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Phase 2a > Cardiology > Flashcards

Cardiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is angina?

A

The result of myocardial ischaemia, where blood supply < metabolic demand

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2
Q

Describe stable angina

A
  • Chest pain precipitated by exposure to cold/exercise
  • Lasts 1-5 minutes
  • Relieved by rest/GTN
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3
Q

Describe unstable angina

A
  • Chest pain at rest
  • Prolonged, lasts longer than 20 minutes
  • No relief by rest/GTN spray
  • No significant rise in troponin levels
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4
Q

Give 7 features of a myocardial infarction

A
  1. Cardiac chest pain
  2. Unremitting
  3. Occur at rest
  4. Associated with sweating, breathlessness, nausea and/or vomiting
  5. One third occur in bed at night
  6. Non-Q-wave or Q-wave MI
  7. NSTEMI or STEMI
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5
Q

What will most likely lead to pathological Q-wave formation, heart failure or death?

A

STEMI or MI associated with LBBB as they are associated with larger infarcts unless effectively treated

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6
Q

Describe NSTEMI

A
  • Non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction
  • Increase in troponin, myoglobin and creatine kinase levels
  • Retrospective diagnosis - no ST elevations on ECG (nearly complete blockage)
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7
Q

Describe STEMI

A
  • ST-elevation myocardial infarction
  • Increase in troponin, myoglobin and creatine kinase levels
  • Diagnosis at presentation - ST elevations on ECG (complete blockage)
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8
Q

Describe Prinzmetal’s angina

A
  • Caused by coronary artery spasms
  • Occur at rest/night
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9
Q

Describe initial management of ACS

A
  • Call 999/get to hospital quickly
  • Take aspirin 300mg immediately
  • Take pain relief if required
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10
Q

Describe hospital management of ACS

A
  • Confirm/make diagnosis
  • Oxygen therapy
  • Pain relief (opiates/nitrates)
  • Aspirin +/- P2Y12 inhibitor (clopidogrel) (dual antiplatelet therapy)
  • Antianginal therapy (beta blockers, nitrates, calcium antagonists)
  • PPCI if STEMI (fibrinolytic therapy if not available)
  • Revascularisation
  • Cardiac monitoring for arrhythmias
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11
Q

What is required to confirm/make a diagnosis of ACS?

A
  • History
  • ECG
  • Troponin levels (potentially also myoglobin and CK levels)
  • Sometimes coronary angiography
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12
Q

When should you give oxygen therapy in ACS?

A

If the patient is hypoxic

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13
Q

Why might you choose to use opiates over nitrates and vice versa?

A
  • Opiates my delay the absorption of P2Y12 inhibitors
  • Nitrates used for unstable angina/coronary vasospasm but may be ineffective for MI
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14
Q

What might you use in addition to dual antiplatelet therapy?

A

An anticoagulant e.g. fondaparinux or heparin

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15
Q

Describe PPCI

A
  • Primary percutaneous coronary intervention
  • Treatment choice for STEMI
  • Predilate occluded coronary artery
  • Position stent
  • Deploy stent
  • Repeat angiogram 3 months later
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16
Q

Describe CABG

A
  • Coronary artery bypass graft surgery
  • Used in about 10% of patients with NSTE ACS
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17
Q

What are reasons for patients not having obstructive coronary artery disease?

A
  • The actual diagnosis is not ACS
  • Plaque rupture occurs without significant stenosis and obstructed thrombus is resolve by time of angiography
  • Stress induced (Tako-Tsubo) cardiomyopathy without obstructive CAD
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18
Q

What are acute coronary syndromes?

A
  • Unstable angina
  • NSTEMI
  • STEMI
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19
Q

What are 11 predisposing factors for IHD (ischaemic heart disease)?

A
  1. Age
  2. Smoking
  3. Family history
  4. Diabetes mellitus
  5. Being Male
  6. Hyperlipidaemia
  7. Hypertension
  8. Kidney disease
  9. Obesity
  10. Physical inactivity
  11. Stress
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20
Q

What are 4 pros and 4 cons of PCI?

A

Pros - less invasive, convenient, repeatable and acceptable
Cons - risk stent thrombosis, risk restenosis, can’t deal with complex disease, dual antiplatelet therapy

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21
Q

What are 2 pros and 6 cons of CABG?

A

Pros - better prognosis, deals with complex disease
Cons - invasive, risk of stroke/bleeding, can’t do if frail/comorbid, one time treatment, length of stay, time for recovery

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22
Q

What is acute pericarditis?

A

An inflammatory pericardial syndrome with or without effusion

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23
Q

What are infectious causes of pericarditis?

A
  • Viral (enteroviruses (coxsackie), adenoviruses etc.)
  • Bacterial (mycobacterium tuberculosis)
  • Fungal (histoplasma spp)
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24
Q

What are 5 non infectious causes of pericarditis?

A
  1. Trauma/iatrogenic
  2. Uraemia
  3. MI
  4. Secondary metastatic tumour
  5. Autoimmune (rheumatoid arthritis, Sjogren’s syndrome, systemic lupus erythematosus)
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25
Q

What are 4 signs of pericarditis?

A
  1. Pericardial friction rub (auscultation)
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Peripheral oedema
  4. Increased JVP
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26
Q

What are 2 extra signs of pericarditis if there is pericardial effusion?

A
  1. Bronchial breathing at left base
  2. Muffled heart sounds
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27
Q

What are 6 symptoms of pericarditis?

A
  1. Chest pain (relieved by sitting/leaning forward, exacerbated by inspiration)
  2. Fever
  3. Shortness of breath/dyspnoea
  4. Cough
  5. Hiccups
  6. Myalgia
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28
Q

What are 3 investigations for patients with pericarditis?

A
  1. ECG - tachycardia
  2. Echo/CXR if suspect effusion
  3. Blood tests (FBC, ESR & CRP, troponin)
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29
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with pericarditis?

A
  • Saddle shaped ST elevation
  • PR depression
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30
Q

What will blood test results look like in patients with pericarditis?

A
  • FBC - modest increase in WCC and mild lymphocytosis
  • ESR & CRP - high ESR may suggest aetiology, ANA in young females indicates SLE
  • Troponin - elevations suggest myopericarditis
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31
Q

What is the treatment for pericarditis?

A
  • NSAIDs with gastric protection (ibuprofen, aspirin)
  • Colchicine for 3 months
  • Reduce physical activity until symptoms resolve
  • Treat the cause
  • Pericardiocentesis (if effusion)
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32
Q

What is the main complication of pericarditis?

A

Cardiac tamponade

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33
Q

What is cardiac tamponade?

A

Accumulation of fluid in pericardial space - life threatening condition

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34
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of cardiac tamponade

A
  • Build up of fluid in pericardial space
  • Compression of heart chambers
  • Decrease in venous return
  • Decrease in filling in the heart
  • Reduced cardiac output
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35
Q

What are 2 signs of cardiac tamponade?

A
  1. Beck’s triad:
    - Falling BP
    - Rising JVP
    - Muffled heart sounds
  2. Pulsus paradoxus (large decrease in stroke volume - systolic BP drops by >10mmHg on inspiration)
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36
Q

What is the gold standard investigation for patients with cardiac tamponade?

A

Echocardiogram

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37
Q

What is the treatment for cardiac tamponade?

A

Pericardiocentesis

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38
Q

What is pericardial effusion?

A

Build up of fluid in the pericardium

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39
Q

What are 6 exacerbating factors (decreased supply) for chronic coronary syndromes?

A
  1. Anaemia
  2. Hypoxemia (low oxygen in blood)
  3. Polycythemia (high conc of RBC in blood)
  4. Hypothermia
  5. Hypovolaemia (result of major blood/fluid loss)
  6. Hypervolaemia (too much fluid volume)
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40
Q

What are 5 exacerbating factors (increased demand) for chronic coronary syndromes?

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. Tachyarrhythmia
  3. Valvular heart disease
  4. Hyperthyroidism
  5. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
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41
Q

What does OPQRST stand for regarding pain in chronic coronary syndromes?

A

Onset
Position
Quality
Relationship (with exertion/posture/meals/breathing)
Radiation
Relieving/exacerbating factors
Severity
Timing
Treatment

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42
Q

What is the treatment for chronic coronary syndromes?

A
  • Lifestyle advice (smoking cessation, weight loss, exercise more)
  • Medication (aspirin, GTN spray, beta blockers, long acting nitrates, calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors)
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43
Q

Who should you not give beta blockers to?

A

Someone with severe asthma

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44
Q

What do nitrates do?

A

Venodilators. Reduce the preload on heart and dilates the coronary arteries

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45
Q

What is an atrial septal defect?

A

Abnormal connection between the two atria due to failure of the septal tissue to form between the atria

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46
Q

Describe the epidemiology of ASD

A
  • Common
  • Often present in adulthood
  • 10% of all congenital abnormalities of the heart
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47
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of ASD

A
  • Higher pressure in the LA
  • Blood shunted from left to right
  • Increased flow into the right side of the heart and lungs
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48
Q

What occurs in large ASDs that doesn’t occur in small ASDs?

A

Right heart dilatation

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49
Q

What is the difference between ostium primum and secundum ASD?

A

Ostium primum ASD = associated with AV valve anomalies and presents early
Ostium secundum ASD = usually asymptomatic until later in life

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50
Q

What are 3 signs of ASD?

A
  1. Pulmonary flow murmur
  2. Fixed split second heart sound (due to delayed closure of pulmonary valve)
  3. Ejection systolic murmur on auscultation
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51
Q

What are 3 symptoms of ASD?

A

Usually asymptomatic
1. Dizziness
2. Palpitations
3. SOBOE (shortness of breath on exertion)

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52
Q

What are 3 investigations for patients with ASD?

A
  1. Echocardiogram
  2. ECG
  3. CXR
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53
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with ASD?

A
  • RBBB with left axis deviation (primum)
  • Prolonged PR interval (primum)
  • Right axis deviation (secundum)
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54
Q

What does a CXR look like in patients with ASD?

A

Big heart and pulmonary arteries

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55
Q

Describe the treatment for ASD

A
  • Most close spontaneously
  • Surgical/percutaneous closure (before 10 in children, in adults if symptomatic)
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56
Q

What is a complication of ASD?

A

Eisenmenger’s syndrome (pulmonary hypertension –> shunt reversal –> cyanosis)

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57
Q

What is cyanosis?

A

Poor blood circulation

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58
Q

What is Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

A
  • High pressure pulmonary flow
  • Damage to delicate pulmonary vasculature
  • Resistance to blood flow through the lungs increases
  • RV pressure increase
  • Reversal of shunt direction (right to left)
  • Deoxygenated blood enters patient’s circulation
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59
Q

What is ventricular septal defect?

A

Abnormal connection between the two ventricles

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60
Q

Describe the epidemiology of VSD

A
  • Common
  • 20-25% of all congenital heart defects
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61
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of VSD

A
  • Higher pressure in LV
  • Blood moves from high to low pressure (left to right) chambers
  • Increased blood flow through the lungs
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62
Q

What are 7 signs of a large VSD?

A
  1. Small, breathless, skinny baby
  2. Increased respiratory rate
  3. Tachycardia
  4. Harsh systolic murmur
  5. Severe heart failure in infancy
  6. Poor weight gain/feeding
  7. Failure to thrive
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63
Q

What is a sign of a small VSD?

A

Loud pansystolic murmur

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64
Q

What are 2 symptoms of a large VSD?

A
  1. Exercise intolerance
  2. Breathless
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65
Q

What is a symptom of a small VSD?

A

Thrill (buzzing sensation)

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66
Q

What are the investigations for patients with VSD?

A
  • Echocardiogram
  • CXR
  • ECG
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67
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with VSD?

A
  • Normal (small VSD)
  • Left axis deviation and left ventricular hypertrophy (medium/large VSD)
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68
Q

What does a CXR look like in patients with VSD?

A
  • Pulmonary plethora
  • Cardiomegaly and large pulmonary arteries (large VSD)
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69
Q

Describe the treatment for VSD

A
  • Many close spontaneously during childhood
  • No intervention (if small and asymptomatic)
  • Surgery
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70
Q

What is the main complication of VSD?

A

Eisenmenger’s syndrome

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71
Q

What are 6 complications of VSD?

A
  1. Aortic regurgitation
  2. Infundibular stenosis
  3. Infective endocarditis
  4. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
  5. Pulmonary hypertension
  6. Cardiac failure
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72
Q

What is atrioventricular septal defect?

A

Hole in the centre of the heart, involving the ventricular septum, atrial septum and tricuspid valves

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73
Q

Describe the epidemiology of AVSD

A
  • 2/10,000 live births
  • Strong association with Down’s syndrome
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74
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of AVSD

A

One big malformed AV valve instead of two separate AV valves

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75
Q

Describe a partial AVSD

A
  • Can present in late adulthood
  • Presents like a small VSD/ASD
  • May be left alone if there is no right heart dilatation
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76
Q

Describe a complete AVSD

A
  • Breathless as neonate
  • Poor weight gain/feeding
  • Torrential pulmonary blood flow
  • Needs repair or pulmonary artery band in infancy
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77
Q

What is Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Combination of four congenital heart defects - pulmonary infundibular stenosis, overriding aorta, ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy

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78
Q

Describe the epidemiology of Tetralogy of Fallot

A
  • Most common of the complex cardiac abnormalities
  • 10% all of congenital heart defects
  • 1/100 live births
  • 15% have associated genetic abnormality (22q11 deletion)
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79
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of Tetralogy of Fallot

A
  • Pulmonary infundibular stenosis, overriding aorta, ventricular septal defect and right ventricular hypertrophy
  • Stenosis of RV outflow
  • Higher pressure in RV than LV
  • Deoxygenated blood moves from RV to LV
  • Deoxygenated blood travels around body (patient becomes blue)
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80
Q

What are 4 signs of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Pulmonary stenosis
  2. Cyanosis
  3. Systolic murmur
  4. Increased haemoglobin concentration
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81
Q

What are 2 investigations for patients with Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Echocardiogram - shows anatomy and degree of stenosis
  2. CXR - boot shaped heart
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82
Q

What is the treatment for patients with Tetralogy of Fallot?

A

Surgical repair in early life

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83
Q

What are 2 complications of Tetralogy of Fallot?

A
  1. Usually death before adult life
  2. Right heart failure
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84
Q

What is coarctation of aorta?

A

Narrowing of the aorta (at the site of insertion of the ductus arteriosus)

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85
Q

Describe the epidemiology of coarctation of aorta

A

5% of all congenital abnormalities

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86
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of coarctation of aorta

A
  • Narrower aorta increases afterload on LV
  • Collateral circulation forms to increase flow to the lower part of the body
  • Intercostal arteries become dilated and tortuous
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87
Q

What are 4 signs of coarctation of aorta?

A
  1. Right arm/upper limb hypertension
  2. Lower pressure in vessels distal to coarctation
  3. Bruits (buzzes) over the scapulae and back from collateral vessels
  4. Murmur
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88
Q

What are symptoms for coarctation of aorta?

A

Often asymptomatic

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89
Q

What are the investigations for patients with coarctation of aorta?

A
  • CT/MRI
  • CXR - shows rib notching
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90
Q

What is the treatment for coarctation of aorta?

A

Surgical or percutaneous repair
- Coarctation angioplasty
- Subclavian flap repair
- End to end repair

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91
Q

What are 7 complications of coarctation of aorta?

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. Re-coarctation requiring repeat intervention
  3. Aneurysm formation at the site of repair
  4. Rupture of a dissecting aneurysm
  5. Congestive heart failure
  6. Intracerebral haemorrhage
  7. Bacterial endocarditis
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92
Q

What is bicuspid aortic valve?

A

Aortic valve with only two cusps instead of three

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93
Q

Describe the epidemiology of bicuspid aortic valve

A

1-2% of the general population

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94
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of bicuspid aortic valve

A

Abnormal degradation of aortic valve over time

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95
Q

What is a sign of bicuspid aortic valve?

A

Undetected at birth (works fine)
1. Exercise exacerbates complications

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96
Q

What are 2 investigations for patients with bicuspid aortic valve?

A
  1. Echocardiogram
  2. MRI
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97
Q

What is the treatment for bicuspid aortic valve?

A

Valve replacement (once complications develop)

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98
Q

What are 4 complications of bicuspid aortic valve?

A
  1. Aortic regurgitation
  2. Infective endocarditis
  3. Subacute bacterial endocarditis
  4. Aortic dissection/dilation
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99
Q

What is patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Failure of ductus arteriosus to close

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100
Q

Describe the epidemiology of patent ductus arteriosus

A
  • 0.02% of live births
  • More common in prem babies
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101
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of patent ductus arteriosus

A
  • Abnormal shunt of blood from aorta to pulmonary artery
  • Increased pulmonary arterial flow
  • Right sided heart strain (right ventricular hypertrophy)
  • Lack of oxygenated blood to the body results in left sided heart strain (left ventricular hypertrophy)
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102
Q

What are 2 signs and symptoms of a small patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Usually asymptomatic
1. Continuous ‘machinery’ murmur
2. Loudest at second heart sound

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103
Q

What are 6 signs and symptoms of a large patent ductus arteriosus?

A
  1. Left ventricular impulse
  2. Cardiomegaly
  3. Shortness of breath/breathlessness
  4. Failure to thrive/poor feeding
  5. Eisenmenger’s syndrome
  6. Differential cyanosis (clubbed/blue toes, normal fingers)
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104
Q

What are 2 investigations for patients with patent ductus arterious?

A
  1. Echocardiogram
  2. CXR (cardiomegaly if large)
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105
Q

What is the treatment for patent ductus arteriosus?

A
  • Surgical/percutaneous closure
  • Venous approach (sometimes requires an AV loop)
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106
Q

What is patent foramen ovale?

A

Failure of the foramen ovale to close in the weeks after birth

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107
Q

Describe the epidemiology of patent foramen ovale

A

1/4 people

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108
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of patent foramen ovale

A

Deoxygenated blood shunted from right atrium into left atrium

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109
Q

What are symptoms of patent foramen ovale?

A

Usually asymptomatic

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110
Q

What are 2 investigations in patients with patent foramen ovale?

A
  1. ECG
  2. Bubble test (watch a bubble go across the heart)
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111
Q

What is the treatment for patent foramen ovale?

A
  • None usually
  • Cardiac catheterization
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112
Q

What is a complication of patent foramen ovale?

A
  • None usually
  • Thromboembolic stroke (extremely rare)
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113
Q

What is pulmonary stenosis?

A

Narrowing of the outflow of the right ventricle

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114
Q

Describe the epidemiology of pulmonary stenosis

A

8-12% of all congenital heart defects

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115
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of pulmonary stenosis

A
  • RV hypertrophy/failure
  • Poor pulmonary blood flow
  • Tricuspid regurgitation
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116
Q

What are 4 signs and symptoms of pulmonary stenosis?

A
  1. Well tolerated (mild/moderate)
  2. Murmur
  3. Shortness of breath
  4. Chest pain
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117
Q

What is the treatment for pulmonary stenosis?

A
  • Balloon valvuloplasty
  • Open valvotomy
  • Shunt to bypass blockages
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118
Q

What is cardiomyopathy?

A

Deterioration of the myocardium’s ability to contract (mechanical and/or electrical dysfunction)

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119
Q

What are the 4 types of cardiomyopathy?

A
  1. Dilated (DCM)
  2. Hypertrophic (HCM)
  3. Arrhythmogenic (ACM)
  4. Restrictive (RCM)
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120
Q

What is dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

Dilatation of the left ventricle leading to thin muscle and poorly generated contractile force

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121
Q

Describe the epidemiology of DCM

A
  • Most frequent cause of heart transplant
  • 35/100,000
  • Median age = 50
  • More common in males
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122
Q

What are the 4 causes of DCM?

A
  1. Ischaemia
  2. Alcohol
  3. Thyroid disorder (thyrotoxicosis)
  4. Genetic (often caused by cytoskeletal gene mutations)
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123
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of DCM

A
  • Enlargement/dilatation of LV chamber
  • Disrupts heart’s ability to pump blood effectively
  • Systolic dysfunction of left/both ventricles
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124
Q

What are 9 signs of DCM?

A
  1. Congestive heart failure
  2. Arrhythmia
  3. Thromboembolism
  4. Increased JVP
  5. Sudden death
  6. Pulmonary oedema
  7. Oedema
  8. Cardiomegaly
  9. 3rd/4th heart sounds
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125
Q

What are 3 symptoms of DCM?

A

Asymptomatic
1. Shortness of breath
2. Fatigue
3. Weakness

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126
Q

What are 3 investigations for patients with DCM?

A
  1. CXR - cardiomegaly and pulmonary oedema
  2. ECG - tachycardia
  3. Echocardiogram - dilated ventricles
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127
Q

What is the treatment for DCM?

A
  • Treat the cause
  • Bed rest
  • Loop/thiazide diuretics for fluid overload
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Beta blockers
  • Potentially an ICD (implantable cardioverter defibrillator)
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128
Q

What are 2 complications of DCM?

A
  1. Progressive heart failure
  2. Sudden cardiac death
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129
Q

What is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

Ventricular hypertrophy leading to the obstruction of the outflow tract

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130
Q

Describe the epidemiology of HCM

A
  • Most common cause of sudden death in young people
  • Most common genetic CVD
  • 1/500
  • More common in black men
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131
Q

What are the 2 causes of HCM?

A
  1. Genetic - autosomal dominant (sarcomeric protein gene mutations)
  2. 50% sporadic
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132
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of HCM

A
  • Genetic mutation of sarcomere protein
  • Left ventricular hypertrophy
  • Impaired diastolic filling
  • Reduced stroke volume/cardiac output
  • Abnormal mitral valve
  • Dynamic obstruction of left ventricular outflow tract
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133
Q

What are 5 signs of HCM?

A
  1. Late ejection systolic murmur (augmented by standing)
  2. Jerky carotid pulse (forceful apex beat)
  3. Left ventricular outflow tract obstruction (LVOTO)
  4. Alpha wave in JVP
  5. Sudden death
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134
Q

What are 5 symptoms of HCM?

A

Asymptomatic
1. Chest pain/angina
2. Dyspnoea/SOB
3. Palpitations
4. Dizziness
5. Syncope

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135
Q

What are 3 investigations for patients with HCM?

A
  1. ECG
  2. CXR - left atrial enlargement (especially with mitral regurgitation)
  3. Genetic analysis
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136
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with HCM?

A
  • T wave inversion
  • Deep Q waves
  • Left ventricular hypertrophy
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137
Q

What is the treatment for HCM?

A
  • Amiodarone (to reduce risk of arrhythmias and sudden death)
  • Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers for pain
  • ICD (to reduce risk of sudden death)
  • Septal myectomy (severe)
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138
Q

What is a complication of HCM?

A

Sudden death

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139
Q

What is arrhythmogenic cardiomyopathy?

A

Inherited heart muscle disorder involving loss of myocytes and fibro fatty replacement of right ventricular myocardium

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140
Q

Describe the epidemiology of ACM

A
  • 1/2,000
  • Italy/Greece
  • More common in males
  • Genetic predisposition in 30-50% of cases (autosomal dominant)
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141
Q

What are 3 causes of ACM?

A
  1. Unknown
  2. Response to apoptosis, inflammation or genetics (desmosome gene mutations)
  3. Naxos disease (due to autosomal recessive condition)
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142
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of ACM

A
  • Genetic mutation of desmosomes
  • Fibro fatty replacement of RV myocytes
  • Impaired ability of the RV muscle due to loss of myocytes
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143
Q

What are 4 signs of ACM?

A

1/2 patients have a normal examination
1. Sudden death
2. Arrhythmia
3. RV changes/failure
4. Biventricular pump failure (mimics DCM)

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144
Q

What are 2 symptoms of ACM?

A
  1. Palpitations
  2. Syncope/pre syncope
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145
Q

What are 3 investigations for patients with ACM?

A
  1. RV angiography (to evaluate RV function)
  2. MRI
  3. Echocardiogram
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146
Q

What does an MRI look like in patients with ACM?

A
  • RV enlargement
  • Fatty infiltration
  • Fibrosis
  • Wall motion abnormalities
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147
Q

What does an echocardiogram look like in patients with ACM?

A
  • RV wall abnormalities
  • RV dysfunction
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148
Q

What is the treatment for ACM?

A
  • Standard heart failure medication
  • Beta blockers (if asymptomatic)
  • ICD (if high risk)
  • Heart transplant (if refractory treatment)
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149
Q

What are complications of ACM?

A
  • Progressive disease
  • Mortality rate = 1-3%
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150
Q

What is restrictive cardiomyopathy?

A

Failure of ventricles to contract properly due to the replacement of normal heart muscle with scar tissue causing rigid ventricles - heart failure with normal systolic function

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151
Q

Describe the epidemiology of RCM

A
  • 1/1000-5000
  • 5% of all cardiomyopathies
  • Elderly
  • Tropical Africa
  • Not familial
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152
Q

What are 5 causes of RCM?

A
  1. Amyloidosis
  2. Sarcoidosis
  3. Idiopathic
  4. End myocardial fibrosis
  5. Infiltrative myocardial disease
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153
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of RCM

A
  • Increased myocardial stiffness in ventricular cavities with normal size and systolic function
  • Impaired ventricle filling
  • Ventricles become incompliant (fill predominantly in early diastole)
  • Bi-atrial enlargement
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154
Q

What are 5 signs of RCM?

A
  1. Increased JVP (elevated on inspiration)
  2. Congestive heart failure
  3. Oedema/pulmonary oedema
  4. 3rd/4th heart sounds
  5. Murmur
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155
Q

What are 2 symptoms of RCM?

A
  1. Dyspnoea/SOB
  2. Fatigue
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156
Q

What are 3 investigations for patients with RCM?

A
  1. Echocardiogram - thickened ventricular walls, valves and atrial septum
  2. MRI (to distinguish between cardiomyopathies)
  3. Cardiac catheterisation
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157
Q

What is the treatment for RCM?

A
  • Standard heart failure medication
  • ICD (if high risk)
  • Transplant
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158
Q

What are complications of RCM?

A
  • Heart failure
  • Sudden death
  • Poor prognosis
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159
Q

What is an arrhythmia?

A

An abnormality in cardiac rhythm

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160
Q

What is tachycardia?

A

Fast heart rate >100bpm

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161
Q

What is sinus tachycardia?

A
  • > 100bpm
  • Physiological response to exercise and excitement (also occurs in anaemia, fever, heart failure, thyrotoxicosis, acute PE, hypovolaemia, atropine)
  • Treatment = correction of cause and beta blockers
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162
Q

What is atrial tachycardia?

A
  • > 150bpm
  • Abnormal P waves
  • Normal QRS complexes
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163
Q

What would an ECG look like in patients with ventricular tachycardia?

A
  • No P waves
  • Regular, wide QRS complexes
  • No T waves
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164
Q

What is supraventricular tachycardia?

A
  • Arises from the atrium or AV junction
  • Atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, AVRT, AVNRT
  • P waves may not be visible
  • Pre-excitation on resting ECG
  • Short PR interval
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165
Q

What is ventricular tachycardia?

A
  • Arises from the ventricles
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166
Q

What is atrial fibrillation?

A

An irregularly irregular heart rhythm

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167
Q

Describe the epidemiology of AF

A
  • Most common sustained arrhythmia
  • 5-10% of patients >65
  • More common in males
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168
Q

What are 6 causes of AF?

A
  1. Idiopathic
  2. Heart failure
  3. Valvular heart disease (particularly mitral valve stenosis)
  4. Cardiac surgery
  5. Cardiomyopathy
  6. Rheumatic heart disease
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169
Q

What are 6 risk factors for AF?

A
  1. Over 60
  2. Diabetes
  3. Hypertension
  4. CAD
  5. Previous MI
  6. Structural heart disease
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170
Q

What is CHA2DS2-VASc?

A

Used to calculate stroke risk for patients with AF

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171
Q

What does CHA2DS2-VASc stand for?

A
  • Congestive heart failure
  • Hypertension
  • Age >75
  • Diabetes
  • Stroke/TIA
  • Vascular disease
  • Age 65-74
  • Sex (female)
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172
Q

What is ORBIT?

A

Used in patients with AF to assess the risk of major bleeding with anticoagulation

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173
Q

What does ORBIT stand for?

A
  • Older than 74
  • Reduced haemoglobin (<13g/dL (m) or <12g/dL (f))
  • Bleeding history
  • Insufficient kidney function
  • Treatment with antiplatelets
174
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of AF

A
  • Continuous rapid activation of the atria with no organised mechanical action at 300-600bpm
  • Irregular ventricular rate
175
Q

What are 3 signs of AF?

A
  1. Irregularly irregular pulse
  2. Stroke/TIA
  3. Apical pulse > radial
176
Q

What are 5 symptoms of AF?

A

Asymptomatic
1. Palpitations
2. Dyspnoea/SOB
3. Syncope
4. Chest pains
5. Fatigue

177
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with AF?

A
  • No P waves
  • Rapid/irregular QRS (variability in PR intervals)
178
Q

What is the treatment for AF?

A
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers to control rate
  • Cardioversion and defibrillator to control rhythm
  • LMWH to prevent thromboembolism
179
Q

What are 2 complications of AF?

A
  1. Stroke (static blood in atria pools and clots and them embolises)
  2. Heart failure
180
Q

What is atrial flutter?

A

Organised atrial rhythm at a rate of 250-350bpm

181
Q

What are 7 causes of atrial flutter?

A
  1. Idiopathic
  2. CAD
  3. Obesity
  4. Hypertension
  5. Heart failure
  6. COPD
  7. Pericarditis
182
Q

What is a risk factor for atrial flutter?

A

Atrial fibrillation

183
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of atrial flutter

A
  • Electrical signal recirculates in a self-perpetuating loop due to an extra electrical pathway
  • Signal goes round the atria without interrupting
  • Signal makes it into the ventricles every second lap due to the long refractory period
184
Q

What are 6 symptoms of atrial flutter?

A
  1. Palpitations
  2. Chest pain
  3. Syncope
  4. Fatigue
  5. SOB
  6. Dizziness
185
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with atrial flutter?

A

Sawtooth flutter waves (F waves)

186
Q

What is the treatment for atrial flutter?

A
  • Treat underlying condition
  • Anticoagulation
  • Radiofrequency catheter ablation of the re-entrant rhythm
  • Beta blockers to control rate
  • Cardioversion or amiodarone to control rhythm
187
Q

What is Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome?

A

Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT) - when there is an accessory pathway for conduction

188
Q

What are 7 causes of AVRT?

A
  1. Congenital
  2. Hypokalaemia
  3. Hypocalcaemia
  4. Drugs (amiodarone, TCAs)
  5. Bradycardia
  6. Acute MI
  7. Diabetes
189
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of AVRT

A
  • There is an accessory pathway (bundle of Kent) between the atria and ventricles
  • When the SAN depolarises, the impulse can travel quicker to the AVN and ventricle as there are two paths
190
Q

What are 4 symptoms of AVRT?

A
  1. Palpitations
  2. Severe dizziness
  3. Dyspnoea
  4. Syncope
191
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with AVRT?

A
  • Short PR interval
  • Wide QRS complex that begins slurred (delta wave)
192
Q

What is the treatment for AVRT?

A
  • Vagal manoeuvre (breath holding, carotid massage, valsalva manoeuvre)
  • IV adenosine (cause a complete heart block for a fraction of a second)
  • Surgery - catheter ablation of pathway
193
Q

What is AVNRT?

A

Atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia

194
Q

Describe the epidemiology of AVNRT

A
  • Most common type of SVT
  • Twice as common in women than men
195
Q

What are 3 risk factors for AVNRT?

A
  1. Exertion
  2. Caffeine
  3. Alcohol
196
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of AVNRT

A
  • The presence of a ‘ring’ of conducting pathways in the AV node with the ‘limbs’ all having different conduction times and refractory periods
  • Allows a re-entry circuit
197
Q

What are 5 symptoms of AVNRT?

A
  1. Regular rapid palpitations (abrupt onset and sudden termination)
  2. Neck pulsation (JV pulsations)
  3. Polyuria
  4. Chest pain
  5. Shortness of breath
198
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with AVNRT?

A
  • P waves either not visible or seen immediately before/after QRS complex
  • QRS complex is a normal shape
199
Q

What is the treatment for AVNRT?

A
  • Vagal manoeuvre (breath holding, carotid massage, valsalva manoeuvre)
  • IV adenosine (cause a complete heart block for a fraction of a second)
200
Q

What is prolonged QT syndrome?

A

Increased time taken by the ventricles to repolarise

201
Q

What are 7 causes of prolonged QT syndrome?

A
  1. Congenital
  2. Hypokalaemia
  3. Hypocalcaemia
  4. Drugs (amiodarone, TCAs)
  5. Bradycardia
  6. Acute MI
  7. Diabetes
202
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of prolonged QT syndrome

A
  • Long repolarisation periods can result in random spontaneous depolarisation (afterdepolarisations)
  • These spread through the ventricles which result in ventricular contraction prior to ventricular repolarisation
203
Q

What are 2 symptoms of prolonged QT syndrome?

A
  1. Palpitations
  2. Syncope
204
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with prolonged QT syndrome?

A

Prolonged QT interval

205
Q

What is the treatment for prolonged QT syndrome?

A
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Cardioversion
  • IV isoprenaline (if acquired, not congenital)
  • Beta blockers
  • Pacemaker or ICD
206
Q

What are 3 complications of prolonged QT syndrome?

A
  1. Progression to Torsades de Pointes
  2. Sudden cardiac death
  3. Seizures
207
Q

What is Torsades de Pointes?

A

When prolonged QT syndrome progresses so that the ventricles stimulate recurrent contractions without normal repolarisation

208
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with Torsades de Pointes?

A
  • QRS complexes appear to be twisted around baseline
  • Height of QRS complex progressively get smaller, then larger, then smaller etc
  • Prolonged QT interval
209
Q

What is the treatment for Torsades de Pointes?

A
  • May terminate spontaneously
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Magnesium infusion
  • Beta blockers
  • Pacemaker or ICD
210
Q

What is a complication of Torsades de Pointes?

A

Progression into ventricular tachycardia which can lead to cardiac arrest

211
Q

What are ventricular ectopics?

A

Premature ventricular beats caused by random electrical discharges from outside the atria

212
Q

What are the risk factors for ventricular ectopics?

A

Pre existing heart conditions e.g. IHD and heart failure

213
Q

What is the main symptom for ventricular ectopics?

A

Random, brief palpitations

214
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with ventricular ectopics?

A

Random, broad QRS complexes

215
Q

What is 1st degree heart block?

A

Delayed atrioventricular conduction through the AV node

216
Q

What are 4 causes of 1st, 2nd and 3rd degree heart blocks?

A
  1. Previous MI
  2. Structural damage to the heart
  3. Drugs e.g. beta blockers, CCBs
  4. Rheumatic fever
217
Q

What is the main sign of 1st and 2nd degree heart block?

A

Bradycardia

218
Q

What are the symptoms of 1st degree heart block?

A

Usually asymptomatic

219
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with 1st degree heart block?

A

Prolonged QT interval >0.2 seconds

220
Q

What is the treatment for 1st degree heart block?

A

None needed

221
Q

What is 2nd degree heart block?

A

Some atrial impulses do not go through the AV node to reach the ventricles

222
Q

What are the two types of 2nd degree heart block and describe their pathophysiology

A

Mobitz type 1:
- Atrial impulses become gradually weaker until eventually, they do not pass through the AV node
Mobitz type 2:
- Intermittent failure/interruption of AV conduction

223
Q

What are 3 symptoms of Mobitz type 1 2nd degree heart block?

A
  1. Light headedness
  2. Dizziness
  3. Syncope
224
Q

What are 3 symptoms of Mobitz type 2 2nd degree heart block?

A
  1. Shortness of breath
  2. Postural hypotension
  3. Chest pain
225
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with Mobitz type 1 2nd degree heart block?

A

Progressively increasing PR intervals until an absent QRS complex (cycle then repeats)

226
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with Mobitz type 2 2nd degree heart block?

A

Sustained PR intervals with missing QRS complexes - usually set ratio of P waves to QRS complexes

227
Q

What is the treatment for 2nd degree heart block?

A
  • May be managed with monitoring
  • Pacemaker
228
Q

What is 3rd degree (complete) heart block?

A

Failure of atrial impulses to reach the ventricles

229
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of complete heart block

A
  • All atrial activity fails to conduct to ventricles
  • Ventricular contraction is maintained by spontaneous escape rhythm from below the side of block
230
Q

What are the 2 symptoms of complete heart block?

A

Stokes-Adams attacks:
1. Dizziness
2. Blackouts

231
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with complete heart block?

A
  • Complete dissociation of P waves and QRS complexes
  • Abnormally shaped QRS complexes
232
Q

What is the treatment for complete heart block?

A
  • Permanent pacemaker
  • IV atropine
233
Q

What is bundle branch block?

A

A block in the conduction of one of the bundle branches, so the ventricles don’t receive impulses at the same time

234
Q

What are 4 causes of left bundle branch block (LBBB)?

A
  1. IHD
  2. Aortic valve disease
  3. Left ventricular hypertrophy
  4. Following cardiac surgery
235
Q

What are 5 causes of right bundle branch block (RBBB)?

A
  1. PE
  2. IHD
  3. Congenital heart disease
  4. AVSD
  5. Right ventricular hypertrophy
236
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of bundle branch block

A

One of the bundles doesn’t conduct, so impulse spreads from one ventricle to another resulting in late activation of that bundle

237
Q

What is a symptom for bundle branch blocks?

A
  • Usually asymptomatic
  • Syncope/pre syncope
238
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with LBBB?

A
  • WiLLiaM (V1 = W, V6 = M)
  • Second R wave in left ventricular leads (I, AvL, V4-V6)
  • Slurred S waves in leads V1 and V2
239
Q

What does an ECG look like in patients with RBBB?

A
  • MaRRoW (V1 = M, V6 = W)
  • Wide QRS complex
  • Second R wave in lead V1
  • Slurred S wave in leads V5 and V6
240
Q

What is the treatment for bundle branch blocks?

A
  • Pacemaker
  • Cardiac resynchronisation therapy
  • Reduce blood pressure
  • Treat underlying condition
241
Q

What is rheumatic fever?

A

Systemic infection caused by an antibody from the cell wall - cross-reacts with valve tissue and can cause permanent damage to the heart valves

242
Q

What are the 5 signs of rheumatic fever?

A
  1. Tachycardia
  2. Murmur
  3. Pericardial rub
  4. Erythema marginatum (red rash with raised edges and centre centre)
  5. Prolonged PR interval
243
Q

What are 6 symptoms of rheumatic fever?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Painful, tender joints (arthritis)
  3. Chest pain
  4. Shortness of breath
  5. Fatigue
  6. Chorea (jerky movements)
244
Q

What is the Jones criteria for rheumatic fever?

A

To diagnose, must have recent strep infection (Lancefield group A B-haemolytic streptococci) and either:
- 2 major criteria
OR
- 1 major criteria and 2 minor criteria

245
Q

What are the 4 major criteria for rheumatic fever?

A
  1. Carditis (tachycardia, murmur, pericardial rub, cardiomegaly)
  2. Arthritis
  3. Erythema marginatum
  4. Sydenham’s chorea
246
Q

What are the 5 minor criteria for rheumatic fever?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Raised ESR/CRP
  3. Arthralgia
  4. Prolonged PR interval
  5. Previous rheumatic fever
247
Q

What is the treatment for rheumatic fever?

A
  • Bed rest until CRP is normal for 2 weeks consistently
  • Benzylpenicillin IV, then phenoxymethylpenicillin for 10 days
  • Aspirin for analgesia
  • Haloperidol/diazepam for chorea
248
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A

Weakening of vessel walls followed by dilation due to increase wall stress

249
Q

What are the 6 risk factors for aortic aneurysms?

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Family history
  3. Connective tissue disorders (Marfan’s, Ehlers-Danlos)
  4. Age
  5. Atherosclerosis
  6. Male
250
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of aortic aneurysms

A
  • Inflammation and degeneration of SMC
  • Loss of structural integrity of aortic wall
  • Mechanical stress acts on weakened wall tissue
  • Widening of vessel, dilation and rupture
  • Dilatation of vessel wall causes disruption of laminar blood flow and turbulence
  • Possible formation of thrombi in aneurysm (–> peripheral thromboembolism)
251
Q

What are 2 signs of aortic aneurysms?

A
  1. Pulsatile mass on palpation
  2. Bruit on auscultation
252
Q

What is a symptom of aortic aneurysms?

A

Usually asymptomatic
1. Lower back/abdominal pain (if expanding rapidly)

253
Q

What are 2 investigations for patients with aortic aneurysms?

A
  1. 1st line = ultrasonography (ultrasound)
  2. Usually discovered on routine examinations and imaging
254
Q

What is the treatment for ruptured aortic aneurysms?

A

Urgent repair whilst maintaining haemodynamic stability (EVAR - endovascular aneurysmal repair)

255
Q

What is the treatment for unruptured aortic aneurysms?

A

Surveillance of diameter - repair required if high risk of rupture (when diameter exceeds 5.5cm in men or 5cm in women)

256
Q

What are 3 complications of aortic aneurysms?

A
  1. Rupture
  2. Thromboembolism
  3. Formation of fistula
257
Q

What are the 5 signs and symptoms of a AAA rupture?

A
  1. Acute onset of severe, tearing abdominal pain with radiation to back, flank and groin
  2. Painful pulsatile mass
  3. Hypovolemic shock
  4. Syncope
  5. Nausea/vomiting
258
Q

What is aortic dissection?

A

A tear in the intimal layer of the aorta leading to a collection of blood between the intima and medial layers

259
Q

Describe the epidemiology of aortic dissection

A
  • Most common in men aged 50-70
  • 65% of cases in the ascending aorta (before brachiocephalic artery?)
260
Q

What are 5 risk factors of aortic dissection?

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. Trauma
  3. Vasculitis
  4. Cocaine use
  5. Connective tissue disorders
261
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of aortic dissection

A
  • Tear in the intimal layer
  • Blood passes through the media, propagating distally or proximally
  • Haematoma forms which separates the intima from the adventitia, creating a false lumen
  • As the dissection propagates, flow through the false lumen can occlude flow through branches of the aorta
  • Causes ischaemia of supplied regions
262
Q

Where are the 2 most common sites of aortic dissection?

A
  1. Within 2-3cm of aortic valve (before brachiocephalic artery)
  2. Distal to (after) the left subclavian artery in the descending aorta
263
Q

What are 3 signs of aortic dissection?

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Asymmetrical blood pressure
  3. Pulse loss
264
Q

What are 2 symptoms of aortic dissection?

A
  1. Sudden and severe tearing pain in chest (radiates to back)
  2. Syncope
265
Q

What are 4 investigations for patients with aortic dissection?

A
  1. ECG (20% will have evidence of ischaemia/MI)
  2. Ultrasound (indicates site/extent)
  3. MRI/CT (for confirmation)
  4. CXR (appears normal - poor indicator)
266
Q

What is the treatment for aortic dissection?

A
  • Stent graft
  • Surgery (if the dissection appears to be progressing)
267
Q

What are the complications of aortic dissection?

A

Rupture (80% mortality) into pericardium (cardiac tamponade), mediastinum or pleural space

268
Q

What is peripheral vascular disease?

A

Narrowing of arteries distal to the aortic arch

269
Q

Describe the epidemiology of PVD

A
  • Affects 4-12% of people aged between 55-70
  • Affects 15-20% of people aged 70+
  • 50% mortality at 5 years
  • 70% mortality at 10 years
270
Q

What is the main cause of PVD?

A

Atherosclerotic damage

271
Q

What are 7 risk factors of PVD?

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Diabetes
  3. Hypertension
  4. Sedentary lifestyle
  5. Hyperlipidaemia
  6. History of CAD
  7. Age >40
272
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of PVD

A
  • Atherosclerosis causes stenosis of vessels leading to claudication
  • Claudication can also be caused by aortic coarctation, temporal arteritis and Buerger’s disease
  • Gradual progression to sudden deterioration
273
Q

What is Buerger’s disease?

A

Inflammation and clotting in arteries and veins of hands and feet

274
Q

What are 4 signs of PVD?

A
  1. Absent femoral pulse
  2. Absent popliteal pulse
  3. Absent foot pulse
  4. Cold, pale legs
275
Q

What are 3 symptoms of PVD?

A

Usually asymptomatic
1. Intermittent claudication of lower limbs on exercise
2. Unremitting pain in foot especially at night
3. Loss of leg hair and skin changes

276
Q

What are 2 investigations for patients with PVD?

A
  1. ECG (evidence of CAD in 60% of patients)
  2. Doppler ultrasonography (ankle brachial pressure index) <0.90
277
Q

What is ankle brachial pressure index?

A

Measures ratio of systolic BP at ankle and arm to provide a measure of blood flow at level of ankle (normal value = 1)

278
Q

What is treatment for PVD?

A
  • Control risk factors
  • Antiplatelet therapy (aspirin/clopidogrel)
279
Q

What are complications of PVD?

A

Critical limb ischaemia which can lead to gangrene, infection, poor healing, ulceration

280
Q

What is the treatment for critical limb ischaemia?

A
  • Revascularisation (e.g. stenting, angioplasty, bypassing)
  • Amputation
281
Q

What are the clinical presentations of critical limb ischaemia?

A

6 Ps:
1. Pain
2. Paraesthesia
3. Pulselessness
4. Pallor
5. Paralysis
6. Poikilothermia (intrinsic thermoregulatory failure)

282
Q

What is the WHO classification of hypertension?

A

140/90mmHg on at least two readings on separate occasions

283
Q

What are 5 causes of secondary HTN?

A
  1. Renal e.g. CKD
  2. Endocrine e.g. Conn’s, acromegaly, Cushing’s
  3. Coarctation of aorta
  4. Pre-eclampsia
  5. Drugs e.g. oestrogen containing oral contraceptives, NSAIDs, vasopressin
284
Q

What are 6 modifiable risk factors of HTN?

A
  1. Alcohol intake
  2. Sedentary lifestyle
  3. Unhealthy diet
  4. Obesity
  5. Smoking
  6. Sleep apnoea
285
Q

What are 4 non modifiable risk factors for HTN?

A
  1. Family history
  2. Old age
  3. Male
  4. Afro-Caribbean
286
Q

What are the stages of HTN?

A

Stage 1 = >140/90mmHg
Stage 2 = > 160/90mmHg
Stage 3 = >180/120mmHg (malignant HTN)

287
Q

What is a symptom of HTN?

A

Usually asymptomatic
1. Occasionally headache

288
Q

What are 2 investigations for patients with HTN?

A
  1. Blood pressure - 24-hour ambulatory BP monitor
  2. Check for end organ damage
289
Q

What are 5 investigations for patients with HTN and end organ damage?

A
  1. Urinalysis
  2. ECG/echo for LV hypertrophy
  3. Fundoscopy
  4. Blood (serum creatinine, eGFR, glucose)
  5. Clinical history (previous MI/stroke)
290
Q

What is the 1st line treatment for HTN?

A

Lifestyle changes:
- Smoking cessation
- Low fat/salt diet
- Reduce alcohol intake
- Increase exercise
- Weight loss

291
Q

What is the next line of treatment for HTN?

A

ACEI or angiotensin receptor blocker plus
1. CCB
2. Diuretic
3. Beta blocker

292
Q

What is malignant HTN?

A

Blood pressure >180/120mmHg leading to vascular disease

293
Q

What are 2 signs of malignant HTN?

A
  1. Severe hypertension
  2. Bilateral renal haemorrhage –> exudates –> papilloedema (AKI)
294
Q

What are 2 symptoms of malignant HTN?

A
  1. Headache
  2. Visual disturbance
295
Q

What is the treatment for malignant HTN?

A

Sodium nitroprusside

296
Q

What are 3 complications of malignant HTN?

A

Hypertensive emergencies:
1. AKI
2. HF
3. Encephalopathy

297
Q

What is aortic stenosis?

A

Narrowing of the aorta

298
Q

Describe the epidemiology of aortic stenosis

A

Most common valvular condition

299
Q

What are 4 causes of aortic stenosis?

A
  1. Idiopathic
  2. Calcification of congenital bicuspid valve
  3. Calcific degeneration of normal valve
  4. Rheumatic valvular disease
300
Q

What is the main risk factor for aortic stenosis?

A

Congenital bicuspid aortic valve

301
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of aortic stenosis

A
  • Aortic valve thickened/calcified which obstructs the normal flow
  • This increases LV pressure
  • CO decreases
  • Compensatory LV hypertrophy
  • Relative ischaemia due to increased myocardial oxygen demand
302
Q

What are 5 signs of aortic stenosis?

A
  1. Soft/absent 2nd heart sound
  2. Ejection systolic high pitched crescendo decrescendo murmur
  3. LV hypertrophy
  4. Heart failure
  5. Slow rising and weak carotid pulse
303
Q

What are 3 symptoms of aortic stenosis?

A

SAD:
- Syncope
- Angina
- Dyspnoea

304
Q

What are 4 investigations for patients with aortic stenosis?

A
  1. Echocardiogram
  2. ECG - LV hypertrophy, ST depression and T wave inversion (leads aVL, V5 and V6)
  3. CXR - LV hypertrophy, valvular calcification and prominence of ascending aorta
  4. Cardiac catheterisation (to exclude CAD)
305
Q

What is the treatment for aortic stenosis?

A
  • Surgery - aortic valve replacement or surgical valvuloplasty
  • Balloon valvuloplasty
  • Transcatheter aortic valve replacement
306
Q

What are 2 complications of aortic stenosis, aortic regurgitation, mitral stenosis and mitral regurgitation?

A
  1. Clotting from valve replacement
  2. Endocarditis
307
Q

What are 2 other complications of aortic stenosis?

A
  1. Left sided heart failure
  2. Sudden death
308
Q

What is aortic regurgitation?

A

Leakage of blood into LV during diastole due to ineffective coaptation of aortic cusps

309
Q

What are 4 causes of aortic regurgitation?

A
  1. Idiopathic
  2. Congenital bicuspid aortic valve
  3. Rheumatic heart disease
  4. Infective endocarditis
310
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of aortic regurgitation

A
  • Aortic valve fails to prevent reflux of blood
  • LV hypertrophy to maintain CO
  • Reduced diastolic BP
  • Relative ischaemia
311
Q

What are 6 signs of aortic regurgitation?

A
  1. Corrigan’s pulse (collapsing pulse)
  2. Austin Flint murmur (heard at apex, early diastolic rumbling)
  3. Quincke’s sign (capillary pulse in nails beds)
  4. De Musset’s sign (head nodding with each heart beat)
  5. Muller’s sign (visible pulsation of uvula)
  6. Early diastolic soft blowing murmur
312
Q

What are 5 symptoms of aortic regurgitation?

A
  1. Exertional/paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
  2. Orthopnoea (SOB while lying flat)
  3. Palpitations
  4. Angina
  5. Syncope
313
Q

What are 3 investigations for patients with aortic regurgitation?

A
  1. Echocardiogram
  2. ECG - LV hypertrophy
  3. CXR - cardiomegaly and occasional dilatation of ascending aorta
314
Q

What is the treatment for aortic regurgitation?

A
  • IE prophylaxis
  • ACE inhibitors if symptomatic/hypertensive
  • Replace valve before LV dysfunction
315
Q

What is mitral stenosis

A

Narrowing of mitral valve causing obstruction of LV inflow that prevents proper filling during diastole

316
Q

What are 4 causes of mitral stenosis?

A
  1. Rheumatic heart disease (rheumatic fever - streptococcus pyogenes)
  2. Infective endocarditis
  3. Mitral annular calcification
  4. Congenital
317
Q

What are 2 risk factors for mitral stenosis?

A
  1. History of rheumatic fever
  2. Untreated streptococcus infections
318
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of mitral stenosis

A
  • Inflammation causes thickening/calcification and immobility of valve
  • Leads to obstruction and blood flow from LA to LV
  • Increased LA pressure
  • Pulmonary hypertension
  • Right heart dysfunction
319
Q

What are 3 signs of mitral stenosis?

A
  1. Malar flushes on cheeks
  2. Atrial fibrillation
  3. Low pitched mid diastolic murmur
320
Q

What are 8 symptoms of mitral stenosis?

A
  1. Progressive exertional dyspnoea
  2. Cough
  3. Haemoptysis (coughing up blood)
  4. Palpitations
  5. Chest pain
  6. Fatigue
  7. Weakness
  8. Abdominal/lower leg swelling
321
Q

What are 3 investigations for patients with mitral stenosis?

A
  1. Echocardiogram
  2. CXR - LA enlargement, pulmonary hypertension and sometimes calcified mitral valve
  3. ECG - AF and LA enlargement
322
Q

What is the treatment for mitral stenosis?

A
  • Beta blockers (for AF)
  • Anticoagulants (for AF)
  • Diuretics
  • Percutaneous mitral balloon valvuloplasty
323
Q

What is another complication of mitral regurgitation?

A

Congestive heart failure

324
Q

What is mitral regurgitation?

A

Backflow of blood from LV to LA during systole

325
Q

What are 6 causes of mitral regurgitation?

A
  1. Idiopathic
  2. Myxomatous degeneration (mitral valve prolapse)
  3. Rheumatic heart disease
  4. Infective endocarditis
  5. Ischaemic mitral valve
  6. Dilated cardiomyopathy
326
Q

What are 5 risk factors for mitral regurgitation?

A
  1. Being female
  2. Lower BMI
  3. Advanced age
  4. Renal dysfunction
  5. Previous MI
327
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of mitral regurgitation

A
  • Leakage from LV into LA
  • Causes LA dilatation/enlargement
  • LV hypertrophy
  • Increased contractility
  • Pulmonary hypertension
328
Q

What are 3 signs of mitral regurgitation?

A
  1. Collapsing pulse with wide pulse pressure
  2. Hyperdynamic and displaced apex beat
  3. Pansystolic high pitched whistling murmur
329
Q

What are 3 symptoms of mitral regurgitation?

A
  1. Exertional dyspnoea
  2. Fatigue/lethargy
  3. Palpitations
330
Q

What are 3 investigations for patients with mitral regurgitation?

A
  1. CXR - shows enlarged LA and LV
  2. Echocardiogram - estimation of LA and LV size and function
  3. ECG
331
Q

What is the treatment for mitral regurgitation?

A
  • Consider IE prophylaxis
  • ACE inhibitors
  • Beta blockers/CCBs
  • Anticoagulants
  • Diuretics
  • Surgical valve replacement
332
Q

What is infective endocarditis?

A

An infection of the endocardium or vascular endothelium of the heart

333
Q

Describe the epidemiology of infective endocarditis

A
  • More common in males
  • 10 year survival = 60-90%
334
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of infective endocarditis?

A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus (IV drug users, diabetes, surgery)
  2. Streptococcus viridans (poor dental health)
  3. Staphylococcus epidermidis (prosthetic valves)
335
Q

What are 7 risk factors for infective endocarditis?

A
  1. IV drug users
  2. Immunocompromised patients
  3. Regurgitant/prosthetic valves
  4. Aortic/mitral valve disease
  5. Poor dental hygiene
  6. IV cannula
  7. Pacemakers
336
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of infective endocarditis

A
  • Damage to endothelium
  • Platelet and fibrin deposition
  • Organisms in the bloodstream adhere and grow = IE
  • Virulent organisms destroy valve
337
Q

What are 5 signs of infective endocarditis?

A
  1. Anaemia
  2. Splenomegaly
  3. Clubbing
  4. New murmur
  5. Sepsis of unknown origin
338
Q

How does infective endocarditis manifest in patients?

A
  • Skin - embolic skin lesions, petechiae
  • Hands - splinter haemorrhages, osler nodes, janeway lesions
  • Eyes - roth spots
339
Q

What are 7 symptoms of infective endocarditis?

A
  1. Fever
  2. Fatigue
  3. Loss of appetite
  4. Rigors
  5. Night sweats
  6. Malaise
  7. Weight loss
340
Q

What is the rule about investigating infective endocarditis?

A

Fever + new murmur = infective endocarditis until proven otherwise

341
Q

What are 5 investigations for patients with infective endocarditis?

A
  1. Echocardiogram (gold standard) - transoesophageal (more sensitive but uncomfortable) or transthoracic (non invasive but lower sensitivity)
  2. ECG - long PR interval
  3. CXR - cardiomegaly
  4. C-reactive protein test - raised CRP
  5. Modified Duke’s critera
342
Q

What are the 2 major criteria for infective endocarditis from Duke’s criteria?

A
  1. Pathogen grown from blood cultures
  2. Evidence of endocarditis on echo or new valve leak
343
Q

What are the 5 minor criteria for infective endocarditis from Duke’s criteria?

A
  1. Risk factors e.g. IVDUs, poor dental hygeine
  2. Fever
  3. Vascular phenomena
  4. Immune phenomena
  5. Equivocal blood cultures
344
Q

Using Duke’s criteria, what is a definite diagnosis of infective endocarditis?

A
  • 2 major criteria
  • 1 major criteria + 3 minor critera
  • 5 minor criteria
345
Q

What is the treatment for infective endocarditis?

A
  • Antibiotics
  • Treat complications
  • Surgery
  • Prevention
346
Q

What antibiotics are used for infective endocarditis?

A
  • Benzylpenicillin/flucloxacillin and gentamycin
  • If MRSA = vancomycin, rifampicin and gentamycin
347
Q

What surgery may be done for infective endocarditis?

A
  • Replace valve
  • Remove and replace infected devices
  • Remove large vegetation at risk of embolising
  • Treat complications e.g. aortic root abscess
348
Q

What is deep vein thrombosis?

A

Occlusion in normal vessels, most commonly deep veins of the leg

349
Q

Describe the epidemiology of deep vein thrombosis

A

1/1000 per year

350
Q

What are 6 causes of deep vein thrombosis?

A
  1. Surgery
  2. Immobility
  3. Leg fracture
  4. Oral contraceptives
  5. Long haul flights
  6. Pregnancy
351
Q

Besides usual (obesity, smoking, age, male, family history etc.), what are 5 risk factors for deep vein thrombosis?

A
  1. Varicose veins
  2. Plasminogen deficiency
  3. Thrombophilia
  4. Pregnancy
  5. Cancer
352
Q

What is a sign of DVT?

A

Often progresses to PE before presenting
1. Oedema

353
Q

What are 2 symptoms of DVT?

A
  1. Limb pain and tenderness along the lines of the deep veins
  2. Swollen, red, warm calf
354
Q

What are 4 investigations for patients with DVT?

A
  1. Ultrasound
  2. D-dimer
  3. Contract venography
  4. FBC including platelets
355
Q

What is the D-dimer test?

A
  • Type of coagulation screening
  • Fibrinogen degradation product
  • Negative = no DVT
  • Positive = potentially DVT
  • Also elevated in cancer, pregnancy and post op
356
Q

What is the treatment for DVT?

A
  • LMWH
  • Warfarin
  • DOACs (directing-acting oral anti-coagulants)
357
Q

What are 3 things done to prevent DVT?

A
  1. Compression stockings
  2. Early mobilisation
  3. Leg elevation
358
Q

What are 3 complications of DVT?

A
  1. PE
  2. Post thrombotic syndrome
  3. Recurrence of thrombosis
359
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

A blood clot in the lungs

360
Q

What are 5 general risk factors for PE?

A
  1. Change in blood flow (e.g. immobility, pregnancy)
  2. Change in blood vessels (e.g. smoking, HTN)
  3. Change in blood constituents (e.g. dehydration, COC pill)
  4. Recent surgery (especially abdominal/pelvic)
  5. Family history/past history of thromboembolism
361
Q

What are 6 signs of PE?

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Tachypnoea
  3. Pleural rub
  4. Pleural effusion
  5. Tachycardia
  6. Raised JVP
362
Q

What are 3 symptoms of PE?

A
  1. Sudden onset dyspnoea
  2. Pleuritic chest pain
  3. Haemoptsysis
363
Q

What are 8 investigations for patients with PE?

A
  1. CXR
  2. Bloods
  3. GOLD STANDARD - CT PULMONARY ANGIOGRAPH
  4. ECG
  5. ABG
  6. Plasma D-Dimer
  7. Ultrasound
  8. Echocardiography
364
Q

What is the treatment for PE?

A
  • LMWH
  • IV fluids and inotropic agent
  • High flow oxygen
  • Thrombolysis for massive PE
  • Analgesia
  • Surgical embolectomy
365
Q

Define heart failure

A

Inability of the heart to deliver blood and O2 at a rate commensurate with the requirements of the metabolising tissues, despite normal or increased cardiac filling pressures

366
Q

Describe the epidemiology of heart failure

A
  • Annual incidence of 10% in patients over 65
  • 50% of patients die within 5 years
367
Q

What are 6 causes of left sided heart failure?

A
  1. CAD
  2. MI
  3. Cardiomyopathy
  4. Congenital heart defects
  5. Valvular heart disease
  6. Arrhythmias
368
Q

What are 5 causes of right sided heart failure?

A
  1. Right ventricular infarct
  2. Pulmonary hypertension
  3. PE
  4. COPD
  5. Progression of left sided heart failure
369
Q

What are 3 causes of systolic heart failure?

A
  1. IHD
  2. MI
  3. Cardiomyopathy
370
Q

What are 2 causes of diastolic heart failure?

A
  1. Aortic stenosis
  2. Chronic HTN
371
Q

What are 4 risk factors for heart failure?

A
  1. Age 65+
  2. Obesity
  3. Male
  4. Previous MI
372
Q

What is right sided heart failure?

A

Inability of the right ventricle to pump adequate amounts of blood leading to systolic venous congestion

373
Q

What is left sided heart failure?

A

Inability of the left ventricle to pump adequate amounts of blood leading to pulmonary circulation congestion

374
Q

What is systolic heart failure?

A

Inability of the heart to contract efficiently to eject adequate volumes of blood (heart failure reduced ejection fraction)

375
Q

What is diastolic heart failure?

A

Reduction in the heart’s compliance resulting in compromised ventricular filling and therefore ejection (heart failure preserved ejection fraction)

376
Q

What is cor pulmonale?

A

Right sided heart failure caused by chronic pulmonary arterial hypertension

377
Q

What is low output HF?

A
  • Decreased CO
  • Due to pump failure, mitral regurgitation, aortic stenosis, hypertension etc.
378
Q

What is high output HF?

A
  • High demand
  • Due to anaemia, pregnancy, hyperthyroidism etc.
379
Q

What are the 4 main compensatory changes that occur during heart failure?

A
  1. Sympathetic stimulation
  2. RAAS
  3. Cardiac changes
  4. Myocyte hypertrophy
380
Q

What are the 4 main signs of left sided heart failure?

A
  1. Tachycardia
  2. Displaced apex beat
  3. 3rd and 4th heart sounds
  4. Heart murmur
381
Q

What are the 3 main signs of right sided heart failure?

A
  1. Tachycardia
  2. Raised JVP
  3. Hepatomegaly
382
Q

What are the 4 common symptoms of heart failure?

A
  1. Shortness of breath
  2. Fatigue
  3. Peripheral oedema (ankle swelling)
  4. Exertional/paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea
383
Q

What are the investigations for patients with HF?

A
  • CXR
  • ECG
  • Bloods
  • Cardiac enzymes
  • Echocardiogram
384
Q

What does a CXR look like in patients with HF?

A

ABCDE:
- Alveolar oedema
- kerley B lines
- Cardiomegaly
- Dilated upper lobe vessels of lung
- Effusion (pleural)

385
Q

What do bloods show in patients with MI?

A

Raised brain natriuretic peptide (secreted by ventricles in response to increased myocardial wall stress)

386
Q

What cardiac enzymes are you looking for patients with HF?

A
  • Creatinine kinase
  • Troponin I
  • Troponin T
  • Myoglobulin
387
Q

What drug management is given for HF?

A
  • ACE inhibitors e.g. ramipril
  • Beta blockers e.g. bisoprolol
  • Diuretics e.g. furosemide
  • Calcium glycoside e.g. digoxin
388
Q

What are other managements of HF?

A
  • Lifestyle changes
  • Ventricular assist device
  • Surgery
  • Heart transplant
389
Q

What is treatment for acute HF?

A

OMFG
- Oxygen
- Morphine
- Furosemide
- GTN spray

390
Q

What is treatment for chronic HF?

A

ABCD:
- ACE inhibitors
- Beta blockers
- Calcium channel blockers
- Diuretics

391
Q

What are 3 causes of HF?

A
  1. Chronic lung disease
  2. Pulmonary vascular disorders
  3. Neuromuscular and skeletal diseases
392
Q

What are 7 signs of cor pulmonale?

A
  1. Cyanosis
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Raised JVP
  4. RV heave
  5. Pan-systolic murmur
  6. Hepatomegaly
  7. Oedema
393
Q

What are 3 symptoms of cor pulmonale?

A
  1. Dyspnoea
  2. Fatigue
  3. Syncope
394
Q

What is the investigation for patients with cor pulmonale?

A

ABG - hypoxia +/- hypercapnia (build up of CO2 in bloodstream)

395
Q

What is the treatment for cor pulmonale?

A
  • Treat underlying cause
  • Give oxygen
  • Drugs
  • Consider venesection if haematocrit >55
  • Consider heart-lung transplantation in young patients
396
Q

What is hypervolaemic shock?

A

Inability of the heart to adequately perfuse tissues

397
Q

What are 3 causes of hypovolaemic shock?

A
  1. Low fluid volume (loss of >20% of body’s blood/fluid supply)
  2. Haemorrhage
  3. Dehydration
398
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of hypovolaemic shock?

A
  • Lower blood volume
  • Leads to reduced stroke volume and CO
  • Causes reduced perfusion
399
Q

What are 4 signs of hypovolaemic shock?

A
  1. Weak rapid pulse
  2. Cyanosis
  3. Increased CRT
  4. Hypotension
400
Q

What are 6 symptoms of hypovolaemic shock?

A
  1. Tachypnoea
  2. Anxiety
  3. Low urine output
  4. Sweating
  5. Dizziness
  6. Confusion
401
Q

What are the investigations for patients with hypovolaemic shock?

A
  1. Bloods (electrolytes)
  2. Ultrasound (visualise organs)
402
Q

What is the treatment for hypovolaemic shock?

A
  • ABCDE
  • Resuscitation (CPR, fluids and oyxgen)
  • Vasodilator (GTN)
403
Q

What are 4 complications of hypovolaemic shock?

A
  1. Death
  2. Organ failure (especially kidneys)
  3. Gangrene
  4. Heart attack
404
Q

What is anaphylactic shock?

A

Type I IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction

405
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of anaphylactic shock

A
  • Release of histamine from mast cells
  • Excess vasodilation and bronchoconstriction
406
Q

What are 2 signs of anaphylactic shock?

A
  1. Hypertension
  2. Tachycardia
407
Q

What are 3 symptoms of anaphylactic shock?

A
  1. Puffy face
  2. Cheek flushing
  3. Urticaria (hives)
408
Q

What is the treatment for anaphylactic shock?

A
  • ABCDE
  • 0.5mg intramuscular adrenaline
409
Q

What is septic shock?

A

Shock as a result of infection (medical emergency)

410
Q

What is the cause of septic shock?

A

Sepsis - toxins in the blood

411
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of septic shock

A
  • Bacterial infection damages the blood vessels
  • This causes them to leak fluid into the surrounding tissues
  • This decreases the mean arterial pressure
  • Causes a derangement in physiology
412
Q

What are 3 signs of septic shock?

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Tachycardia
  3. Decreased oxygen
413
Q

What are 7 symptoms of septic shock?

A
  1. Dizziness
  2. Confusion
  3. Diarrhoea and vomiting
  4. Cold clammy skin
  5. Tachypnoea
  6. Fever
  7. Decreased urinary output
414
Q

What are the investigations for patients with septic shock?

A
  • FBC = leucocytosis and low platelets
  • U&E = raised urea and creatinine
415
Q

What is the treatment for septic shock?

A
  • Broad spectrum IV antibiotics
  • Fluids
  • Oxygen
  • Vasopressors
416
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A

Failure of the pump action of the heart

417
Q

Describe the epidemiology of cardiogenic shock?

A

5-10% of patients with MI

418
Q

What are 2 causes of cardiogenic shock?

A
  1. Pump failure
  2. MI/cardiac arrest
419
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of cardiogenic shock

A
  • Decreased CO
  • Decreased MAP
  • Inability to perfuse vital organs and tissue
420
Q

What are 4 signs of cardiogenic shock?

A
  1. Tachycardia
  2. Hypotension
  3. Pale, mottled skin
  4. Peripheral oedema
421
Q

What are 6 symptoms of cardiogenic shock?

A
  1. Tachypnoea
  2. Reduced urinary output
  3. Cold peripheries
  4. Chest pain
  5. Nausea
  6. Profuse sweating
422
Q

What are the investigations for patients with cardiogenic shock?

A
  • U&Es (assess renal function)
  • FBC (exclude anaemia)
  • Echocardiogram (assess cause)
423
Q

What is the treatment for cardiogenic shock?

A
  • ABCDE
  • Resuscitation
  • Revascularisation with thrombolysis (if MI)
424
Q

What is neurogenic shock?

A

Sympathetic innervation due to CNS damage

425
Q

What is the main cause of neurogenic shock?

A

Damage to the CNS and spinal cord above T6

426
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of neurogenic shock?

A
  • Sympathetic tone loss leads to pooling of blood in extremities
  • Trauma causes a sudden loss of background sympathetic stimulation to blood vessels
  • This causes sudden vasodilation and therefore a sudden drop in BP
427
Q

What are 2 signs of neurogenic shock?

A
  1. Instantaneous hypotension
  2. Bradycardia
428
Q

What are 2 symptoms of neurogenic shock?

A
  1. Priapism
  2. Warm flushed skin
429
Q

What are the investigations for patients with neurogenic shock?

A
  • Physical examination
  • FBC
  • U&E
  • CT (to assess condition)
430
Q

What is the treatment for neurogenic shock?

A
  • Inotropic (dopamine)
  • Vasopressin
  • Vasopressors

Phase 2a (29 decks)

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