Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HD 4 - dental relevance > Neurological + special senses > Flashcards

Neurological + special senses Flashcards

1
Q

in how many hours does a TIA take to resolve?

A

24 hours

usually less than 1 hour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2 types of strokes + their percentage chance

A

infarction = 90%

haemorrhage = 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what scale is used for diagnosis of strokes?

A

ROSIER

+1 for asymmetrical face, arm, leg weakness, speech, visual

-1 loss of consciousness, seizure activity

score 1-5 likely stoke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what scale is used to determine stroke risk after TIA?

A

ABCD2

score 0-3 - aspirin + investigate in 2 weeks
score 4-7 - aspirin + assessment within 24hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

main dental relevance of strokes?

A

pts on antithrombotic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

3 stages of swallowing

A

mastication
pharyngal stage
oesophageal stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

4 main causes of swallowing problems

A
  1. strokes
  2. neurological disease
  3. mechanical obstruction
  4. oesophageal motility disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how to assess swallowing if suspected mechanical obstruction?

A

barium swallow/upper endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is achalasia

A

problem with plexus of nerves that controls peristalsis + LOS doesn’t open properly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what cranial nerve is tested with tuning fork test?

A

8th - vestibulocochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the 2 types of deafness?

A

conductive - air not transported - normally wax

sensory neural - 8th cranial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2 tests to distinguish conductive + sensory deafness

A

rinne test - if bone connectivity > air conductivity = conductive deafness

weber test - if sound on same side as problem = conductive, if contralateral = sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is glue ear?

A

otitis media - infection of middle ear causing inflammation + fluid build up

‘blue’ ear in children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are grommets?

A

tubes that help drainage from middle to outer ear

cleft pts usually fitted with grommets due to association with Eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

2 places ear infections can spread?

A

up to Brian

backwards to mastoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

if an elderly pt presents with an enlarged temporal artery, headache and visual problems what is presumed until proven otherwise?

A

temporal arteritis/giant cell arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

triad of symptoms for behcets disease ?

A

oral ulceration
genital ulceration
uveitits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how do you test for behcets?

A

stick needle under skin, check for over response/red mark in a couple of days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

2 examples of mucous membrane disorders that can effect the eye?

A

Steven johnson syndrome

mucous membrane pemphigoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

histological characteristic of mucous pemphigoid?

A

basement membrane antibody accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

histological characteristic of mucous pemphigus?

A

intracellular antibody accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

difference between pemphigoid + pemphigus?

A

pemphigoid = basement membrane - don’t pop

pemphigus = epidermis - pop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

triad of symptoms for sjogrens syndrome?

A

dry eyes, dry mouth, dry tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are eye blow fractures associated with?

A

zygomatic fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

orbital cellulitis could be caused by what dental problem

A

tooth ache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CN 1

A

olfactory

smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

CN2

A

optic

sight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CN3

A

oculomotor

movement of eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CN4

A

trochlear

movement of eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CN 5

A

trigeminal

sensory
motor - MOM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

CN 6

A

abducens

eye movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

CN 7

A

facial

motor - facial expression, lacrimation
sensory - taste ant 2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CN 8

A

vestibulocochlear

hearing + balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

CN 9

A

glossopharyngeal

sensory - taste post 1/3
motor - stylopharyngeas contort - gag reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

CN 10

A

vagus

sensory - throat, abdomen, aortic body
motor - muscles of pharynx, smooth muscles of glands of thorax + abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

CN 11

A

accessory

shoulder shrug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CN 12

A

hypoglossal

tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is bells palsy?

A

exclusion diagnosis for facial palsy

39
Q

does bells palsy effect upper or lower motor neurones of facial nerve?

A

lower

40
Q

a lower motor neurone lesion of VII causes what sort of facial palsy?

A

total facial palsy on ipsilateral side

41
Q

characteristic of upper motor neurone lesion of VII?

A

forehead spared, lower facial palsy on contralateral side

eg. from stroke/tumour

42
Q

how to test trigeminal nerve?

A

stoke both sides of face on forehead, maxilla + mandible

look for altered sensation between sides

43
Q

how to test motor facial nerve?

A

raise eyebrows/close eyes/smile/blow cheeks out

check same power on both sides

44
Q

how to test glossopharyngeal + vagus nerve?

A

say ahh - look for symmetry on soft palate - would be pulled to good side + weak side floppy

45
Q

how to test accessory nerve?

A

shoulder shrug

46
Q

how to test hypoglossal nerve?

A

stick tongue out - will go towards weak side as strong side pushes it

47
Q

what does syncope mean?

A

temporary loss of consciousness

48
Q

why do vasovagal syncopes happen?

A

over-activity of sympathetic NS in response to external stimuli e.g. fear

tachycardia before, bradycardia after

49
Q

why do carotid sinus syncopes happen?

A

turning head - pressure on carotid sinus

most common in supine position - legs higher than heart

doesn’t recover as quickly as vasovagal

treatment - jaw thrust/straighten neck

50
Q

oral issues in gran Mal epilepsy? and which phase is this in?

A

increased salivation + bruxism

clonic phase

51
Q

when does epilepsy become a medical emergency? and how is it treated?

A

after 5 mins

O2 15litres/min + 10mg midazolam buccal cavity

52
Q

what causes stoke Adams attacks?

A

cardiac arrhythmias

53
Q

what is PRIND?

A

progressive reversible ischemic neurological deficit

half way between TIA + stroke

54
Q

basic cause of multiple sclerosis?

A

demyelination

55
Q

dental relevance of multiple sclerosis?

A

lose control of airway - can’t cough up

56
Q

what should always be suspected in a young female patient presenting with trigeminal neuralgia?

A

multiple sclerosis

57
Q

basic MOA of Parkinson’s?

A

degeneration of pigmented cells of substantial migration leading to dopamine deficiency

58
Q

how does Parkinson’s affect blood pressure?

A

hypotension

impaired autonomic function leading to postural drop in BP
medications may cause hypotension

59
Q

dental relevance of motor neurone disease?

A

hard to cough + swallow

60
Q

headache characteristic of brain tumour?

A

headache worse in morning

61
Q

which cranial nerves are affects in bulbar palsy?

A

IX, X, XI, XII

62
Q

what is bulbar palsy?

A

palsy of tongue, MOM/swallowing + facial muscles due to loss of function of motor nuclei in brain stem

63
Q

2 causes of bulbar palsy?

A

acute - infection e.g. polio

chronic - tumour

64
Q

what antipsychotic drug can cause drug induced tics?

A

phenothiazine therapy

65
Q

what is Ramsay hunt syndrome?

A

facial paralysis with vesicles in pharynx + external auditory meatus of same side

geniculate ganglion of VII infected with herpes zoster

66
Q

what can be a cause of bacterial meningitis?

A

maxillofacial injuries involving mid third of face

bacteria in through nasal/ethmoidal/frontal sinus

67
Q

what is kernigs sign?

A

inability to straighten left when hip flexed at 90 degrees

sign for meningitis

68
Q

is viral or bacteria meningitis self limiting?

A

viral

69
Q

how to test for meningitis rash?

A

press with glass, doesn’t fade

70
Q

upper incisor infection may cause brain abscess, which patients are most at risk?

A

patients with congenital heart disease

71
Q

what causes cerebral palsy?

A

motor function disorder secondary to cerebral damage - birth injury/hypoxia

72
Q

what deficiency causes spina bifida?

A

folic acid

73
Q

what is Huntington’s chorea?

A

genetic dementia - progressive death of brain cells

autosomal dominant
marked involuntary movements

74
Q

anticonvulsant drug dentists can prescribe to treat neuralgia?

A

carbamazepine

75
Q

how does carbamazepine work?

A

blocks Na channels via a-beta fibres

76
Q

what are the 2 types of neuropathic pain?

A
  1. neuralgia - rare + short lived

2. constant neuropathic pain

77
Q

2 MOA of anticonvulsants?

A
  1. inhibition of ionic channels
  2. enhancement of GABA mediated inhibition

both inhibit rapid repetitive firing that causes seizures

78
Q

how do benzodiazepines work as anticonvulsants?

A

increase GABA through Cl

79
Q

as well as seizures what else can anticonvulsants be used for?

A

neuropathic pain

80
Q

drug of choice for status epileptics?

A

BDZ - midazolam

not drug of choice for prophylactically because of dependance

81
Q

NNT of carbamezapine to treat trigeminal neuralgia and reduce pain by 50%?

A

<2

82
Q

3 common side effects of carbamezapine?

A
  1. Steven johnson syndrome
  2. blood dycrasias
  3. liver disorders
83
Q

who must you be careful in prescribing carbamezapine too?

A

chinese/thai/malaysian race

84
Q

common dental effects of the anticonvulsant phenytoin?

A 
gingival overgrowth
root shortening
hypercementosis 
salivary gland hypertrophy
cervical lymphadenopathy
cleft lip + palate
85
Q

common dental effects of the anticonvulsant carbamazepine ?

A 
xerstomia
glossitis
ulceration
cervical lymphadenopathy
cleft lip + palate
86
Q

how many pathways make dopamine + transport it in the brain? and which is most important to Parkinsons disease?

A

4

nigrostriatal system

87
Q

when dopamine activity decreases what increases?

A

Acetylcholine actiivty - excitatory

88
Q

2 classes of antiparkinsonian medication?

A
  1. dopaminergic drugs

2. anticholinergic drugs

89
Q

can dopamine cross the BBB?

A

no - need precursor

90
Q

what is levodopa?

A

precursor of dopamine

tyrosine –> levodopa –> dopamine

91
Q

4 ways dopaminergic medications work?

A
  1. precursor of dopamine
  2. decrease dopamine metabolism
  3. direct dopamine synthetic agonists
  4. stimulate dopamine release
92
Q

why must you avoid IV sedation in degenerative disorders?

A

levodopa antagonised by BDZs

93
Q

oral effect of antiparkinson drugs?

A

xerostomia

94
Q

when should dentists see PD patients?

A

on ‘on’ times - usually 60-90mins after meds

normally better in morning

HD 4 - dental relevance (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions