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5th year blocks > Neurologi > Flashcards

Neurologi Flashcards

1
Q

When does Wernicke-encephalopathy occur?
Select one:

A

In all diseases or conditions associated with lack of vitamin B1

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2
Q

In Wernicke-encephalopathy brain MRI does NOT show changes in the following
territories:

A

occipital lobe

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3
Q

Which drug is the most effective in painful diabetic neuropathy

A

pregabalin

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4
Q

Our 60-year-old patient is complaining about strong, progressive, unilateral temporal headache. Mastication worsens the pain. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is significantly elevated. What is our suspected diagnosis?

A

Arteritis temporalis

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5
Q

Our patient has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Now she is complaining about neck pain and progressiv weakness of the extremites. Which is our suspected diagnosis

A

Atlantoaxial subluxation

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6
Q

When should we start antiepileptic treatment in case of a patient who has brain
metastases?

A

After the first seizure

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7
Q

Which clinical condition has to be considered as a neurological
emergency?

A

anisocoria

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8
Q

Unconscious patient with bradycardia, elevated systolic blood pressure (200/90
mmHg), all the extremities are extended, respiration is irregular. Possible
reason:

A

transtentorial herniation

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9
Q

Vasogenic cerebral edema

A

all

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10
Q

Possible complication of cerebellar infarction

A

occlusive hydrocephalus

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11
Q

Painful stimulus in the trigeminal zone does not lead to any motor reactions or
eye opening of the comatose patient, but the blood pressure and the heart rate
is elevating. How should be evaluated this phenomenon?

A

Brainstem is responsive

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12
Q

What is the correct definition of TIA?

A

temporary neurological dysfunction due to ischemia in the brain, the spinal cord
or in the retina without the development of acute infarct

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13
Q

What is the most common cause of stroke in young adults among the following?
Select one:

A

large vessel dissection

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14
Q

What could be the symptoms of left posterior cerebral artery stroke?

A

right homonymous hemianopsy

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15
Q

A headache provoked by physical activity, straining, or coughing can be caused by:

A

Arnold-Chiari malformation

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16
Q

Intracranial space-occupying lesions can cause

A

all of the above

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17
Q

Which of the following is characteristic for serotonin syndrome?

A

A) May be caused by overdosing or medicinal interactions
B) Headache and agitation are common symptoms
C) Fever and tachycardia may be present
E) Tremor, myoclonus, hyperreflexia, and clonus may be present
ANSWER: A B C and E

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18
Q

Which statement is true? (dyskinesia)

A

dyskinesias/hyperkinesias are always abnormal movements

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19
Q

What percent of parkinsonian patients develop dementia

A

In 40% of parkinsonian patients

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20
Q

What is the most severe side effect of lamotrigine

A

toxic epidermal necrolysis

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21
Q

It is true for focal epilepsy

A

It originates most frequently in the temporal lobe

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22
Q

The most common clinical presentation of neuroborreliosis

A

peripheral facial nerve palsy

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23
Q

Possible cause of aseptic meningitis

A

vaccination

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24
Q

Leading pathogen of bacterial meningitis in immuncompromised patients

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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25
Q

Paranoia and psychosis could be prodromal signs of

A

NMDA-encephalitis

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26
Q

Leading sign in encephalitis

A

seizure
altered consciousness
fever
Answer: all of the above

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27
Q

The following is characteristic for diffuse Lewy body dementia:

A

parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, fluctuation

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28
Q

Typical initial symptom of Alzheimer’s disease:

A

episodic memory dysfunction

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29
Q

Which antiepileptic drug would you choose first in focal epilepsy caused by brain
metastasis?

A

Carbamazepine

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30
Q

Which of the following causes vasogenic brain edema?

A

Brain metastasis

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31
Q

Typical feature of intramedullary tumor of the cord:

A

Dissociated sensory loss

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32
Q

Which of the following is correct (increased ICP)

A

Elevation of intracranial pressure alone does not exclude lumbar puncture

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33
Q

True for spinal ataxia

A

Worsens when eyes are closed

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34
Q

The diagnosis of subacute combined degeneration involves

A

Spinal MRI, lab tests

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35
Q

Which could be a symptom of cervical disc herniation?

A

Irradiating pain to upper extremities
Atrophy of hand muscles
Unstable gait
Answer: all of them

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36
Q

Which one refers to S.1 radiculopathy?

A

Sensory loss on the lateral part of the leg, weakness of the m. triceps surae

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37
Q

Patient with SLE developed almost complete transversal spinal
cord lesion within 3 days. Possible diagnosis?

A

Myelitis transversa

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38
Q

Not typical for Syringomyelia:

A

Spinal ataxia

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39
Q

The conduction velocity of the fastest conducting motor fibers is

A

100 m/s

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40
Q

The meaning of allodynia is

A

pain provoked by touch

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41
Q

All of the below may cause foot drop, EXCEPT ONE

A

tibial nerve lesion

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42
Q

A key element in the diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome

A

EMG

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43
Q

If nystagmus, ataxia and hemiparesis appears acutely in a 20-year-old patient,
we primarily consider

A

Vertebrobasilar cerebrovascular insufficiency

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44
Q

Where do the fila olfactoria enter the skull

A

Through the lamina cribrosa

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45
Q

The major sign of retrobulbar neuritis:

A

Relatively fast progressing decrease in visual acuity

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46
Q

In left sided „upper motor neuron” (central) facial palsy

A

There is a mouth drop on the left side, the left side of the mouth moves less
when smiling, but eye-closure and forehead wrinkling is performed with normal
strength on both sides.

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47
Q

Which cranial nerves have a role in taste sensation

A

CN. VII. and IX.

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48
Q

In left sided peripheral lesion of the vestibular nerve the patient falls and
deviates

A

To the left

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49
Q

Which of the following may be a symptom of myasthenia gravis?

A

Fluctuating ptosis

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50
Q

Which of the following electrophysiological methods is useful in the diagnosis of
myasthenia gravis?

A

Repetitive nerve stimulation

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51
Q

The common characteristic of secondary (symptomatic) headaches is:

A

the headache is only one symptom of the underlying pathology

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52
Q

space-occupying lesions: Select one:

A

it affects 12 to 16% of the population

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53
Q

which description is characteristic for chronic tension type headache`

A

Bilateral, mild, pressing headache on at least 180 days per year

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54
Q

intracranial space occupying lesions can cause

A

All of the above

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55
Q

The diagnosis of primary headaches is based on

A

the characteristic symptomology of the attach’s and a negative neurological examination

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56
Q

the following are ture for sumatriptan except

A

it can be administered during the pregnancy (for headache treatment)

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57
Q

Which among these belongs to the group of primary headaches

A

all of the above

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58
Q

Has been proven to be effective for the oral treatment of migraine
attacks Select one:

A

acetilsalycilic acid 1000mg
(Aspirin)

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59
Q

The following are adequate prophylactic treatment options for medication overuse headache: Select one:

A

valproate, topiramate, antidepressants

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60
Q

medication overuse headache can be caused by

A

sumatriptan taken on more than 3 days a week

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61
Q

One of the answers is true for secondary headaches: Select one

A

beside the headache, the symptoms of the primary condition are discernible

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62
Q

Which is the most common type of headache? Select one

A

tension type headache, affecting 30 to 35% of the population

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63
Q

A headache provoked by physical activity, straining, or coughing can be
caused by: Select one:

A

Arnold-Chiari malformation

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64
Q

One of the answers is true for primary headaches: Select one:

A

the attacks of a given patient are usually similar to each other

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65
Q

Opiates for the treatment of a migraine attack Select one:

A

are not recommended due to their unsatisfactory efficacy and the danger of addiction

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66
Q

The following is true for medication overuse headache:

A

all of the above

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67
Q

Migraine aura is a neurological symptom that: Select one:

A

patient education, analgesic withdrawal, prophylactic treatment

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68
Q

Headache caused by subarachnoidal bleeding has the
following characteristics: Select one:

A

a sudden-onset, severe head pain

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69
Q

Which among these is a primary headache? Select one:

A

tension type headache

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70
Q

The following are effective for the treatment of cluster headache,
except:

A

50% oxygen and 50% carbon dioxide through a non-rebreather mask

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71
Q

For the treatment of medication overuse headache Select one:

A

beside withdrawing the painkillers prophylactic medication and ‘rescue medication’ is also necessary

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72
Q

These fibers have a decisive role in the pathomechanism

A

sensory fibers of the first branch of
the trigeminal nerve

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73
Q

Primary headaches: Select one

A

activation of the trigeminovascular system

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74
Q

Which description is characteristic for cluster headache?

A

very severe, unilateral, periorbital headache with ipsilateral lacrimation, conjunctival injection, or
nasal discharge

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75
Q

These headaches belong to the primary headaches, except for:

A

medication overuse headache

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76
Q

To our current knowledge, migraine is caused by:

A

primary
dysfunction of the pain-sensitive system of the head

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77
Q

These belong to the group of primary headaches: Select one:

A

migraine, tension
type headache, cluster headache

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78
Q

Which is NOT characteristic for postherpetic neuralgia? Select one:

A

it is
less common in the elderly

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79
Q

Chronic migraine can be diagnosed, if a patient has had: Select one:

A

has more than 15 migraine days per month for more than 3 months

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80
Q

Which of the following is characteristic for giant cell arteritis?

A

Headache
Claudication of the masticatory muscles
May cause permanent visual loss

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81
Q

The contraindications of triptans include:

A

Pregnancy
Angina, or myocardial infarction
Uncontrolled hypertension
Answer: all of the above

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82
Q

In headaches associated with space-occupying lesions: Select one:

A

pain
is progressive

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83
Q

Which statement describes best the pathomechanism of cluster
headache? Select one

A

it is caused by the activation of the trigeminal nerve and the salivatory (parasympathetic) nucleus

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84
Q

In order to diagnose migraine, the following are always necessary: Select one:

A

a detailed
history, general medical and neurological examination

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85
Q

Migraine can be diagnosed if a severe, unilateral, pulsationg headache is accompanied by:

A

A) nausea or vomiting
B) olfactory hallucinations
Both A and C responses are correct

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86
Q

It is effective for the acute treatment of the migraine attack:

A

sumatriptan (Imigran

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87
Q

Medication overuse headache

A

usually appears in patients with a preexisting migraine or tension type headache

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88
Q

The cause of the pain in migraine is:

A

the activation of the trigeminovascular system

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89
Q

The treatment of medication overuse headache is

A

patient education, analgesic withdrawal, prophylactic treatment

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90
Q

A neurovascularis compression is NOT present in which location?

A

radial nerve
compression – wrist drop

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91
Q

Which of the following could suggest carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

all of the above

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92
Q

In status epilepticus:

A

The seizure might present in non-convulsive form.

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93
Q

Which of the following statements regarding epilepsy surgery is correct?

A

epilepsy surgery is a treatment of last resort reserved for patients who have tried all available
antiepileptic drug, but still have seizures.

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94
Q

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the pathomechanism of epilepsy

A

Focal epilepsies originate most frequently from the occipital lobe.

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95
Q

It is not specific for an absence seizure

A

It occurs most frequently in elderly patients

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96
Q

The most significant risk factor for seizure recurrence following a first unprovoked seizure
is which of the following? Select one:

A

the
patient had febrile seizures in childhood

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97
Q

Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is not recommended during pregnancy?

A

Damage of the cell membrane

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98
Q

Antiepileptic drugs

A

Might cause tremor

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99
Q

Focal motor epileptic seizure is frequently followed by: Select one

A

Todd-paresis

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100
Q

It is true for focal epilepsy

A

It originates most frequently in the temporal lobe.

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101
Q

What is the most severe side effect of lamotrigine? Select one

A

toxic epidermal
necrolysis

102
Q

Which of the following statements is not true regarding the pathomechanism of epilepsy:

A

Focal epilepsies originate most frequently from the occipital lobe.

103
Q

What is the most common site of ulnar nerve lesion? Select one

A

elbow

104
Q

All of the below are infectious diseaeses associated with polyneuropathy EXCEPT:

A

HIV

105
Q

What is the most common cause of polyneuropathy in the developed countries?

A

diabetes mellitus

106
Q

The meaning of allodynia

A

pain provoked by touch

107
Q

All of the below belong to the polyneuropathies EXCEPT

A

TOS (Thoracic outlet syndrome)

108
Q

All of the below are among the symptoms of polyneuropathy EXCEPT ON

A

attacks of paleness in the extremities

109
Q

Neurotmesis is:

A

a
loss of continuity of the complete nerve

110
Q

Group of the drugs effective in the symptomatic treatment of neuropathic pain:

A

tricycyclic antidepressants

111
Q

All of the below are symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome EXCEPT

A

benediction hand

112
Q

The Seddon-Sunderland classification is a classification of:

A

the types of reinnervation

113
Q

Diagnostic methods of the diseases of the peripheral nervous system:

A

EMG

114
Q

What is the most common site of radial nerve lesion?

A

spiral groove of the radial nerve on the humerus

115
Q

All of the below are among the symptoms of damage of the peripheral nervous system EXCEPT

A

clonus

116
Q

The differential diagnosis of typical thoracic outlet syndrome includes the following,
EXCEPT:

A

raising the arm up
high

117
Q

What can be a cause of brachial plexus lesion?

A

Parsonage-Turner syndrome

118
Q

The conduction velocity of the fastest conducting motor fibers is:

A

100 m/s

119
Q

All of the below are may cause foot drop, EXCEPT ONE

A

tibial nerve lesion

120
Q

What can be a cause of brachial plexus lesion

A

Parsonage-Turner syndrome

121
Q

A key element in the diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome:

A

EMG

122
Q

The conduction velocity of the fastest conducting motor fibers is:

A

100
m/s

123
Q

In the case of loss of continuity of axons, the regeneration depends on:

A

the distance between the site of the lesion and the muscle to be reinnervated

124
Q

Which statement is incorrect? Select one: (muscle dystrophy)

A

The out of frame deletion leads to the less severe Duchenne muscular dystrophy with a better
prognosis.

125
Q

Symptoms of MELAS disease are : (1 answer is not correct) Select one:

A

Myoglobinuria

126
Q

n myasthenia gravis, 3 of the following medications are commonly used: Select one or more:

A

Azathioprine
Pyridostigmine
Methylprednisolone

127
Q

Which medication is the treatment of first choice in polymyositis? Select one:

A

Methylprednisolone

128
Q

. One of the following agents can cause toxic myopathy: Select one:

A

Statins

129
Q

Clinical symptoms of muscle disorders: which is incorrect? Select one

A

Increased muscle tone

130
Q

What type of diagnostic tests are recommended if the patient complains of shortness of breath
during exercise or even rest, morning headache, and lightheadedness. Three answers are correct.
Select one or more:

A

Sleep test
Pulmonary function test
Blood gas analysis

131
Q

Which statement is incorrect? (corticosteroids)

A

Due to corticosteroid treatment, endomysial infiltration of CD8 positive T-lymphocytes and
macrophages is present.

132
Q

In two of the following diseases, pathological decrement is obtained with repetitive 3 Hz
stimulation: Select one or more:

A

Eaton-Lambert syndrome
Myasthenia gravis

133
Q

Which statement is incorrect? (thymoid cells)

A

Antibodies against thymic myoid cells are responsible for the dysfunction of neuromuscular
transmission.

134
Q

One of the following laboratory parameters is not increased in inflammatory myopathy. Select one:

A

ALP

135
Q

One of the following symptoms is typical for dermatomyositis: (only one answer is correct)

A

A. Gottron papules

136
Q

. In electromyography, three of the following features are present in myopathy. Select one or more:

A

Small and short motor units
Polyphasic motor units
Spontaneous activity, such as positive sharp waves

137
Q

One of the statements is incorrect (anaerobic metabolism)

A

When anaerobic metabolism is impaired, serum lactate levels increase.

138
Q

In one of the following diseases, muscle biopsy is not informative: Select one:

A

Myasthenia gravis

139
Q

In one of the diseases below, the following symptoms are characteristic: muscle involvement,
cataract, gynecomastia, endocrine dysfunction, and cardiomyopathy. Select one:

A

Myotonic dystrophy

140
Q

One of the following disorders does not belong to the group of muscular dystrophies: Select one:

A

Eaton Lambert syndrome

141
Q

One of the following diseases does not belong to the group of hereditary metabolic myopathies:

A

Disorders due to the dysfunction of cytosolic molecules, such as calpain, telethonin, and titin.

142
Q

Two of the following statements about physiotherapy recommended for patients with muscle
disorders are correct.

A

A) Concentric muscle exercise and passive physiotherapy are recommended.
B) An improvement of aerobic capacity may be achieved by a low to moderate level aerobic
exercise program.

143
Q

Which statement is incorrect (Duchenne)

A

The out of frame deletion leads to the less severe Duchenne muscular dystrophy with a better
prognosis.

144
Q

One of the following diseases does not belong to the group of hereditary metabolic myopathies:

A

Disorders due to the dysfunction of cytosolic molecules, such as calpain, telethonin, and titin

145
Q

Clinical symptoms of muscle disorders: which is incorrect? Select one:

A

Increased muscle tone

146
Q

Which modality would you use in the diagnosis of spinal vascular disorders? Select one:

A

MR

147
Q

Recommended in Low back pain:

A

Clomipramin (tricyclic antidepresszant)

148
Q

In which type of symptoms would you categorize: spinal ataxia because of cervical disc
herniation

A

symptoms of spinal cord
tracts

149
Q

In which type of symptoms would you categorize: m. biceps brachii dysfunction (paresis)
because of cervical disc herniation?

A

segmental and radicular signs

150
Q

Not true for syringomyelia:

A

Association with tethered cord syndrome

151
Q

The typical location of thoraco-lumbar spinal cord injury is:

A

Thoraco-lumbar junction

152
Q

In which type of symptoms would you categorize: neck pain because of cervical disc herniation?

A

local
signs

153
Q

The following is not recommended in the prehospital care of spinal cord trauma

A

Transport of the comatose patient without intratracheal intubation

154
Q

Correct for the dissociated sensory loss:

A

It is due to an isolated spinothalamic deficit

155
Q

Which is the most frequent type of spinal intramedullar tumors?

A

Ependymoma

156
Q

Which one of the following indicates radicular sign on the lower limb?

A

Laségue sign

157
Q

Patient with SLE developed almost complete transversal spinal cord lesion within 3 days.
Possible diagnosis?

A

Myelitis transversa

158
Q

What is the most common location of spinal tumors?

A

Extradural

159
Q

What is the least common site of spinal tumors?

A

Intramedullary

160
Q

Which one refers to S.1 radiculopathy?

A

Sensory loss on the lateral part of the leg, weakness of the m. triceps surae

161
Q

The following is not characteristic of cervical discal herniation:

A

Central spinal cord syndrome

162
Q

Characteristic for lumbar discal herniation except:

A

Not associated with pain

163
Q

Which could be a symptom of cervical disc herniation?

A

All of them

164
Q

In which groups of spinal tumors can be classified the spinal meningeomas? (depending on the
location) Select one:

A

intradural-extramedullar

165
Q

What is the most common type of spinal extradural tumor?

A

All of the above

166
Q

In which type of symptoms would you categorize: neck pain because of cervical disc herniation?

A

local signs

167
Q

Which vertebra’s traumatic fracture is the Hangsman fracture? Select one:

A

CII

168
Q

Not typical for Syringomyelia:

A

Spinal ataxia

169
Q

Not correct for acute transverse lesion:

A

Spinal automatisms

170
Q

Transverse myelitis is often seen in:

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

171
Q

Correct for the dissociated sensory loss:

A

It is due to an isolated spinothalamic deficit

172
Q

Which symptom is NOT caused by C. VI-VII disc herniation?

A

Respiratory arrest

173
Q

True for spinal ataxia:

A

Worsens when eyes are closed

174
Q

The diagnosis of subacute combined degeneration involves:

A

Spinal MRI, lab tests

175
Q

What is the optimal method to confirm cervical discal herniation?

A

MRI

176
Q

Most probable disgnosis of a 45 years-old female patient, who developed cervical necrotizing
intramedullary lesion within 2 days?

A

Devic disease

177
Q

Which could be a symptoms of chronic stage of spinal shock?

A

Both of the previosly listed symptoms

178
Q

Which symptom means absolute need for surgerry in case of lumbar disc herniation?

A

Paralysis of foot plantarflexion

179
Q

Which one is a spinal developmental disease?

A

All of the above

180
Q

The following is characteristic for diffuse Lewy body dementia:

A

parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, fluctuation, delurium

181
Q

The following is/are used in the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease:

A

a. MRI
b. PET
c. CSF
d. All of the above (CORRECT)

182
Q

Required diagnostic method in Alzheimer’s disease:

A

MRI

183
Q

True in Alzheimer’s dementia

A

Could cause 60% of all dementia

184
Q

Which of the followings are not true?

A

Sensory disturbance is characteristic for ALS

185
Q

When FTD is suspected, MRI is useful because:

A

Excludes focal intracranial lesions

186
Q

The following are parts of the Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE), EXCEPT:

A

copying intersecting hexagons

187
Q

Atrophy is most prominent in the following brain areas in Alzheimer’s disease:

A

temporal lobe

188
Q

True for the prodromal stage of Alzheimer’s disease:

A

slight (minor) neurocognitive disturbance is detected

189
Q

Usual clinical symptom in frontotemporal dementia:

A

Aphasia

190
Q

The criteria of definitive diagnosis of ALS are met in which of the following

A

Progressive upper and lower motorneuron syndrome on the trunk, on an upper and a
lower limb

191
Q

Mandatory laboratory test in the diagnosis of dementia:

A

a. TSH

192
Q

.Treatment options in BPSD symptoms are:

A

risperidone

193
Q

Electromyographic findings in ALS:

A

Fibrillation potentials are frequently detected

194
Q

The following is characteristic for Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease:

A

dementia, myoclonus, cerebellar signs

195
Q

In conformational diseases

A

the secondary structure of the proteins is changed

196
Q

Differentiating FTD may be difficult from:

A

Alzheimer’s disease

197
Q

Characteristic inclusions in Alzheimer’s disease:

A

neurofibrillary tangles, senile plaques

198
Q

Typical initial symptom of Alzheimer’s disease:

A

episodic memory dysfunction

199
Q

Characteristic for Alzheimer’s disease: Select one:

A
  1. Beta-amyloid deposition in the brain
  2. Neurofibrillary tangles formation in the brain
    ANSWER: both of them
200
Q

True in the diagnosis of Alzheimer’s disease

A

only
neuropathological diagnosis is definitive

201
Q

Diagnostic test in establishing cognitive decline:

A
  1. clock drawing test
  2. MMSE
    ANSWER: Both of them
202
Q

The following are typical for Alzheimer’s
disease, EXCEPT

A

pathological EEG

203
Q

FTD: Select one

A

is presently
untreatable

204
Q

Which symptom is NOT met in hypertensive encephalopathy? Select one:

A

flaccid paraparesis

205
Q

Typical CT scan findings in hypertensive encephalopathy are:

A

Patchy hypodensity around the occipital and frontal horns of the lateral ventricles

206
Q

Which of the following is true for intracerebral hemorrhage?

A

Urgent CT scan shows hyperdensity.

207
Q

The normal values of blood pressure are:

A

<120 / <80 mmHg

208
Q

What percent of hypertensive patients have essential hypertension? Select one:

A

95%

209
Q

In which disease might posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome visible on the
imaging appear? Select one:

A

Hypertensive encephalopathy

210
Q

Typical CT scan findings in hypertensive encephalopathy are:

A

Patchy hypodensity around the occipital and frontal horns of the lateral ventricles

211
Q

Which value of blood pressure may cause hypertensive encephalopathy?

A

220/125 Hgmm

212
Q

Lumbosacral radiculo-plexo-neuropathy is characterized by?

A

acute-subacute course weakness is associated

213
Q

Which one is the most frequent diabetic neuropathy?

A

chronic distal sensorimotor neuropathy

214
Q

Diabetes mellitus Select

A
  1. Increases the risk of ischemic stroke
  2. The probability of cardiovascular events is decreased by the concomitant treatment of other multiple risk factors
215
Q

Which are the symptoms of the chronic distal sensorimotor polyneuropathy?

A
  1. distal weakness of the limbs might be associated sensory
  2. disturbance with glove-stocking distribution
216
Q

Autonomic diabetic neuropathy may cause:

A
  1. orthostatic hypotension erectile
    dysfunction
  2. dysfunction of pupillary innervation
  3. diarrhea
217
Q

In case of hypoglycemia: Select one or more

A
  1. if after correction of hypoglycemia impaired consciousness is preserved, we might consider
    irreversibility or associated other conditions (e.g. trauma) 2. Depending on its severity, impaired
    consciousness may occur in severe cases neurological signs may become irreversible
218
Q

7.Which of the following is not typical for hypoglycemic
encephalopathy?

A

Always reversible

219
Q

Which one is the most frequent diabetic neuropathy? Select one:

A

chronic
distal sensorimotor neuropathy

220
Q

Which drug is the most effective in painful diabetic neuropathy?

A

pregabalin

221
Q

It is TRUE for diabetic cranial mononeuropathy: Select one or more:

A
  1. it might affect the facial nerve
  2. oculomotor neuropathy is characterized by subacute course and painfulness of the eye
222
Q

Which complication is typical for acute hyperglycemic ketoacidosis?

A

Focal neurological symptoms are not frequent

223
Q

It is TRUE for small fiber neuropathy:

A
  1. skin biopsy aids the diagnosis
  2. protopathic sensation is altered on neurological examination
  3. it frequently needs chronic pain
  4. treatment burning pain and painful tingling of the limbs
224
Q

Which of the following is true for myocardial infarction

A

The sudden decrease of cardiac output may lead to syncope or borderzone infarct

225
Q

Which of the following is true for atrial fibrillation

A

The most common supraventricular tachyarrhythmia.

226
Q

What is the most frequent complication of chronic renal
insufficiency needing dialysis?

A

chronic polyneuropathy

227
Q

In chronic renal insufficiency Select one or more:

A
  1. the risk of hemorrhagic stroke increases
  2. the risk of ischemic stroke increases
228
Q

The most typical neurological symptom of disequilibrium syndrome is: Select one:

A

Headache

229
Q

In case of renal insufficiency, neurological consequences are caused by: Select one or
more:

A
  1. accumulation of toxic protein metabolites
  2. electrolyte disturbance
  3. acid-base disturbance
230
Q

In case of uremic encephalopathy

A
  1. the same lab changes are associated by different individual tolerance and symptoms
  2. different psychiatric changes may appear
  3. impairment of consciousness may progress to coma
231
Q

What type encephalopathy is uremic encephalopathy?

A

Metabolic encephalopathy

232
Q

The most typical neurological symptom of disequilibrium syndrome is:

A

Headache

233
Q

Uremic encephalopathy develops if serum creatinine is above:

A

700 µM/L

234
Q

Disequilibrium syndrome Select

A

All answers are correct

235
Q

The most frequent peripheral nervous system complication of chronic uremia is:

A

Uremic polyneuropathy

236
Q

Which sign is NOT typical to the deficit of niacin (pellagra)?

A

dysuria

237
Q

In case of high suspicion of Wernicke-encephalopathy, but lack of improvement
after iv. high dose thiamine, what should be given?

A

Niacin (nicotinic amide)

238
Q

Central pontine myelinolysis may be seen in the diseases-conditions listed below,
EXCEPTING….

A

consequences of plasmapheresis

239
Q

In Wernicke-encephalopathy brain MRI does NOT show changes in the following
territories:

A

occipital lobe

240
Q

Which symptom is NOT characteristic to Wernicke-encephalopathy? Select one:

A

spastic paraparesis

241
Q

It is TRUE for Marchiafava-Bignami-disease: Select one

A

it is a rare consequence of alcoholism

242
Q

Which affirmation is TRUE for Wernicke-encephalopathy?

A

Diagnosis is based on the clinical syndrome and improvement after iv. thiamine administration.

243
Q

When does Wernicke-encephalopathy occur?

A

In all diseases or conditions associated with lack of vitamin B1

244
Q

Celiac disease may have neurological consequences. Which one is the most frequent? Select one:

A

Cerebellar ataxia

245
Q

Which anatomic structure is preserved in funicular myelosis?

A

vitamin B12

246
Q

Which sign is NOT seen in funicular myelosis? Select one:

A

abolished temperature sensation

247
Q

Which hematologic entity may be associated to subacute combined myelon degeneration?

A

Megaloblastic anemia

248
Q

The following are false, except: (primary tumor diagnosis)

A

The primary tumor is unknown in up to 15% of patients at the diagnosis of the metastasis

249
Q

The following are true for paraneoplastic neurological syndromes, except

A

Caused by a hormone produced by the tumor

250
Q

The following are true for nervous system metastases, except : (metastasis site)

A

Metastases are equally common in the spinal cord and the brain.

5th year blocks (14 decks)

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