Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HD 4 - dental relevance > musculoskeletal > Flashcards

musculoskeletal Flashcards

1
Q

what is compartment syndrome?

A

fracture in area, tight facial planes, swelling/bleeding, increased pressure = numbness/no blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a le fort 1 fracture?

A

through palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

le fort 2?

A

through nasal bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

le fort 3?

A

through zygomatic bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

3 phases of fracture healing?

A
  1. inflammatory
  2. reparative
  3. remodelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what happens during inflammatory stage of healing?

A 
bleeding + clot 
acute inflammatory resposne
bone necrosis at fracture end
macrophage removes dead material
formation of vascular granulation tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which stage of healing do bisphosphonate impede?

A

inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

at what time period does the reparative stage happen?

A

6-12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

at what time period foes the remodelling stage happen?

A

up to 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is ORIF?

A

open reduction internal fixation

bone broken/reduced/put back in place
internal fixation device placed on bone e.g. plates, screws nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

4 stages of fracture management?

A
  1. reduction
  2. fixation
  3. immobilsation
  4. rehabilitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

complications of fracture fixation?

A

immediate - haemorrhage, tissue loss, nerve/vessel damage, compartment syndrome
local - necrosis, infection, failure to alignment
general - fat embolism, crush syndrome, DVT/PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

do patients with joint replacements require antibiotic proph?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where is calcium found in the body?

A

absorbed in intestine
stored in bones
stored in ECF In blood
excreted through kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how is calcium carried in ECF in blood?

A

ionised calcium or protein bound

ionised = active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how does vit D effect calcium absorption?

A

increases absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does PTH effect serum calcium?

A

increases serum calcium by increasing bone turnover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

4 steps of bone turnover?

A
  1. osteoclasts
  2. osteoclast apoptosis
  3. osteoblasts
  4. resting phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what protein is calcium bound to in blood?

A

albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

active form of calcium in blood?

A

ionised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does alkaline phosphatase levels mean and when is it increased?

A

shows levels of osteoblasts

increased in fracture + liver problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does high phosphate in blood suggest?

A

kidney failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what do beta cross laps levels show?

A

osteoclastic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

4 types of imaging to show fracture?

A
  1. xray
  2. ct/mri
  3. radioisotope scanning
  4. DEXA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

2 types of hyperparathyroidism?

A
  1. primary - caused by tumour, high Ca + PTH

2. secondary - homeostatically correct caused by low Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what does vit d deficiency cause in adults?

A

osteomalacia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what does vit d deficiency cause in children?

A

rickets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

3 causes of rickets?

A

low vit d, low ca intake, phosphaturia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

why must patients with renal disease + hypoparathyroidism be given active metabolites calciferol + alphacalcidol instead of just vit D meds?

A

kidnes cannot activate precursors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is pages disease?

A

disease of unknown aetiology causing uncoordinated bone remodelling

pain, deformity, increased fracture risk, compression of nerves (palsies, deafness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

most common treatment for pages disease?

A

bisphophanates - inhibit osteoclastic activity + prevent resorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

4 bone conditions bisphophonates are used for?

A
  1. pagets - high
  2. bone metastases - high
  3. hypercalcaemia - higher dose
  4. osteoporosis - low

prevent bone resorption in all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what Is osteoporosis?

A

generalised skeletal disorder

reduced bone density + impaired structure + increased fracture risk

34
Q

causes of osteoporosis?

A 
age
post menopause
steroid treatment (Cushings syndrome)
chronic liver + kidney disease
nutritional disorders affecting Ca + vit D
35
Q

imaging for osteoporosis?

A

DEXA

36
Q

treatment options for osteoporosis?

A 
bisphophonates - low dose
HRT
Ca + vit D
denosumab - monoclonal antibody injected 6 monthly
PTH injections
37
Q

which bisphophonates are taken orally weekly?

A

alendronate + risedronate

38
Q

which bisphophonates are injected quarterly or annually?

A

ibandroante or zoledronate

39
Q

what are bone metastases?

A

secondary malignant growths at distance from primary cancer

40
Q

common primary sites of bone metastases?

A

breast, lung, prostate

41
Q

what is myeloma?

A

malignancy of plasma cells in bone marrow

stimulates osteoclasts but not osteoblasts - can cause hypercalcaemia

42
Q

what is the name for active vit D that increases ca absorption?

A

calcitrol

43
Q

treatment for bone metastases?

A

radiotherapy
surgery for complications
pain relief
high dose IV bisphophonates or denosumab can reduce progression

44
Q

what does the WHO ICF 2001 assess?

A

international classification of functioning, disability + health

impairments, activity limitations, participation restrictions

45
Q

7 examples of inflammatory rheumatological disorders?

A
  1. rheumatoid arthritis
  2. psoriatic arthritis
  3. enteropathic
  4. ankylosing spondylitis
  5. reactive arthritic
  6. juvenile idiopathic arthritis
  7. gout
46
Q

3 categories of rheumatological diseases?

A

inflammatory
mechanical
connective tissue disease

47
Q

3 examples of rheumatological connective tissue disease?

A
  1. sjogrens syndrome
  2. SLE
  3. scleroderma
48
Q

an example of mechanical rheumatoligcal disorder?

A

osteoarthritis

49
Q

MOA of osteoarthritis?

A

wear of cartilage –> bone less protected –> pain –> less movement –> muscle atrophy

50
Q

symptoms of osteoarthritis?

A

localised pain
pain on weight baring
advanced = non-weight baring
short lived early morning stiffness <30mins

51
Q

pharmacological management of osteoarthritis

A

analgesics
NSAIDs
steroid injections

52
Q

typical features of rheumatoid arthritis?

A 
symmetrical 
hand joints
at least 3 areas 
morning stiffness >60mins
rheumatoid nodules
serum rheumatoid factor
53
Q

presentation of rheumatoid arthritis on radiograph?

A

inflammation causes bone loss

early - peri-articular osteoporosis + erosions
late - joint space narrowing, dislocation, ankylosis

54
Q

3 pharmacological options for RA?

A

painkillers
NSAIDs
DMARD

55
Q

what are DMARDs?

A

disease modifying anti-rheumatic therapy

56
Q

5 commonly used DMARDs

A
  1. methotrexate
  2. sulphasalazine
  3. leflunomide
  4. hydroxychloroquine
  5. steroids
57
Q

common DMARDs triple therapy?

A

methotrexate, sulphasalazine, hydroxychloroquine

58
Q

why must you look harder if patients on biologics?

A

less likely to notice disease e.g. abscess

59
Q

what do most DMARDs biologics end in?

A

-mab

60
Q

what is ankylosing spondylitis?

A

inflammatory disease causing vertebrae to fuse

61
Q

4 other manifestations of anklylosing spondylitis?

A
  1. iritis + conjunctivits
  2. pulmonary fibrosis
  3. fatigue
  4. aortic valve disease
62
Q

what is the action of biologic DMARDs?

A

anti-TNF (high in inflammatory)

63
Q

3 pharmacological treatments for anklylosing spondylitis

A

NSAIDS/coxibs
DMARDs - for peripheral arthritis
anti-TNF - for peripheral + spinal disease

64
Q

clinical features of ankylosing spondylitis?

A 
gradual onset
teens/twenties
morning/nigh stiffness
persistence >6/52
improvement with exercise
improvement with NSAIDs
65
Q

clinical features of psoriatic arthritis?

A

dactylitits
iritis
enthesitis
RF is usually negative

66
Q

what is reactive arthritis?

A

arthritis triggered by infection elsewhere

typically asymmetrical oligoarthritis

10-14days after infection

67
Q

what is reiters syndrome?

A

reactive arthritis, urethritis + conjunctivitis

68
Q

clinical features of sjogrens syndrome?

A

dry eyes + mouth
arthritis

chronic + incurable

risk of transformation to lymphoma originating within salivary gland

69
Q

how do you position neck in patient with RA?

A

jaw thrust instead of neck lift/head tilt

70
Q

why might osteogenesis imperfects be dentally relevant?

A

brittle bone disease - chest deformities - complicate GA/IV sedation

sign = blue sclera

71
Q

what is osteopetrosis?

A

bone becomes harder - spongy bone not present, bone compacts, marrow space disappears

as marrow absent, less haematopoisis = anaemia

72
Q

how might osteopetrosis effect XLA?

A

possible osteomyelitis caused by tooth snapping in socket as brittle + bone doesn’t loosen

73
Q

what is fibrous dysplasia?

A

bone replaced with fibrous tissue
painless hard swelling in jaw
‘Chinese letter’ on xray

74
Q

what is cherubim?

A

bilateral variant on fibrous dysplasia + giant cells

exclude hyperparathyroidism with blood tests

75
Q

why are extractions difficult in pages disease?

A

hypercementosis of roots

76
Q

complications of pages disease?

A

cardiac
chest deformaties
dentures get tighter

> 55yrs common

77
Q

what happens to hands in RA?

A

ulnar deviation - OH hard

78
Q

how to avoid osteoradionecrosis?

A

extractions prior to radiotherapy advised + cover bone with soft tissue
avoid extractions first 6months - 1 year after

don’t use vasoconstrictor

79
Q

oral relevance of marfans syndrome?

A

high arched palate

80
Q

patients with gout have increased risk of what 3 conditions?

A

hypertension
ischaemic heart disease
diabetes mellitus

81
Q

dental anomalies in cleidocranial dysostosis?

A

delayey/no eruption

supernumerary teeth

HD 4 - dental relevance (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions