neurobiology Flashcards

1
Q

what does the hippocampus do?

A

formation of memories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

pituitary gland

A

production and release of hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

hypothalamus

A

homeostatic regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

wide laminar 4

A

sensory input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

wide laminar 5

A

motor output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

basket cells

A

inhibitory- innervate different layers or are confined to a single layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

functional scan

A

detects changes in blood flow and metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

lesion in parietal association cortex

A

lead to deficits in attention

contralateral neglect syndrome- cannot perceive objects or body parts in space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

temporal association cortex

A

recognition of objects and memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

frontal association cortex

A

planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

whats in the diencephalon?

A

epithalamus, hypothalamus and thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

rubrospinal pathway

A

from red nucleus to spinal cord- magnocellular

from red nucleus to cerebellum- parvocellular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

mesencephalic locomotor region

A

important in regulating speeding pattern of motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

epithalamus

A

circadian rhythms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

reticular nucleus

A

GABAergic input to thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

sub thalamic nucleus

A

basal ganglia, motor control

deep brain electrode stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which layer is the lateral horn in

A

thoracic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what does an alpha motor neurone do

A

innervates muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

wallenbergs syndrome

A

medullary
thrombosis of vertebral artery, wide ranging of sensory and motor deficits
- Ipsilateral loss from face- trigeminal system- taste
- Contralateral loss- pain/ temperature sensitivity
Dysphagia- glossopharyngeal and cranial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

brainstem glioma

A

account for approximately 10-20% of all childhood brain tumours.
double vision, weakness, unsteady gait, difficulty in swallowing, drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting. Rarely, behavioural changes or seizures may be seen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

functions of reticular nucleus

A

ascending- control arousal- sleep, attention + awareness
descending- form reticule-spinal tract- posture
contribute to HR and respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does medullary nuclei of raphe nuclei do?

A

project to spinal cord and modulate pain transmission, movement and autonomic control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does rostral nuclei of raphe nuclei do?

A

project to diverse higher brain areas- modulate pain, mood and sleep-wake cycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

axo-dendritc

A

excitatory- glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

axo-somatic

A

inhibitory- GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ago-axonic

A

modulatory and control transmitter release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is presynaptic inhibition used for?

A

endogenous pain pathways- whether or not pain reaches CNS
1- C is inhibitory so depresses calcium current
2- reduction in transmitter released
3- synaptic potential reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

neural integration

A

decision making
occurs at axon hillock
convergence and divergence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

orthodromic direction

A

direction AP travels, from axon hillock to terminal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

events at a chemical synapse

A

1- AP arrives at presynaptic terminal causing depolarisation
2-voltage gated calcium channels open
3-calcium rushes into the cell
4- calcium ions trigger neurotransmitter release
5-calcium influx can influence the shape of the action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

where are neuropeptides manufactured?

A

in the cell body using protein manufacturing- rough ER and golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

where are amines and amino acids manufactured?

A

in the synaptic terminal using synthesising enzymes that are transported from the soma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is co-existence?

A

single neurone released more than one NT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

3 ways to remove a NT

A

1- enzymatic break down- acetylcholinesterase
2-diffusion of neurotransmitter
3- reuptake of neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

disinhibition

A

arrangement of inhibitory and excitatory cells in a circuit the generates excitation by transiently inhibiting a tonically active neurone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

synaptotagmin

A

calcium sensor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

synaptobrevin

A

binds to SNAP-25 to form a complex- moves vesicle into juxtaposed position with the membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

3 integral membrane proteins

A

snaptobrevin
SNAP-25
snaptotagmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ionotropic receptors

A

ion channels- action potentials

fast response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

metabotropic receptors

A

coupled to intracellular proteins that transduce signal

slow response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

how many subunits does GABA have

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how many subunits does glutamate have

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

NMDA receptor

A

excitatory
needs to bind both glutamate and glycine
coincidence detector
allows sodium and calcium through- calcium acts as a secondary messenger for synaptic plasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

noradrenaline on beta receptors

A

Gs- adenyl cyclase- cAMP- PKA- protein phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

metabotropic glutamate on mGLuR1

A

mGLuR1- Gq- phospholipase C- produces 2 secondary messengers
1- diacylglycerol- protein kinase C
2- IP3- Ca2+ release
increases protein phosphorylation and activate calcium binding proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

dopamine

A

D2
Gi
decrease in adenyl cyclase- decrease in cAMP, PKA and protein phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what happens when glutamate binds to mGLuR2

A

it is linked to Gi- decrease in adneyl cyclase and cAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

hemicolinium

A

blocks reuptake of choline so decreases Ach signalling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

vesamicol

A

inhibits Ach uptake- decreasing signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

botulinum

A

prevents release of Ach- muscle paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

nicotine

A

enhances activity of Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

scopolamine

A

decreases activity of Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

sarin

A

enhances activity of Ach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

AchE is an unreliable thing to stain

A

1- it might be located postsynaptically
2- it could be serving other cellular functions
3- missing from cholinergic neurones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

enzyme that catalyses glutamine to glutamate

A

glutaminase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

enzyme that catalyses glutamate to glutamine

A

glutamine synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Nisl staining

A

number of neurone

stains the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Golgi staining

A

whole neurone

stains dendrites and cell soma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

layer 2 and 3 in the brain

A

small pyramidal cells

excitatory neurones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

layer 4 in the brain

A

stellate cells
massive dendritic aborisations
from the thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

layer 5 in the brain

A

large pyramidal cells

output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

layer 6 in the brain

A

pyramidal cells that project to the thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is an EEG

A

electrodes are placed on the head and the frequency is measured
frequency varies depending on the state of activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

superior colliculus

A

visual, acoustic and somatosensory info
in the tectal region
orientates the head and eyes towards a stimulus

65
Q

inferior colliculus

A

acoustic

sends info either to superior colliculus or to the thalamus

66
Q

red nucleus

A

high iron content

motor nucleus- output to cerebellum

67
Q

rubrospinal pathway

A

important for fine control of movement

68
Q

mesencephalic locomotor region

A

regulating speed of pattern of movement

69
Q

mesocortical

A

ventral tegmental area to frontal cortex

linked to schizophrenia

70
Q

mesolimbic

A

ventral tegmental area to ventral striatum

linked to OCD, ADHD and drug addiction

71
Q

medial hypothalamus

A

homeostasis

72
Q

lateral hypothalamus

A

sleep and wakefulness

73
Q

voltage clamp

A

keep voltage the same but change the current
see what happens at different voltages
electrode in a single neurone

74
Q

patch clamp

A

categorise ion channels
neuronal firing patterns
one in ECF and one in neurone

75
Q

what is grey matter

A

neuronal cell bodies and dendrites

76
Q

what is white matter

A

ascending and descending tracts

77
Q

what is presynaptic facilitation

A

1- depresses K+ current in A terminal- depolarise for longer
2- calcium in A increases
3- increase in transmitter release in A and B
4- amplitude of synaptic potential in B increases

78
Q

convergence

A

lots of inputs- only when all inputs come together might reach threshold and get an action potential

79
Q

divergence

A

more than one axon- communication with more than one neurone

e.g. a basket cell acts on 10 purkinje cells

80
Q

breakdown of glutamate

A

1- in an astrocyte- glutamine synthase
2- reversal of transamine reaction
3- glutamate dehydrogenase

81
Q

what is glutamate dehydrogenase

A

enzyme that catalyses glutamate to GABA
mainly found in axons
Inhibited by allylglycine

82
Q

GABAa binding sites

A
1- GABA
2- benzodiazepines
3- steroid- anaesthetics
4- barbiturate- depressants
5- picrotoxin- convulsants
83
Q

what are the requirements of the visual system?

A

high resolution vision
sensitive to wide luminance range
ability to move the eye, stabilise the image and adjust gaze

84
Q

what are the constraints of the visual system?

A

mechanical constraints on the optic nerve- thin and flexible

metabolic costs

85
Q

what does the cornea do?

A

focuses the light on the retina

86
Q

what does the iris do?

A

controls the size of the pupil in response to light intensity

87
Q

what do the ciliary muscles do?

A

control the shape of the lens

88
Q

what is accommodation?

A

changing the shape of the lens depending on near/far objects to focus light on the retina

89
Q

what is resolution?

A

the ability to distinguish between 2 points

90
Q

what happens in light- phototransduction

A
light absorbed by opsin
activates transducer (G protein)
alpha form binds to phosphodiesterase
this breaks down cGMP into GMP
ion channels close causing hyperpolarisation
91
Q

receptive field

A

area of the retina that the ganglion cell is responsible for

92
Q

receptive field centre

A

corresponds to the extent of the ganglion cell dendritess

93
Q

what do starburst amacrine cells respond to?

A

motion moving away from the body
release more NT when a stimulus moves away along a dendrite
wired up to direction selective ganglion cells

94
Q

what are bird detectors?

A

they are found in mice retina
they are strongly inhibited by motion in the large surround
sensitive to stimuli in the small receptive field

95
Q

what happens if bright light on green on red off

A

green light on centre- excites RGC
red light on surround- excites amacrine cells- inhibits RGC
RGC compares how much green relative to red

96
Q

what is the pigment melanopsin

A

responds best to blue light- between blue and green

97
Q

iPRGCs

A

intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells
they encode how bright things are
contain melanopsin in the membrane so if all synaptic transmission is lost can still respond
will fire for a long and sustained time
>project to the SCN and OPN (olivary pretectal nucleus)

98
Q

where does the vestibular system project to?

A

vestibular nucleus- oculomotor nerves

99
Q

vestibule-ocular reflex?

A

allows you to focus on a point

100
Q

accessory optic system

A

collection of 3 nuclei- anterior, medial and posterior- in pretectum
respond to global movements rather than local motion
only receive information from on DSCGCs

101
Q

binocular field

A

area that overlaps between the left and right hemispheres

102
Q

stereopsis

A

perception of depth

103
Q

what is the magnocellular layer of the LGN

A

layers 1+2
parasol cells (M cells)
large cell bodies

104
Q

what is the parvocellular layers of the LGN

A

layers 3-6
midget cells (P cells)
small cell bodies

105
Q

where are the koniocellular layers in the LGN

A

between the layers
very small cell bodies
they match whatever is above them

106
Q

what is retinotopic organisation?

A

The same all the way through

visual space to ganglion cells to LGN- will be next to each other the whole way through

107
Q

what does staining with cytochrome oxidase reveal?

A

columns running through the layers

the columns are colour opponent- neurones in these regions are processing colour

108
Q

lateral corticospinal tract

A

skilled limb movement

109
Q

ventral corticospinal tract

A

axial muscle control

110
Q

corticobulbar tract

A

controls primary facial muscles, jaw, and muscles for speaking and swallowing
red nucleus, RF.

111
Q

rubrospinal tract

A

red nucleus

limb control

112
Q

tectospinal tract

A

originates from superior colliculus

head-eye coordinating gaze

113
Q

reticulospinal tract

A

diverse automatic movements and posture

114
Q

vestibulospinal tract

A

for posture and balance

115
Q

extrafusal fibres

A

generate muscle tension

innervated by alpha motoneurones

116
Q

intrafusal fibres

A

gain control function

innervated by gamma motor neurones

117
Q

what is proprioception?

A

sense of oneself
Receptors on skeletal muscles, joints, skin
Vision & Vestibular System
detected by golgi tendon organs and spindle

118
Q

what is Exteroception?

A

sense of external world
All special senses
Somatosensory: contact, pressure, stroking, vibration, etc.

119
Q

Ia afferent

A

spindle afferents and efferents
senses stretch and rate of change in stretch
excite alpha motoneurons

120
Q

Ib afferents

A

tendon organ afferents
force change in muscle
inhibit alpha motoneurons

121
Q

II afferent

A

spindle afferents and efferents
group 2 afferent
senses stretch only

122
Q

reflex

A

a fast, predictable automatic response to a change in the environment or a stimulus

123
Q

where does the corticospinal tract go?

A

tract to the spinal cord

it is important for skilled movement

124
Q

Plantar reflex/ Barbinski reflex

A

sole of foot is stimulated with a blunt instrument
normally- Plantar- the toes curl downwards
Babinski- the toes curl upwards- After loss of supraspinal or descending control (CST)

125
Q

Lesions to reticulospinal and vestibulospinal tracts-

A

impaires gross movements but not fine

126
Q

what does the basal ganglia consist of

A

corpus striatum, substantia nigra, globus pallidus, sub-thalamic nucleus

127
Q

what is the direct pathway in the basal ganglia?

A

putamen to internal globus pallidus

128
Q

what is the indirect pathway in the basal ganglia?

A

Putamen -> external Globus Pallidus -> Subthalamic nucleus -> internal Globus Pallidus

129
Q

ataxia

A

bad movement

130
Q

dysmetria

A

innappropiate displacement

131
Q

hypotonia

A

weakness/ lack of muscle tone

132
Q

Dysdiadochokinesis

A

inability to make rapid repetitive movement

133
Q

Decomposition of movement

A

lack of co-ordination of different joints

134
Q

mossy fibres

A

Mossy fibers -> excite granule cells -> weak affect on many Purkinje cells.
Directly :
Vestibular and spinal afferents(especially muscle spindles),.

135
Q

climbing fibres

A

Climbing fibers -> contacts a few purkinje cells (~10) strongly excites them.

136
Q

tactile receptors

A

sensations - mediated by low threshold mechanoreceptors, Merkel, Ruffini, Meissner & Pacinian types

137
Q

Proprioception

A

mediated by muscle (spindle) & joint (Golgi tendon) receptors, some inputs from cutaneous mechanoreceptors

138
Q

Thermal sensations

A

mediated by thermoreceptors localised to discrete zones that exhibit hot & cold sensitivity

139
Q

Nociceptive (painful) sensations

A

mediated by mechanical, thermal & polymodal nociceptors

140
Q

Meissner’s

A

Low frequency vibrations

rough texture and movement

141
Q

Merkel’s disks

A

Small forms and shapes
epidermal/dermal border
detects form, shapes, rough edges, borders, texture

142
Q

Pacinian Corpuscles-

A

High frequency vibrations

fine texture and movement

143
Q

Ruffini’s corpuscles

A

pressure
deep dermis
stretching, indentation or lateral movement

144
Q

Free nerve endings

A

noxious- harmful

145
Q

hair follicle receptor

A

light touch

146
Q

nociception

A

sensory process that provides the signals that trigger pain.

147
Q

1st pain

A

fast AD fibres
sharp or prickly
short duration
mechanical/ thermal nociceptors

148
Q

2nd pain

A

slow C fibres
dull ache
slow onset but persistent
polymodal nociceptors

149
Q

areas in spinal cord innervated by afferent

A

lamina 1+2- substantia gelatinosa

150
Q

causes of hyperalgesia

A

A reduced threshold for pain
An increased intensity of painful stimuli
Spontaneous pain

151
Q

5 categories of taste

A

sweet, salty, bitter, sour and savoury

152
Q

Circumvallate papillae

A

largest, contain many thousands of taste buds, located at posterior

153
Q

Foliate papillae

A

elongated structure, contain hundreds of taste buds, lie along posterior lateral edge

154
Q

Fungiform papillae

A

smallest, contain one or two taste buds, widespread across anterior portion and tip of tongue

155
Q

sequence of events for taste transduction

A

1- Dissolved molecules interact with sites OR modulate ion channels on apical microvilli
2- Triggers membrane depolarization & action potential firing
3- Accompanied by increase in intracellular calcium which initiates transmitter release
4-Transmitters excite afferent nerve fibres which combine to form cranial nerves (VII, IX & X) activated by taste stimuli

156
Q

4 mechanisms in transduction cascade

A

Directly pass through ion channel
Bind to and block ion channels
Bind to and open ion channels
Bind to receptors that activate 2nd messenger systems that modulate ion channels

157
Q

3 facts of neurodegenerative disorders

A

progressive
loss of neurones
irreversible

158
Q

symptoms of parkinsons

A
rigidity
slurred and monotone speech
tremor
akinesia- difficulty in initiating movement
postural- stoop, shuffling and balance