Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Exam questions > Neurology > Flashcards

Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

With damage to the thoracic vertebrae on the right side what sensation will be lost in the left leg?

A
  • Temperature
  • Pain
  • Crude touch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

With damage to the thoracic vertebrae on the right side what sensation will be lost in the right leg?

A
  • fine touch
  • vibration
  • proprioception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the features of lateral medullary syndrome?

A 
Ataxia 
Dysarthria 
Dysphagia 
Ipsilateral Horners 
ipsilateral pain and temp loss on face
contralateral pain and temp loss in body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the neurological presentation of basilar artery occlusion?

A

1) Locked in syndrome
- quadriparesis
- preserved consciousness and ocular movements
2) sudden death
3) loss of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What artery is involved in lateral medullary syndrome?

A

right or left posterior inferior cerebellar artery (artery is on same side as symptoms in face)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What artery will cause lateral pontine syndrome?

A

anterior inferior cerebellar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How are haemorrhage strokes treated?

A
  • no aspirin or thrombolysis
  • neurosurgical and neuropathy-critical care evaluation
  • protect airway
  • admit to neurology ICU
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the treatment for ischaemic stokes?

A
  • Aspirin 300mg orally

- IV alteplase (for thrombolysis providing within 4.5hr of onset)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How long after stroke onset is thrombolysis still first line management?

A

4.5 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which stroke patients will receive thrombolysis?

A
  • onset within 4.5 hours

- confirmed to not be hameorrhagic with imaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should a BP lowering medication be given to patients with haemorrhage stroke?

A

Only if BP greater than 140 systolic (as lowering BP can worsen cerebral perfusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the first line long term pharmacological therapy for stroke?

A

clopidogrel 75mg once daily + statin (e.g. Atrovastatin 80 mg once daily)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the risk factors for TIA?

A
  • A-fib
  • previous CV problems
  • alcohol
  • Migraines
  • hyperlipideamia
  • Diabetes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are sulfonylurea drugs a risk factor for?

A

hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does bleeding present on CT?

A

Hyper-density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is an extradural haemotoma likely to present?

A
  • trauma
  • loss of consciousness
  • often have lucid interval between loss of consciousness
  • deterioration common after lucid interval
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does a extradural haemotoma present on CT?

A

lentiform shaped heterogeneous hyper dense extra axial collection adjacent to left squamous temporal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How will subdural haematomas usually present?

A
  • elderly patients
  • on anticoagulants
  • sub-acute confusion
  • neurological deficit
  • after minor fall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does sub-arachnoid haemorrhage present?

A
  • thunderclap headache
  • photophobia
  • meningism (+ neck stiffness)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How would ischaemic stoke show on CT?

A

cortical hypo-density associated with loss of grey white matter differentiation in vascular territory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does smudge cells on a blood film indicate?

A

chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the diagnostic test for leukaemia?

A

bone marrow biopsy and immune-phenotyping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is first line diagnostic testing for pancytopenia?

A

1) blood film

2) bone marrow profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is treatment for patients in T2 respiratory failure?

A

(low O2 high CO2)

  • non-invasive ventilation
  • doxapram last line
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the subunits of the mediastinum?

A
  • superior mediastinum (first rib > T4)
  • anterior mediastinum (T4 > T9, Sternum > ant pericardium)
  • posterior mediastinum (T4 > T12, post pericardium > spine)
  • middle mediastinum (T4-9, Lateral border = either side pericardium)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What blood cells are most likely to be raised in bacterial infection?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What blood cells are most likely to be raised in viral infection?

A

Lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What blood cells are most likely to be raised in fungal infection?

A

eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What blood cells are most likely to be raised in protozoan infection?

A

monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the gram positive cocci?

A

staphylococci

streptococci (inc enterococci)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the gram negative cocci?

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Neisseria gonorrhoea
mortadella catarrhalis

32
Q

What are the gram positive rods?

A 
actinomycete 
bacillus anthracis
clostridium 
diphtheria 
Listeria monocytogenes
33
Q

What are bacteria if they are not neg cocci, pos rods or positive cocci?

A

neg rods

34
Q

What cranial nerve would be damaged if pupils are fixed and dilated?

A

oculomotor

35
Q

What nerve would be damaged if horizontal diplopia and eye pulled toward nose?

A

abducens

36
Q

What muscle does the abducens nerve innervate?

A

lateral rectus muscle

37
Q

What nerve would be damaged with vertical diplopia and head tilt?

A

trochlear

38
Q

What nerve would be damaged with pain on eye movements and central scotoma?

A

Optic

39
Q

What would typical pancreatitis pain present as?

A

severe
radiating to back
left lumbar

40
Q

What is Grey turners sign?

A

purple colourisation caused by retroperitoneal haemorrhage

41
Q

What are the most common causes of acute pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones and alcohol

42
Q

What is the mnemonic for acute pancreatitis causes?

A 
GET SMASHED
Gallstones
Ethanol 
Trauma
Steroids 
Mumps
Autoimmune
Scorpion venom
Hypertriglyceridaemia 
ERCP
Drugs
43
Q

What are the treatment options for C.Diff?

A

1) vancomycin
2) Fidaxomicin
3) Metrinidazole

44
Q

What are the symptoms of C.diff infection?

A
  • Diarrhoea
  • abdominal pain
  • ## raised WBC
45
Q

What is the corneal reflex?

A

eye blinks in response to wool touching eye ball

46
Q

What nerve provides sensory innervation to the eye?

A

trigeminal

47
Q

Where would a lesion result in Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

Superior temporal gyrus

48
Q

Where would a lesion result in Broca’s aphasia?

A

inferior frontal gyrus

49
Q

How is speech affected in Wernicke’s aphasia?

A

sentences don’t make sense, words substituted but speech is fluent (word salad)
Comprehension impaired

50
Q

How is speech affected in Broca’s aphasia?

A

speech non-fluent, laboured and halting, repetition impaired

51
Q

What is Dresslers syndrome?

A

autoimmune mediated pericarditis which occurs 2-6 weeks after MI

52
Q

What complication is the most common cause of death for patient after MI?

A

Cardiac arrest (patient develops V-Fib)

53
Q

Why can MI cause cardiogenic shock?

A

if ventricular myocardium damaged during MI, ejection fraction can reduce enough for development of cariogenic shock

54
Q

What is the treatment for chronic heart failure?

A

loop diuretics to decrease fluid overload

ACE inhibitors and beta blocker

55
Q

What are the most common arrhythmias which develop post-MI?

A

V-Fib
Ventricular tachycardia
Bradyarrhythmia due to AV block

56
Q

What are the symptoms of pericarditis?

A

pleural pain worse on lying down, presence of pleural rub and pericardial effusion on echocardiogram

57
Q

What are the possible complications post-MI?

A
  • Cardiac Arrest
  • Cardiogenic shock
  • chronic heart failure
  • arrhythmias
  • pericarditis
  • LV aneurysm
  • LF free wall rupture
  • ventricular septal defect
  • acute mitral regurgitation
58
Q

What enzyme does warfarin act on?

A

Epoxidase reductase which prevents reduction of vitamin K to active hydroquinone form

59
Q

When is warfarin used?

A

1) mechanical heart valves
2) 2nd line after DOAC for:
- venous thromboembolism
- atrial fibrillation

60
Q

What is the target INR for warfarin patients?

A

2.5 usually (INR only stable after a few days)

61
Q

What structures are contained within the carotid sheath?

A

carotid artery
internal jugular vein
vagus nerve

62
Q

What are the opioid receptors?

A
  • Mu (responsible for analgesia)
  • Kappa (responsible for cognitive effects)
  • Delta (increase analgesia and respiratory depression)
63
Q

What receptor does morphine bind to?

A

Mu

64
Q

What is the most common side effect of iron supplements?

A

Constipation

65
Q

What is the most common side effect of CCBs?

A

ankle swelling

66
Q

What drug causes a dry cough?

A

ACE inhibitors

67
Q

What is the most common side effect of antimuscarinic medications?

A

Urinary retention

68
Q

What substances increase iron absorption?

A

Vit C and gastric acid

69
Q

What is the most common meningitis causing organism in adults?

A

1) streptococcus pneumonia
2) neisseria meningitidis
3) Listeria monocytogenes
4) Haemophilus Influenza type B

70
Q

How can you differentiate between bacterial meningitis and viral?

A 
Viral = fever 
Bacterial = lumbar puncture with turbid fluid, raised opening pressure and low glucose
71
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in infants > 3month?

A

E.coli

72
Q

What is the most common cause of meningitis in children younger than 6?

A

Haemophilus Influenza B

73
Q

How can you differentiate between stroke and Bells palsy?

A

If forehead is also paralysed more likely Bells Palsy

74
Q

Which nerve palsy is Bells?

A

Facial = 7

75
Q

What are the different respiratory controls?

A
  • respiratory centres
  • chemoreceptors
  • lung receptors
  • muscles
76
Q

What are the different respiratory centres?

A

1) medullary respiratory centre
2) Apneustic centre
3) Pneumotaxic centre

Exam questions (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions