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Neuranatomy > Neuroanatomy Exam 3 > Flashcards

Neuroanatomy Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What do somatic sensory fibers convey?

A

Information from receptive endings for pain, temperature, and mechanical stimuli in somatic structures (skin, muscles)

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2
Q

What do visceral sensory fibers convey?

A

Information from receptive endings in visceral structures such as the walls of blood vessels

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3
Q

What are visceral motor fibers?

A

Preganglionic autonomic axons

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4
Q

What do somatic motor fibers innervate?

A

Skeletal muscle

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5
Q

Somatic motor fibers are the axons of…..

A

alpha and gamma motor neurons

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6
Q

How are cells concerned with visceral vs. somatic function arranged in the spinal gray matter?

A

Cells concerned with visceral function tend to be closer to the sulcus limitans (more medial). Cells concerned with somatic function tend to be more lateral.

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7
Q

What muscles develop from the pharyngeal arches?

A

Striated muscles in and near the head and neck

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8
Q

Which cranial nerves contain somatic motor fibers?

A

3, 4, 6, 11 and 12

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9
Q

What extraocular muscles does Cranial Nerve 3 (Occulomotor Nerve) innervate?

A

1) levator Palpebrae Superioris
2) Medial, superior and inferior recti
3) Inferior oblique

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10
Q

Where do fibers of cranial nerve 3 originate?

A

Occulomotor nucleus

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11
Q

Where is the occulomotor nucleus?

A

The anterior edge of the periaqueductal gray in the rostral midbrain

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12
Q

Describe the structure of the occulomotor nucleus. What does it consist of?

A

Consists of a series of longitudinal cell columns (referred to as subnuclei) that supply individual muscles

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13
Q

The coloumn of the occulomotor nucleus that supplies the superior rectus projects to….

A

The contralateral eye

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14
Q

The column of the occulomotor nucleus supplying the levator palpebrae superioris innervates this muscle….

A

Bilaterally

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15
Q

The columns of the occulomotor nucleus suppling the medial rectus, inferior oblique, and inferior rectus project to…..

A

The ipsilateral eye

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16
Q

What is the accessory occulomotor nucleus?

A

Also known as the Edinger-Westphal Nucleus, it is a column of the occulomotor nucleus containing preganglionic parasympathetic neurons

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17
Q

What does the accessory motor nucleus project to?

A

The ipsilateral ciliary ganglion

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18
Q

The ciliary ganglion innervate the…..

A

Pupillary sphincter and the ciliary muscle

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19
Q

What is lateral strabismus?

A

Damage to one occulomotor nerve. The eye ipsilateral to the lesion deviates laterally.

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20
Q

In lateral strabismus, what muscles are affected?

A

The medial rectus is paralyzed and the lateral rectus operates unopposed. The superior and inferior recti and inferior oblique are also paralyzed (prevents vertical movement)

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21
Q

Diplopia and being unable to move your eye laterally are clinical signs of…..

A

Lateral Strabismus

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22
Q

T/F The ipsilateral levator palpebrae superioris is paralyzed in lateral strabismus

A

True (results in ptosis)

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23
Q

T/F The pupillary sphincter and ciliary muscle remain functional in lateral strabismus

A

False, they become non-functional (ipsilateral effect)

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24
Q

In lateral strabismus, the pupil on the affected side is (dialted/undialated) as a result of the now-unopposed pupillary dialator, and it (does/does not) constrict in response to light

A

1) Dialated
2) Does not

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25
Q

What is usually the first clinically detectable sign of something pressing on the third nerve?

A

A dialated pupil unresponsive to light

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26
Q

What extraoccular muscle does the trochlear nerve innervate?

A

The superior oblique

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27
Q

Where at the cell bodies of origin for the trochlear nerve located?

A

In the contralateral trochlear nucleus

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28
Q

The trochlear nucleus is located at the level of the (superior/inferior) colliculus

A

Inferior

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29
Q

Where do fibers leaving the trochlear nucleus decussate?

A

Pontomedullary Junction

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30
Q

What does the superior oblique muscle do?

A

Helps move the adducted eye downward (like when reading or walking down stairs). Also aid in eye intorsion

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31
Q

Lesions to the trochlear nerve result in…

A

An extorted eye, resulting in tilting of head away from the lesioned side to compensate

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32
Q

The abduscens nerve innervates the…..

A

Lateral Rectus

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33
Q

Where do the fibers of the abduscens nerve originate?

A

The ipsilateral abduscens nucleus

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34
Q

Where is the abduscens nucleus located?

A

In the caudal pons beneath the floor of the fourth ventricle

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35
Q

What is the internal genu of the facial nerve?

A

The place where the facial nerve vibers wrap around the abduscens nucleus

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36
Q

What is responsible for the facial colliculus?

A

The abduscens nucleus and the internal genu

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37
Q

Damage to the abduscens NERVE causes…

A

Medial strabismus

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38
Q

What is medial strabismus?

A

Affected eye deviates medially. Individual may move the affected eye from adducted position to midposition (but not past it)

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39
Q

Damage to the abduscens NUCLEUS results in….

A

Lateral Gaze Paralysis

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40
Q

What is lateral gaze paralysis?

A

Damage to abduscens nucleus cause an inability of the ipsilateral eye to abduct past midposition and the contralateral eye to adduct past its midposition

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41
Q

Why does damage to the abduscens nucleus cause lateral gaze paralysis?

A

The abduscens nucleus contains not only recuts motor neurons but also internuclear neurons with axons that ascend through the MLF to the CONTRALATERAL occulomotor nucleus.

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42
Q

The abduscens nucleus also contains interneurons that project to the….

A

contralateral occulomotor nucleus

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43
Q

Why is it important that the abduscens nucleus projects interneurons to the contralateral occulomotor nucleus?

A

This makes it possible to have both eyes look in the same direction. Looking in the same direction requires one lateral rectus and the contralateral medial rectus to contract simultaneously. Simultaneous firing of abduscens motor neurons and internuclear neurons allow for coordinated lateral gaze.

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44
Q

Damage to one MLF results in…..

A

the ipsilateral eye (to the lesion) failing to move past midposition during attempted horizontal gaze

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45
Q

The accessory nerve innervates….

A

Neck and shoulder muscles

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46
Q

The hypoglossal nerve innervates….

A

Tongue Muscles

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47
Q

Where do the fibers of the hypoglossal nerve originate?

A

In the ipsilateral hypoglossal nucleus

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48
Q

If there is damage to the hypoglossal nerve, sticking your tongue out deviates…..

A

toward the side of the lesion

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49
Q

Branchiomeric nerves innervate….

A

striated muscle of branchail (pharyngeal) arch origin (they all contain pharyngeal motor fibers.

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50
Q

T/F The trigeminal nerve is the general sensory nerve for the head

A

True

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51
Q

What type of information (type of sensation) is the trigeminal system resposnsible for?

A

Transmission of tactile, proprioceptive, and pain and temperature infromation from the head to the cortex, cerebellum and reticular formation

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52
Q

What are the three divisions of the trigeminal nerve?

A

1) Ophthalamic
2) Maxillary
3) Mandibular

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53
Q

The main sensory nucleus of the trigeminal nerve receives information about….

A

Touch and jaw position

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54
Q

Tactile afferent are…..

A

Large diameter, heavily myelinated

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55
Q

The main sensory nucleus of the trigmenial nerve gives rise to these two tracts…..

A

1) Anterior Trigeminothalamic Tract (cross midline to join medial lemniscus)
2) Posterior Trigeminothalamic Tract (uncrossed, not part of medial lemniscus)

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56
Q

The spinal trigeminal nucleus receives information about….

A

Pain and temperature

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57
Q

What are the three subdivisions of the spinal trigmenial nucleus and which is responsible for receiving pain and temperature information from the head?

A

1) Most caudal: Caudal Nucleus
2) Interpolar Nucleus
3) Most rostral: Oral Nucleus

***Caudal Nucleus responsible for processing pain and temp info***

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58
Q

Afferents conveying pain and temperature information in the spinal trigeminal tract are (small/large) diameter

A

Small

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59
Q

What is the systematic organization of the divisions of the trigmenial nerve with respect to the caudal spinal trigeminal nucleus?

A

Mandibular Division fibers are most posterior

Ophthalamic Fibers are most anterior

Maxillary lie somewhere in between

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60
Q

Neurons in the anterior parts of the caudal nucleus (trigeminal system) respond to areas of the face in the…..

A

Ophthalamic Distribution

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61
Q

The trigeminal motor nucleus innvervates muscles of….

A

Mastication

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62
Q

Where is the trigeminal motor nucleus located?

A

In the midpons at the level of attachment of the trigeminal nerve to the brainstem

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63
Q

The facial nerve innervates muscles of….

A

Facial Expression

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64
Q

What is the nucleus of origin for the facial nerve?

A

The facial motor nucleus

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65
Q

Where is the facial motor nucleus located?

A

In the anterolateral tegmentum of the caudal pons

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66
Q

Which nucleus is involved in the corneal blink reflex?

A

The facial motor nucleus

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67
Q

What is the corneal blink reflex?

A

If EITHER cornea is touched by a foreign object, BOTH eyes automatically blink

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68
Q

Sensory innervation of the cornea is by way of which division of the trigeminal nerve?

A

Opthalamic

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69
Q

The corneal blink reflex tests….

A

Both trigeminal nerves and both facial nerves

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70
Q

What are corticobulbar neurons?

A

Upper motor neurons originating in the cortex of the frontal lobe that supply the MOTOR nuclei of the cranial nerves

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71
Q

Damage to the facial nerve or the facial motor nucleus affects the…

A

Ipsilateral half of the face

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72
Q

A lesion of motor cortex or corticobulbar fibers results in damage to which side of the face?

A

The contralateral half

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73
Q

T/F The glossopharyngeal nerve conveys information from intraoral receptors

A

True

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74
Q

Much of the visceral sensory fibers of the inner mouth enter the ______ and synapse on in the _______

A

1) Solitary Tract
2) Solitary Nucleus

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75
Q

While most sensation of the tongue and throat (intraoral) enters the solitary tract and synapses on the solitary nucleus, information about pain from the pharynx and posterior part of the tongue enter the _________ tract and terminate in the __________ nucleus

A

1) Spinal Trigeminal Tract
2) Spinal Trigeminal Nucleus

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76
Q

T/F The vagus nerve is the principal parasympathetic nerve

A

True

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77
Q

A major collection of _______ ________ fibers travels in the vagus nerve to thoracic and abdominal viscera generally

A

1) Preganglionic Parasympathetic

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78
Q

Where do most of the preganglionic parasympathetic fivers that travel through the vagus nerve to thoracic and abdominal vsicera arise from?

A

The dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus

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79
Q

What is the principal parasympathetic nucleus of the brain?

A

The dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus

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80
Q

Where is the dorsal motor nucleus located?

A

In the floor of the fourth ventricle, just lateral to the hypoglossal nucleus

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81
Q

What underlies a structure in the floor of the fourth ventricle known as the vagal trigone?

A

The dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus

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82
Q

T/F Most vagal visceral sensory fibers enter the solitary tract and terminate in caudal portions of the solitary nucleus

A

True

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83
Q

Which vagal afferents are thought to enter the spinal trigeminal tract and terminate in the spinal trigeminal nucleus?

A

Afferents innvervating the larynx, esophagus, and lower pharynx

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84
Q

Vagal pharyngeal motor fibers arise in what nucleus?

A

Nucleus Ambiguus

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85
Q

What do vagal pharyngeal motor fibers innervate?

A

Most of the striated muscles of the larynx and pharynx

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86
Q

What can the gag reflex test?

A

The glossopharyngeal nerve (afferent limb)

The Vagus Nerve (Efferent Limb)

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87
Q

Brainstem damage commonly causes deficits on one side of the head and the (same/opposite) side of the body

A

Opposite

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88
Q

T/F All the exiting cranial nerves are ipsilateral to the side they innervate

A

True

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89
Q

T/F Almost all the cranial nerve nuclei deal with contralateral structures

A

FALSE

Almost all deal with ipsilateral structures

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90
Q

Practice Question (Ch 12 Q1): A patient reports to his physician with difficulty swallowing and slurred speech upon waking one morning. The pysician asks the patient to stick out his tongue, upon which the tongue deviates to the right. The most likely side of injury is the:

A

Right Hypoglossal Nucleus

-Tongue points to the side of lesion

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91
Q

Practice Question (Ch 12 Q2) A patient with a hisotry of uncal herniation, in which the midbrain is compressed against the tentorial notch, is most likely to present with:

A

Problems moving the eyes

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92
Q

Practice Question (Ch 12 Q3) An individual with a tumor that compresses only the occulomotor nerve, will present with:

A

The eyes pointed down and out

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93
Q

Practice Question (Ch 12 Q4) The cell bodies responsible for control of the muscles of mastication are found in the:

A

Trigeminal Motor Nucleus

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94
Q

What inputs does inegrated sensations of flavor require?

A

1) Gustatory Stimulation (stimulating taste buds)
2) Stimulation of olfactory receptors
3) Stimulation of chmical-sensitive and somatosensory free nerve endings of the trigeminal (and other nerves)

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95
Q

What area of the frontal lobe gives the overall sensation about food and drink by integrating multiple factors?

A

The orbital cortex

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96
Q

Which cranial nerves innervate the taste buds?

A

7, 9, and 10

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97
Q

What type of papillae contain taste buds?

A

Fungiform, Foliate, and Circumvallate

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98
Q

T/F Taste receptor cells are modified epithelial cells with neuron-like properties

A

True

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99
Q

How are taste receptor cells similar to neurons?

A

1) Contain transduction machinery
2) Produce receptor potentials in resposne to the appropriate taste stimuli

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100
Q

Second order gustatory neurons are located in…..

A

The Solitary Tract

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101
Q

What are the two things second order taste fibers do?

A

1) Participate in reflex activities, such as salivation, swallowing, and coughing by way of cranial nerve motor nuclei
2) Project to the cerebral cortex by way of the thalamus

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102
Q

The projection of 2nd order gustatory neurons to the thalamus is (crossed/uncrossed)

A

Uncrossed

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103
Q

Descrie the mode of travel of 2nd order gustatory neurons

A

1) Ganglia of 7, 9 and 10 project to the VMP via the Central Tegmental Tract. Gustatory cortex neurons then project to the orbital cortex of the frontal lobe

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104
Q

How does taste reachthe hypothalamus and the limbic system?

A

Gustatory cortex projects to the amygdala and that sends taste information to the hypothalamus and the limbic ststem. However, in most mammals, taste information reaches the hypothalamus and amygdala more directly though a projection from the parabrachial nuclei.

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105
Q

Olfaction is mediated by receptors that project directly to the…..

A

Telencephalon

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106
Q

The axons of olfactory recpetor neurons form with cranial nerve?

A

Cranial Nerve 1

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107
Q

T/F Sensory nerve ending of trigeminal nerve fibers are also found in the olfactory epithelium

A

T

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108
Q

What is the olfactory epithelium?

A

The beginning of the olfactory system, it is a patch of cells occupying about 1 to 2 cm of the roof and adjacent walls of the nasal cavity on each side.

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109
Q

How many receptor cells does each olfactory epithelium have?

A

Around 3 million each

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110
Q

What are the trigeminal endings found in the olfactory epithelium responsible for?

A

Noxious senstaion (not really one of smell)

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111
Q

T/F The olfactory receptor cells, just like taste receptor cells, are semi-neurons

A

False, olfactory receptor cells are true neurons

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112
Q

T/F The unmyelinated axons of the olfactory receptors are among the thinnest and most slowly conductin in the entire nervous system

A

True

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113
Q

The axons of olfactory receptors collect into small bundles known as the….

A

olfactory fila

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114
Q

The olfactory fila pass through the hooles in the cribiform plate of the ehmoid bone and end in the…..

A

Olfactory Bulb

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115
Q

The primary neurotransmitter released by the axons of olfactory receptors in the olfactory bulb is…..

A

Glutamate

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116
Q

What type of receptors are used by olfactory receptor neurons to be able to detect a wide range of odors?

A

G Protein-Coupled

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117
Q

T/F Olfactory information bypasses the thalamus on its way to the cerebral cortex

A

True

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118
Q

The olfactory bulb develops as an outgrowth from the…..

A

Telencephalon

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119
Q

The olfactory nerve reaches the (ipsilateral/contralateral) cerebral hemisphere and does so (directly/indirectly)

A

1) Ipsilateral
2) Directly (skips the thalamus)

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120
Q

The olfactory nerve terminates in the…..

A

Olfactory bulb

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121
Q

What is the most prominent cell type of the olfactory bulb?

A

The mitral cell

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122
Q

Describe the configuration of the mitral cell

A

Similar to a cortical pyramidal cell in reverse. It has an axon that emerges from the pointed side of the pyramid and moves toward the interior of the bulb to enter the olfactory tract.

A dendrite emerges from the broad side, descends to the surgace of the bulb, and receives coontacts from the incoming axons of olfactory receptors (CN 1)

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123
Q

What forms glomeruli?

A

The dendrites of the mitral cell, which spread out in large spherical arborizations

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124
Q

The axons of all the hundreds of olfactory receptor neurons that express a given receptor protein converge on just…….

A

One or two glomeruli

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125
Q

T/F Different odorants activate different sets of glomeruli in patterns that systematically map out the chemical properties of odorants across the surface of the olfactory bulb

A

True

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126
Q

Give a basic description of a mitral cell

A

Send dendrites into the glomeruli and send their axons into the olfactory tract

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127
Q

The olfactory bulb projects to….

A

the olfactory cortex

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128
Q

Olfactory receptor neurons wind up represented in the (ipsilateral/contralateral) cerebral hemisphere

A

Ipsilateral

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129
Q

T/F Neurons of the olfactory bulb and primary olfactory cortex respond to selected simulants while neurons of the olfactory association cortex are more likely to respond to multiple odorants

A

False, the relationship is switched. Olfactory bulb detects multiple odorants while the olfactory association cortex respond to selected stimuli

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130
Q

What are conductive olfactory deficits?

A

Processes that prevent odorants from reaching to olfactory epithelium

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131
Q

What are sensorineural olfactory deficits?

A

Processes that damage olfactory receptor neurons or parts of the olfactory CNS

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132
Q

What can cause sensorineural olfactory deficits?

A

Head injuries (may tear the olfactory fila loose from the olfactory bulb) or neurdegenerative diseases.

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133
Q

Practice Question (Ch 13 Q1): A lack of taste from the posterior aspect of the tongue, with a significant decrease in the ability to perceive bitter tastants may suggest damage to:

A

CN 9

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134
Q

Practice Question (Ch 13 Q2): The chemical neurotransmitter that is released from the depolarized taste bud to activate the cranial nerve is always…

A

ATP

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135
Q

Practice Question (Ch 13 Q3): The arrow is pointing to the __________ in this cross section of the human rostral medulla:

A

Primary affernt fibers of the tongue and viscera

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136
Q

Practice Question (Ch 13 Q4): The first cranial nerve (CN1) that detects olfaction in humans has fibers that pass through the:

A

Cribiform Plate

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137
Q

Practice Question (Ch 13 Q5): A patient comes to the emergency room after being in a car accident in which his vehicle was struck from behind. He claims he is having trouble smelling. The clinician detects that he is unable to smell coffee or cinnamon, but he did respond to the smell of ammonia. What cranial nerve may allow him to “smell” ammonia?

A

CN 5 (detects noxious smells such as methanol and ammonia)

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138
Q

Hearing and balance are dealt with by the ___ cranial nerve

A

8th

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139
Q

The _____ divisiion of the 8th cranial nerve conveys information about sound, while the _______ division signals position and movement of the head.

A

1) Cochlear
2) Vestibular

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140
Q

Auditory and Vestibular Receptor cells are located in the walls of the ___________ labyrinth

A

Membranous

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141
Q

Where is the membranous labyrinth?

A

It is suspended in the bony labyrinth, which is a cavity in the temporal bone

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142
Q

The bony labyrinth is filled with (perilymph/endolymph)

A

Perilymph

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143
Q

What is Perilymph?

A

Fluid similar in composition to CSF; low Potassium concentration high sodium concentration

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144
Q

T/F The subarachnoid space around the brain is continuous with the perilymphatic space of the bony labyrinth through a tiny canal in the temporal bone

A

True

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145
Q

What is the tiny canal called that connects the perilymphatic space with the rest of the subarachnoid space of the brain?

A

The Cochlear Aqueduct

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146
Q

The membranous labyrinth is filled with (perilymph/endolymph)

A

Endolymph

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147
Q

What is endolymph?

A

A fluid similar to intracellular fluids in ionic composition (high K+ concentration, Low Na+ concentration

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148
Q

What continuously produces endolymph?

A

Specialized epithelialcells called stria vascularis

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149
Q

The microvilli that project as a bundle from one end of the hair cell projects into the (endolymphatic interior/perilymphatic exterior)

A

Endolymphatic Interior

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150
Q

What are the three locations (labyrinth locations) where hair cells are?

A

Semicircular Ducts, Utricle, and the Saccule

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151
Q

What stimulus is transduced by the organ of corti?

A

Sound

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152
Q

What makes hair cells so rigid?

A

Cross-linked actin filaments

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153
Q

Briefly describe how hair cells operate based on mechanical stimuli (hint: how do tip links factor in and what causes the hair cells to open their channels)

A

1) Tip links connect each stereocilium to its next tallest neighbour
2) Deflection of the hair bundle toward tallet stereocilia stretches tip links
3) Stretching tip liinks opens mechanically gated ion channels more
4) K+ ions from endolymph flow through into the hair cells to depolarize cell
5) This cases the opening of voltage gated Ca2+ channel and increased neurotransmitter release onto 8th cranial nerve
6) Excitatory transmitter (glutamate) then causes increased firing frequency in eighth nerve fibers

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154
Q

T/F Deflection of hair cells away from their next tallest neighbour decreases the tension of the tip links, and causes mechanically gate ion channels to close

A

True

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155
Q

What are the two muscles attached to the mididle ear bones that modulate the transmission of vibrations to the inner ear?

A

1) Tensor Tympani
2) Stapedius

156
Q

What ossicle does the tensor tympani attache to?

A

The handle of the malleus

157
Q

When the tensory tympani contracts it (increases/decreases) the tension on the tympanic membrane and (increases/decreases) the transmission of vibrations through the ossicular chain

A

Increases, Decreases

158
Q

What ossicle does the stapedius attach to?

A

The neck of the Stapes

159
Q

When the stapedius contracts, it (increases/decreases) the transmission of vibrations just like what happens when the tensor tympani contracts

A

Decreases

160
Q

The tensor tympani receives motor innervation from the _______ nerve

A

Trigeminal

161
Q

The stapedius receives motor innervation from the ________ nerve

A

Facial

162
Q

What is the auditory portion of the membranous labyrinth called?

A

The Cochlear Duct

163
Q

What is the perilymphatic space above the cochlear duct called?

A

The Scala Vestibuli

164
Q

What is the space below the cochlear duct called?

A

The scala tympani

165
Q

What does the Reissner’s Membrane function as?

A

A diffusion barrier between the endolymph and perilymph

166
Q

Inner hair cells are (sensory/amplifier) cells, and outer hair cells are (sensory/amplifier) cells

A

Sensory, Amplifier

167
Q

T/F Motion oof the outer hair cells can enhance the vibration of the basilar membrane

A

True

168
Q

Auditoy Information is distributed (bilaterally/unilaterally) in the CNS

A

Bilaterally

169
Q

Where are the cell bodies of auditory primary afferents located?

A

The Spiral Ganglion (of the Modiolus)

170
Q

Auditory primary afferents are myelinated by….

A

Schwann cells until they enter at the pontomedullary junction

171
Q

Where does bifurcation of auditory primary afferents occur?

A

At the pontomedullary junction (where they enter the brainstem)

172
Q

After bifurcation of the auditory primary afferents, one branch is sent to the _________ __________ nucleus and one branch to the __________ ___________ nucleus

A

1) Dorsal Cochlear Nucleus
2) Ventral Cochlear Nucleus

173
Q

What is the major ascending auditory pathway of the brainstem?

A

The lateral Lemniscus

174
Q

T/F Each lateral lemniscus carries information only from one ear

A

False, each one carries information from both ears

175
Q

Rather than heading straight to the thalamus, where do (almost) all fivers of the lateral lemniscus terminate?

A

The Inferior Colliculus

176
Q

Starting at the level of the lateral lemniscus, descirbe the projections involving auditory information

A

1) Lateral Lemniscus terminates in the Inferior Colliculus
2) IC projects bilaterally through the Brachium of the IC
3) Projected to the Medial Geniculate Nucleus
4) Fibers from MGN project tonotopically to the primary auditory cortex

177
Q

Lower frequency sounds are mapped on the auditory cortex more (laterally/medially) while higher frequency sounds are mapped more (laterally/medially)

A

1) Laterally
2) Medially

178
Q

Where is the primary auditory cortex located?

A

In the transverse temporal gyri, mostly buried in the lateral sulcus

179
Q

Many of the fibers of the _________ cochlear nucleus are involved in sound localization and end in the superior olivary nucleus

A

1) Ventral

180
Q

Fibers from what cochlear nucleus are largely involved in sound localization?

A

Ventral

181
Q

Fibers of the ventral cochlear nucleus involved in sound localization end in the ________ ________ nucleus, at the _______ end of the facial motor nucleus in the _______ (what level of the brainstem)

A

1) Facial Motor
2) Rostral
3) Pons

182
Q

Sound localization can be accomplished by comparing the time of ________ and the ______ of a sound at the two ears

A

1) Arrival
2) Intensity

183
Q

The time of arrival comparison of sound is begun in the (medial/lateral) superior olive

A

Medial

184
Q

What provides the anatomical substrate for binaural comparison?

A

Fibers from the ventral cochlear nuclei of both sides converging on the medial superior olive of each side

185
Q

In the time-of-arrival comparison, each superior olivary nucleus (after receiving input from the ventral cochlear nuclei) projects through the lateral lemniscus to the (ipsilateral/contralateral) inferior colliculus

A

Ipsilateral

186
Q

An individual with a damaged facial nerve may complain that sounds are too (loud/quiet) in their (ipsilateral/contralateral) ear

A

1) Loud
2) Ipsilateral

187
Q

The vestibular division of the eight cranial nerve conveys information about _______ and ________ acceleration of the head

A

1) Linear
2) Angular

188
Q

What are the two otolithic ograns and where are they located?

A

The utricle and the saccule; they are located in the vestibule (which is the central area of the bony labyrinth)

189
Q

Receptors in the semicircular ducts detect (linear/angular) acceleration of the head

A

Angular

190
Q

Angular acceleration with respect to the head would be like (rotating the head from left to right/nodding the head up and down)

A

Rotating

191
Q

What do the receptors in the utricle and saccule detect?

A

Linear Acceleration and Position of the Head

192
Q

What are examples of linear accelerating forces? What about with respect to the head?

A

Examples include those forces experienced elevators (up and down) and in cars (forward and backward)

193
Q

The utricle is most sensitve to (linear/angular) acceleration in the forms of which direction?

A

Linear, in the forms of forward-backward and side-to-side

194
Q

The saccule is more sensitive to linear acceleration in what directions?

A

Up-down and forward-backward

195
Q

The vestibular primary afferents have their cell bodies in the….

A

Vestibular Ganglion

196
Q

The peripheral processes of vestibular primary afferents receive their input from the hair cells of the……

A

Semicircular Ducts, Utricle, and Saccule

197
Q

Where do the central processes of the vestibular primary afferents enter the brainstem?

A

At the pontomedullary junction

198
Q

What are the four vestibular nuclei?

A

Inferior, medial, lateral, and superior

199
Q

T/F Each vestibular nucleus has its own pattern of secondary connections

A

True

200
Q

Other inputs to the vestibular nuclei include projections from the cerebellum by way of the………

A

Juxstarestiform Body

201
Q

The vestibular nuclei poject to the nuclei of which cranial nerves?

A

3,4, and 6

202
Q

What is the main function of the vestibular system?

A

Regulate posture and coordinate eye and head movements

203
Q

The lateral vestibulospinal tract arises in the (lateral/medial) vestibular nucleus

A

Lateral

204
Q

Give a brief overview of the mode of travel of the lateral vestibulospinal tract

A

1) Start: Lateral vestibular nucleus
2) Travels through the Lateral Funiculus
3) Sends furtherexcitatory projections to the motor neurons for antigravity muscles at all ipsilateral spinal levels

205
Q

As the lateral vestibulospinal tract travels through the lateral funiculus, it sends excitatory projections to the motor neurons for (balance/antigravity) muscles at all (ipsilateral/contralateral) spinal levels

A

1) Antigravity
2) Ipsilateral

206
Q

Vestibulospinal fibers influence ________ muscles and _______ muscles

A

Antigravity, neck

207
Q

The (medial/lateral) vestibulospinal tract is responsible for stabalizing head position as we walk around or when our heads move in space in other ways, as well as for coordinating head and eye movements

A

Medial

208
Q

The medial vestibulospinal tract arises mainly in the (medial/lateral) vestibular nucleus, and reachs the (ipsilateral/contralateral/both) sides of the cervical spinal cord

A

1) Medial
2) Both

209
Q

The medial vestibulospinal tract reaches both sides of the cervical spinal cord by projecting caudally though the (MLF/LF)

A

MLF

210
Q

Gaze can stay fixed on an object even though the head is moving by means of the ____________ reflex

A

Vestibuloocular

211
Q

What is the vestibuloocular reflex?

A

Vestibular Nuclei coordinate with the motor neurons of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nuclei to allow for object tracking even while the head is moving

212
Q

Give an example of the vestibuloocular refelx

A

If the head turns, the eyes will automatically counter the turn in the opposite direction thus the direction of gaze would not change

213
Q

What is the purpose of a healthy vestibular nystagums?

A

To keep images from moving on the retina

214
Q

What is a romberg sign?

A

Greatly increased swaying and loss of balance caused by closing the eyes

215
Q

What does a positive romberg sign indicate?

A

Defective vestibular or somatosensory function

216
Q

Where does the combination of vestibular, visual and somatosensory inputs occur to make sense of orientation and movement?

A

The Vestibular Nuclei

217
Q

T/F The visual system works in tandem with the vestibular system to provide information about the position and motion of the head in space

A

True, the visual system is anothet major source of this information (it is dominant in most cases)

218
Q

Practice Question (Ch 14 Q1) Hearing loss can be attributed to multiple causes, including a genetic mutation in potassium channels involved in the production of endolymph. Where in the cochlear apparatus would this genetic defect in the potassium channel be located?

A

Scala Media

219
Q

Practice Question (Ch 14 Q2) An individual with significantly reduced hearing in one ear and reduced bone conduction is most likely to have injured….

A

Inner Hair Cells

220
Q

Practice Question (Ch 14 Q3): Damage to the outer hair cells most often results in:

A

Decreased otoacoustic emissions

221
Q

Practice Question (Ch 14 Q4): Damage to the facial nerve can result not only in the loss of facial expressions and taste perception but also in:

A

Increased Hearing of Low Frequencies

222
Q

Practice Question (Ch 14 Q5): Auditory information enters the pontomedullary junction of the CNS, sending ascending information to the inferior colliculus and then off to the thalamus before arriving at the superior temporal gyrus (auditory cortex). What part of the thalamus is used for auditory stimuli?

A

Medial Geniculate

223
Q

Practice Question (Ch 14 Q6) A standard test used in emergency medicine involves instilling cold water into a patient’s ear and watching for eye movements. What would be the expected pattern of nystagmus in a neurologically intact individual lying on his back, if cool water were instilled into the right ear?

A

Nystagmus that starts out with its fast phase to the left, then slowly fades away.

Direction of nystagmus is opposite to the ear in which the water is instilled

224
Q

Practice Question (Ch 14 Q7): The ability to feel the motion of going up in an elevator is due to the hair cells in the:

A

Saccule

225
Q

What is the dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus?

A

Nucleus of origin of most preganglionic parasympathetic neurons for thoracic and abdomnial viscera

226
Q

The nucleus gracilis is the site of termination of the….

A

fasciculus gracilis

227
Q

The nucleus gracilis is the origion of the (upper/lower) limb portion of the medial lemniscus

A

lower

228
Q

What is the site of termination of the fasciculus cuneatus?

A

Nucleus cuneatus

229
Q

T/F Proprioceptive primary afferents travel through the fasciculus cuneatus to reach the lateral cuneate nucleus

A

True

230
Q

Uncrossed cuneocerebellar fibers from the cuneate nucleus enter the cerebellum through the (inferior/superior) cerebellar peduncle

A

Inferior

231
Q

The lateral cuneate nucleus deals with proprioceptive information from the (upper/lower) limbs

A

Upper

232
Q

The lateral cuneate nucleus gives rise to (crossed/uncrossed) _________ fibers that enter the cerebellum through the inferior cerebellar peduncle

A

1) Uncrossed
2) Cuneocerebellar

233
Q

What nucleus is the site of termination of part of the spinal trigeminal tract?

A

The spinal Trigeminal Nucleus

234
Q

At what nucleus does the anterolateral pathway originate?

A

Spinal Trigeminal Nucleus

235
Q

The spinal trigeminal nucleus deals with what type of sensory information?

A

Pain and Temperature

236
Q

What type of information does the spinal trigeminal tract carry, and where does it have its primary afferents?

A

Originates in the ipsilateral face, and carries pain and temperature information

237
Q

The Posterior Spinocerebellar Tract originates from _______ nucleus

A

Clarke’s

238
Q

Describe what kind of information and from where Clarke’s Nucleus processes

A

Proprioceptive Information from the ipsilateral lower limb

239
Q

The posterior spinocerebellar tract, after originating from clarke’s nucleus, is (crossed/uncrossed) and will carry proprioceptive information from the lower limb that will reach the (contralateral/ipsilateral) half of the cerebellum

A

1) Uncrossed
2) Ipsilateral

240
Q

The posterior spinocerebellar tract enters the cerebellum through the (superior/inferior) cerebellar peduncle

A

Inferior

241
Q

The anterolateral pathway originates from…..

A

The spinal posterior horns and intermediate gray

242
Q

The anterolateral pathway conveys what type of sensory information?

A

Pain and Temperature

243
Q

This tract carries unconscious proprioceptive information from the lower limb to the cerebellum

A

Anterior Spinocerebellar

244
Q

What is the principal ascending pathway for fine touch, conscious proprioception, and vibratory formation?

A

Medial Lemniscus

245
Q

This nucleus is known as containing the lower motor neurons for the ipsilateral half of the tongue

A

Hypoglossal

246
Q

Primary afferents conveying visceral information from cranial nerves ___, ____, and _____ travel through the solitary tract to reach the solitary nucleus

A

7, 9, and 10

247
Q

What is the site of origin of the medial vestibulospinal tract?

A

Medial Vestibular Nucleus

248
Q

The abduscens nucleus is located in which section of the brainstem?

A

Caudal Pons

249
Q

This nucleus contains the lower motor neurons for the ipsilateral lateral rectus

A

Abduscens

250
Q

Some of the primary afferents of the spinal trigeminal tract carrying tactile information end in what region of the brainstem?

A

Caudal Pons

251
Q

Describe the lateral lemniscus

A

It is the ascending auditory fibers

252
Q

The ascending auditory fibers that form the lateral lemniscus originate from which two nuclei?

A

Superior Olivary and Cochlear

253
Q

What fibers form the middle cerebellar peduncle?

A

The pontocerebellar fibers

254
Q

The pontocerebellar fibers have their sources in what nuclei?

A

Pontine

255
Q

What is the first site of convergence of fibers representing the two ears and is also the source of many of the fibers of the lateral lemniscus?

A

Superior Olivary Nucleus

256
Q

The facial motor nucleus is located in which region of the brainstem?

A

Caudal Pons

257
Q

This nucleus contains the lower motor neurons for the ipsilateral muscles of facial expression

A

Facial Motor Nucleus

258
Q

The trigeminal main sensory nucleus is located in what region of the brainstem?

A

Midpons

259
Q

What nucleus is the site of termination of large-diameter trigeminal afferents?

A

Trigeminal Main Sensory Nucleus

260
Q

T/F The midpons contains the Trigeminal Motor Nucleus

A

True

261
Q

What is the trigeminal motor nucleus?

A

Contains the lower motor neurons for the ipsilateral muscles of mastication

262
Q

What is the trapezoid body and where is it found?

A

Found in the caudal and midpons, it is the crossing of auditory fibers

263
Q

The crossing fibers of the trapezoid body originate from what nucleus?

A

Ventral Cochlear Nucleus

264
Q

The trochlear nucleus is in what region of the brainstem?

A

Caudal Midbrain

265
Q

What is the trochlear nucleus?

A

Contains the lower motor neuros for the contralateral superior oblique muscle

266
Q

The lateral lemniscus ends in what colliculus?

A

Inferior

267
Q

What tract innervates the mechanoreceptors in and around the mouth?

A

Mesencephalic Trigeminal Tract

268
Q

The occulomotor nucleus is located in which area of the brainstem?

A

Rostral Midbrain

269
Q

What is the occulomotor nucleus?

A

Contains the lower motor neurons for the various eye muscles that it controls

270
Q

What muscles of they eye does the occulomotor nucleus control?

A

1. Ipsilateral Medial and Inferior Recti and Inferior Oblique

2. Contralateral Superior Rectus

  1. Levator Palpebrae
271
Q

What are the four parts of the diencephalon?

(Hint: They all have the word “thalamus”)

A

1) Epithalamus
2) Dorsal Thalamus (this is the thalamus)
3) Subthalamus
4) Hypothalamus

272
Q

What two structures are contained within the epithalamus?

A

Pineal Gland and the Habenular Nuclei

273
Q

A decrease in melatonin causes an (increase/decrease) in gonadal function; how is sexual drive affected when melatonin decreases?

A

Increase; sexual drive is stimulated

274
Q

The habenula nuclei will send messages to the _______ and ________ cells of the brainstem thus it is involved in assigning a rewarding feeling to an action

A

Dopamine and Serotonin

275
Q

The _______ _______ lamina divides most of the thalamus into medial and lateral groups of nuclei

A

Internal Medullary

276
Q

The VPL of the thalamus is the somatosensory relay nucleus for the (Body/Head)

A

Body

277
Q

The VPM of the thalamus is the somatosensory relay nucleus of the (Body/Head)

A

Head

278
Q

The habenulointerpeduncular tract passes through the (centromedian/parafascicular) nuclei

A

Parafascicular

279
Q

All thalamic nuclei - except the reticular nucleus - are a mixture of projection neurons, and small inhibitory intereurons that use what neurotransmitter?

A

GABA

280
Q

What are specific inputs in reference to the thalamus?

A

Inputs conveying the information that a given thalamic nucleus may pass on accurately to the cerebral cortex

281
Q

What are regulatory inputs with respect to the thalamus?

A

Those that contribute to decisions about the form in which information leaves a thalamic nucleus; may modulate information

282
Q

Where do most regulatory inputs come from (in terms of the thalamus)?

A

The cerebral cortx - mainly the cortical area to which a given thalamic nucleus projects

283
Q

Describe the input and projection of relay nuclei with respect to the thalamus

A

Receive well defined bundles of specific input fibers, and project to particular functional areas of the cerebral cortex

284
Q

What is the role of relay nuclei?

A

Deliver information from particular functional systems to appropriate cortical areas

285
Q

Association nuclei (thalamus) project to cortical areas known as ________ areas

A

Association

286
Q

What is the likely role of association nuclei (thalamus)?

A

Regulating Distribution and gating of information between cortical areas

287
Q

Midline nuclei project to areas of _______ _______, and also to parts of the basal nuclei and ________ ______

A

Cerebral Cortex

Limbic System

288
Q

What are the two physiological states of thalamic projection neurons?

A

Tonic Mode

Burst Mode

289
Q

Projection neurons that are slightly depolarized (i.e. they are negative but the value is closer to 0) are in a (tonic/burst) mode

A

Tonic

290
Q

How do tonic mode thalamic projection neurons respond when even more slightly depolarized

A

Slight additional depolarization causes a train of action potentials

Slight hyperpolarization causes cessation

291
Q

Projection neurons that are extremely hyperpolarized (beyond the tonic mode) are in the _______ mode

A

Burst

292
Q

Neurons in burst mode are very sensitive because a small depolarization can trigger a…..

A

Burst of action potentials

293
Q

What is the difference between thalamic projection neurons in burst mode vs. tonic mode?

A

The frequency of bursts is the biggest difference.

Tonic mode has a steady frequency, burst mode does not (action potentials occur regularly in tonic mode)

294
Q

Because burst mode neurons have a low frequency of bursts, they are unable to……

A

Transmit information about specific inputs accurately

295
Q

Neurons in (tonic/burst) mode are important because they play an important role in arousal during wakefulness, by serving a “lookout” function

A

Burst

296
Q

What is special about the thalamic reticular nucleus?

A

Instead of projecting to the cerebral cortex like all other thalamic nuclei, it instead projects to other thalamic nuclei

297
Q

The blood supply of the thalamus is mostly from small perforating branches of the ________ cerebral artery and the nearby _______ _________ artery

A

Posterior

Posterior Communicating

298
Q

A branch of the posterior communicating artery called the ___________ artery supplies anterior regions of the thalamus

A

Tuberothalamic

299
Q

Damage concentrated to the posterior thalamus can result in a condition in which normal somatosensory stimuli trigger…..

A

Intense Pain (similar to Trigeminal Neuralgia)

300
Q

T/F The dysesthesia caused by concentrated damage to the posterior thalamus is usually limited to the head, and analgesics usually have no effect

A

False: they can spread to an entire half of the body

They are resistant to analgesics, however

301
Q

Thalamic pain is a result of damage along the __________ pathway, and lesions that cause it almost always inivolve the ______/_______

A

1) Anterolateral
2) VPL/VPM

302
Q

Extensive damage to the posterior thalamus causes total loss of somatic sensation in the (contralateral/ipsilateral) head and body

A

Contralateral

303
Q

Thalamic Pain Syndrome involves a combination of……

A

Thalamic Pain, Hemianesthesia (loss of sensation in half the body) and sensory ataxia (being unable to discriminate between objects using hands)

304
Q

Thalamic pain syndrome affects the (contralateral/ipsilateral) side of the body with respect to the thalamic lesion

A

Contralateral

305
Q

Almost all neural traffic to and from the cerebral cortex (with respect to the thalamus) travels through this structure:

A

1) The internal capsule

306
Q

What are the five parts of the internal capsule?

A

1) Anterior Limb
2) Posterior Limb
3) Genu
4) Retrolenticular Part
5) Sublenticular Part

307
Q

The anterior limb contains the fibers interconnecting the _______ nucleus and the ________ gyrus

A

1) Anterior
2) Cingulate

308
Q

Which part of the internal capsule has some of the fibers projecting from the frontal lobe to the ipsilateral nuclei?

A

Anterior Limb

309
Q

Which part of the internal capsule has the fibers that interconnect the VA and VL with motor areas of the cortex

A

Posterior Limb

310
Q

What part of the internal capsule contains the corticospinal and corticobulbar fibers, and the somatosensory fibers projecting from the VPL/VPM to the postcentral gyrus?

A

Posterior Limb

311
Q

What part of the internal capsule serves as a transition zone between the anterior and posterior limbs?

A

Genu

312
Q

What part of the internal capsule contains part of the optic radiation?

A

The retrolenticular part

313
Q

What does the optic radiation project from and to?

A

Projects from the lateral geniculate nucleus to the calcarine nucleus

314
Q

What part of the internal capsule contains the auditory radiation?

A

The sublenticular part

315
Q

The auditory radiation projects from the _______ _______ nucleus and end in the _______ _______ gyri

A

Medial Geniculate

Transverse Temporal

316
Q

Small branches of the (Middle/Anterior) cerebral artery provide most of the blood supply of the internal capsule

A

Middle

317
Q

What branches oof the middle cerebral artery provides most of the blood supply to the internal capsule?

A

Lenticulostriate Arteries and the Anterior Choroidal Artery

318
Q

What can hemorrhage of a lenticulostriate artery in the vicinity of the posterior limb cause? and what side of the body would you see effects?

A

Hemorrhage can cause spastic paralysis and hemianesthesia on the contralateral side

319
Q

T/F If hemmorhage of a lenticulostriate artery also affects the retrolenticular and sublenticular parts, you could expect to see visual deficits

A

True

320
Q

Practice Question (Ch 16 Q1): After viewing a radiograph of a patient’s head, a clinician notes a shift in the position of the pineal gland. The clinician suspects that a space-occupying lesion has caused the shift and is likely compressing the pineal gland. The compressed pineal gland may cause altered:

A

Sleep-Wake Cycles

321
Q

Practice Question (Ch 16 Q2): The largest source of regulatory input into the lateral geniculate nucleus is from the:

A

Visual Cortex

322
Q

What thalamic nucleus is interconnected with the prefrontal cortex?

A

The Dorsomedial Nucleus

323
Q

What is the dorsomedial nucleus involved in?

A

Prefrontal functions such as affect and foresight

324
Q

Practice Question (Ch 16 Q3): A patient with noncommunicating hydrocephalus, caused by obstruction of the cerebral aqueduct, has a flat affect and, upon examination, lacks foresight. The clinician suspects compression of the:

A

Dorsomedial Nucleus

325
Q

Practice Question (Ch 16 Q4): Damage to the retrolenticular portion of the internal capsule will affect primarily:

A

Vision

326
Q

Practice Question (Ch 16 Q5): The primary blood supply to the genu of the internal capsule is from the:

A

Lenticulostriate Arteries

327
Q

Transduced photic information is conveyed to the brain by way of the axons of…..

A

Ganglion Cells

328
Q

Aqueous Humor is secreted by the ________ _________, which functions as a small outpost of choroid plexus

A

Ciliary Body

329
Q

For humans, most of the refraction required for vision occurs at the ________ ________ ________ at the front surface of the cornea

A

Air-Warer Interface

330
Q

What part of the eye affects the brightness and quality of the image focused on the retina?

A

The Iris

331
Q

The endothelial cells of _______ ________ are joined by tight junctions, forming a blood retina barrier

A

Intraretinal Capillaries

332
Q

What types of visual cells are the first layer of synapses of photoreceptros stimulated by light?

A

Bipolar and Horizontal Cells

333
Q

In the second layer of synapses of the visaul system, bipolar cells terminate on ___________ cells and __________ cells

A

Ganglion

Amacrine

334
Q

What do horizontal cells do?

A

Spread laterally and interconnect receptors, bipolar cells, and other horizontal cells

335
Q

Axons of ________ cells leave the eye as the optic nerve

A

Ganglion

336
Q

What do amacrine cells do?

A

Spread laterally and interconnect bipolar cells, ganglion cells, and other amacrine cells

337
Q

What does the term “plexiform” generally refer to?

A

Synaptic Zones of the visual system

338
Q

What does the term “nucler” generally refer to?

A

The Cell Bodies (of the cells of the visual system)

339
Q

The central ______ is specialized for vision of the highest acuity

A

Fovea

340
Q

Extrafoveal regions function at (lower/higher) light levels

A

Lower

341
Q

(Rods/Cones) signal spatial detail and color

A

Cones

342
Q

T/F Cones are less sensitive than rods, but the are faster in their response

A

True

343
Q

There is considerably less convergence in (cone/rod) pathways than in (cone/rod) pathways

A

Cone

Rod

344
Q

Because there is less convergence in cone pathways, cones are (less/more) sensitive than rods

A

Less

345
Q

The two types of visual ganglion are called…

(Hint: Think Center Surround Receptive Fields)

A

1) On-center
2) Off-center

346
Q

The metabotropic _______ receptor is found on the ON bipolar cells while the OFF bipolar cells contain an inotropic ________ receptor (called AMPA)

A

1) Glutamate
2) Glutamate

347
Q

More glutamate is present during (high/low) levels of light

A

Low

348
Q

The basic spatial orgnization of ganglion cell receptive fields develops in the _________ ________ layer

A

Outer Plexiform

349
Q

The metabotropic glutamate receptor found on ON bipolar cells, when bound to glutamate, results in the (inhibition/activation) of these ON bipolar cells

(Hint: It’s the opposite effect as observed with ganglion cells)

A

Inhibition

350
Q

Illumination of a given receptor causes it to hyperpolarize and release (less/more) glutamate

A

Less

351
Q

Half of the visual field of each eye is mapped systematically in the (contralateral/ipsilateral) cerebral hemisphere

A

Contralateral

352
Q

Fibers from the nasal half of each retina cross in the……..

A

Optic Chiasm

353
Q

Increases in intracranial pressure are frequently transmitted to which nerve of the visual system?

A

The Optic Nerve

354
Q

All fibers from the temporal half of each retina pass through the lateral portions of the optic chiasm (with/without) crossing and enter the (contralateral/ipsilateral) tract

A

1) Without
2) Ipsilateral

355
Q

Each optic tract contains the fiber arising in the temporal retina of the (contralateral/ipsilateral) eye and the nasal retina of the (contralateral/ipsilateral) eye

A

Ipsilateral

Contralateral

356
Q

Most fibers of the optic tracts terminate in the (medial/lateral) geniculate nucleus

A

Lateral

357
Q

The lateral geniculate nucleus is a (#) layered, dome-shaped nucleus

A

6

358
Q

Describe the layer arrangement in the lateral geniculate nucleus

A

A column of cells cutting through all 6 layers represents a given point in the visual field

Each layer receives information from only one eye

359
Q

Layers 1,4, and 6 of the LGN receive input from the (ipsilateral/contralateral) eye

A

Contralateral

360
Q

Layers 2,3, and 5 of the LGN receive input from the (contralateral/ipsilateral) eye

A

Ipsilateral

361
Q

Layers (#-#) of the LGN receive inputs from small ganglion cells sensitive to color and form

A

3-6

362
Q

The parvocellular layers of the LGN are those layers sensitive to ______ and _______

A

Color and Form

363
Q

The neurons in the parvocellular layers are quite (small/large)

A

Small

364
Q

Layers # and # of the LGN contain larger neurons that receive their inputs from larger ganglion cells that are more sensitive to movement and contrast

A

1 and 2

365
Q

The neurons contained in the magnocellular layers of the LGN are quite (small/large) and are particularly sensitive to…….

A

1) Large
2) Movement and Contrast

366
Q

The LGN projects to the primary ______ cortex

A

Visual

367
Q

What is the optic radiation?

A

Fibers arising in the LGN that go on to terminate in the general cortex, they do not all end up in the same place

368
Q

Fibers representing superior visual field quadrants represent (inferior/superior) retinal quadrants

A

Inferior

369
Q

Damage to what lobe can produce significant superior visual field deficits?

A

Temporal

370
Q

Inferior visual fields project to the cortex (above/below) the calcarine sulcus, and superior fields project to the cortex (above/below) the sulcus

A

1) Above
2) Below

371
Q

Because the retinal image is inverted and reversed, damage to temporal areas of the retina causes (nasal/temporal) field losses, and damage to the superior areas of the retina causes (inferior/superior) field losses

A

1) Nasal
2) Inferior

372
Q

Damage (anterior/posterior) to the optic chiasm affects only the ipsilateral eye

A

Anterior

373
Q

Damage at the level of the optic chiasm causes _________ deficits

Hint: it is a condition in which the two eyes have non-overlapping field losses

A

Heteronymous

374
Q

Damage behind the optic chiam causes (heternymous/homonymous) field losses

A

Homonymous

375
Q

A lesion of one optic nerve causes blindness in the (ipsilateral/contralateral) eye

A

Ipsilateral

376
Q

Damage to what structure typically results in quadrant or sector deficits

A

The optic radiation

377
Q

Describe the pupillary light reflex

A

Illumination of either retina causes BOTH pupils to constric

378
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for constricting the pupillary sphincter in a consensual pupillary light reflex?

A

The oculomotor nerve

379
Q

Using the pupillary light reflex, what would be indicative of a damaged right optic nerve?

A

1) In darkness, both pupils are the same size
2) Shining light into the patient’s left eye (our right) constricts the pupils of both eyes
3) Shining a light into the patient’s right eye (our left) constricts the pupils of neither eye

380
Q

Using the pupillary light reflex, what would be indicative of a damage right oculomotor nerve?

A

1) In darkness, the patient’s right pupil may be noticably bigger
2) Shining a light onto the patient’s left eye causes no pupillary response in the patient’s right eye, but does illicit pupillary constriction in the left eye (indicates damaged right oculomotor nerve and an intact left optic nerve)
3) Shining a light on the patient’s right eye causes no response in that same eye, but the left eye does exhibit a response in pupil constriction (indicates the right optic nerve is intact and confirms the right oculomotor nerve is damaged)

381
Q

T/F The pupillary light reflex requires participation of the cerebral cortex

A

False

382
Q

Unlike the pupillary light reflex, the accomodation reflex (requires/does not require) the participation of the cerebral cortex

A

Requires

383
Q

What is an Argyll Robertson Pupil?

A

A condition in which the pupil constricts during the acommodation reflex but not the pupillary light reflex

384
Q

T/F The same preganglionic fibers are thought to mediate the pupillary constriction of the light reflex as those that mediate the accomodation reflex

A

True

385
Q
A

Neuranatomy (7 decks)

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