of peripheral neuropathy?

A
  1. Burning pain
  2. Tingling
  3. Numbness
  4. Pain
  5. Partial paralysis
381
Q

What is an investigation for peripheral neuropathy?

A

Nerve conduction studies

382
Q

What is the treatment for mononeuropathy multiplex?

A
  • Maintain healthy weight and diet
  • Smoking cessation
383
Q

What is a complication of peripheral neuropathy?

384
Q

What is Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

Neurological condition that results from a hemisection to the spinal cord

385
Q

What is the most common cause of Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A

Penetrating trauma

386
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Brown-Sequard syndrome

A
  • Hemisection of spinal cord
  • Crossing of fibres in the spinothalamic tract (causes some ipsilateral and contralateral symptoms)
  • Most cases seen in the cervical and thoracic region
387
Q

What are 4 clinical presentations of Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A
  1. Ipsilateral loss of position, light touch and vibration sensation at the level of the lesion
  2. Contralateral loss of pain and temperature below the lesion
  3. Sphincter disturbances
  4. Ipsilateral spastic paraparesis (muscle weakness with spasms)
388
Q

What are 3 investigations for patients with Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A
  1. Plain radiographs for penetrating or blunt trauma
  2. MRI to determine extent of injury
  3. Neurological examination to establish level of injury
389
Q

What is the treatment for Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A
  • Spine immobilisation
  • Steroids to decrease swelling
  • Physical therapy
  • Occupational therapy
  • Surgery
390
Q

What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome?

A

Inherited disease that affects the peripheral motor and sensory nerves

391
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome

A
  • Most common inherited neuromuscular disorder
  • CMT1 = onset by 10 years
  • CMT2 = onset between 10-20 years
  • CMT3 = infantile onset, usually by 2 years
  • CMTX = more severe in males
392
Q

What are 5 causes of Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome?

A

ABCDE:
A - alcohol
B - B12 deficiency
C - cancer/CKD
D - diabetes/drugs
E - every vasculitis

393
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome

A
  • CMT1 = production of abnormal, unstable myelin
  • CMT2 = primarily an axonal disorder
  • CMT3 = characterised by marked segmental demyelination
  • CMTX = demyelinating neuropathy
  • Majority of types are mutations inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern
394
Q

How does Charcot-Marie-Tooth 1 syndrome present?

A
  • Muscle weakness starting in feet and working up (‘inverted champagne bottle’)
  • Sensory loss in the same pattern as weakness
  • Foot drop and spinal deformities
395
Q

How does Charcot-Marie-Tooth 2 syndrome present?

A

Weakness and wasting pattern same as CMT1

396
Q

How does Charcot-Marie-Tooth 3 syndrome present?

A

Hypertonia (floppy baby syndrome)

397
Q

How does Charcot-Marie-Tooth X syndrome present?

A

Similar presentation as CMT1

398
Q

What are 6 investigations for patients with Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome?

A
  1. Bloods (FBC, TFTs, LFTs, B12, folate)
  2. CSF examination
  3. MRI brain and spinal cord
  4. Genetic studies
  5. Nerve conduction studies
  6. Nerve biopsy
399
Q

What is the treatment for Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome?

A
  • No treatment to prevent progression
    Supportive management:
  • Surgical correction (if spinal deformity)
  • Analgesia
  • Avoid neurotoxic drugs e.g. vincristine (can exacerbate condition)
400
Q

What is Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Inherited disorder characterised by progressive muscle wasting and weakness

401
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A
  • X-linked recessive condition = more common in males
  • Usually presents in early childhood, before 3
402
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A
  • Mutation on DMD gene
  • Lack of dystrophin (molecule that strengthens muscle fibres and protects from injury)
  • = damage to sarcolemma and cell death
403
Q

What are 6 clinical presentations of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A
  1. Progressive proximal muscular dystrophy which characteristics pseudohypertrophy of calves
  2. Fatigue
  3. Inability to run/hop/jump
  4. Recurrent falls
  5. Speech delay
  6. Major milestones delayed
404
Q

What are 5 investigations for patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A
  1. Serum creatine kinase = very high
  2. Genetic analysis
  3. Muscle biopsy with assay for dystrophin protein
  4. Muscle strength test
  5. Gait assessment
405
Q

What is the treatment for Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A
  • Immunisations
  • Physiotherapy
  • Vitamin D and bisphosphonates
  • Corticosteroids
  • Mobility help
  • Nutritional care
406
Q

What are 6 complications of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A
  1. Joint contractures
  2. Respiratory failure (most common cause of death)
  3. Cardiomyopathies and heart failure
  4. Gastric dilation
  5. Learning difficulties
  6. Constipation, osteoporosis, hypertension
407
Q

What is the prognosis for patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A

Poor:
- Wheelchair by 12
- Death by 30

408
Q

What are 4 types of primary brain tumours?

A
  1. Glioma (tumour of glial cells - astrocytoma, oligodendroglioma, ependymoma)
  2. Meningioma (tumour from cells of meninges - usually benign)
  3. Schwannoma (tumour of Schwann cells)
  4. Acoustic neuroma (tumour of Schwann cells surrounding auditory nerve)
409
Q

What is the most common type of primary brain tumour?

A

Astrocytoma

410
Q

What is the main sign of primary brain tumours?

A

Raised ICP

411
Q

What are 3 symptoms of primary brain tumours?

A

Small ones tend to be asymptomatic
Symptoms of raised ICP:
- Headache that is constant, nocturnal, worse on waking and worse on coughing/straining/bending forward
- Vomiting
- Visual field defects

412
Q

What are 3 symptoms of acoustic neuromas?

A

Usually unilateral
1. Hearing loss
2. Tinnitus
3. Balance problems

413
Q

What is an investigation for patients with primary brain tumours?

A

Fundoscopy will show papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc due to raised ICP)
- Blurring of optic disc margin
- Elevated optic disc
- Engorged retinal veins

414
Q

What is the treatment for primary brain tumours?

A
  • Palliative care
  • Chemotherapy
  • Radiotherapy
  • Surgery
415
Q

What brain tumours are more common?

416
Q

What are the most common cancers that metastasise to the brain?

A
  • Lung (non-small cell more common than small cell)
  • Breast
  • Renal cell carcinoma
  • Melanoma
417
Q

What is depression?

A

Disorder causing persistent feelings of low mood, low energy and reduced interest

418
Q

What is a cause of depression?

A

Not necessarily always a cause but often triggered by life events e.g. losing a loved one

419
Q

What are 12 clinical presentations of depression?

A
  1. Low mood
  2. Low energy
  3. Anhedonia (lack of pleasure in activities)
  4. Anxiety/worry
  5. Clinginess
  6. Irritability
  7. Avoiding social situations
  8. Hopelessness about the future
  9. Poor sleep
  10. Poor appetitie/over eating
  11. Poor concentration
  12. Physical symptoms e.g. abdominal pain
420
Q

What are 6 important things to note when taking a history for depression?

A
  1. Potential triggers
  2. Home environment
  3. Relationships with family/friends
  4. Bullying
  5. Drugs and alcohol
  6. History/thoughts of self-harm/suicide
421
Q

What is the treatment for mild depression?

A

Advice about healthy habits e.g. healthy diet, exercise and avoiding alcohol/cannabis

422
Q

What is the treatment for moderate to severe depression?

A
  • Psychological therapy e.g. CBT
  • Fluoxetine (first line)
  • Sertraline and citalopram (second line)
423
Q

When may admission be required in patients with depression?

A

If there is a risk of:
- Self-harm
- Suicide
- Self-neglect
- Immediate safeguarding issue

Phase 2a (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions