Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the ascending auditory pathway to the dorsal cochlear and ventral cochlear nuclie

A

vestibulocochlear
nerve reaches the brainstem at the cerebellopontine angle and bifurcates: i) one branch ends in
the dorsal cochlear nucleus,
ii) the other in the ventral cochlear nucleus

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2
Q

Where are the ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei

A

on the dorsolateral surface of the medulla

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3
Q

What is the ascending auditory pathway from the cochlear nuclei

A

fibres relay in the superior olivary nuclei

fibres reach the SON from both the ipsilateral and contralateral cochlear nuclei so this is the first site for binaural interaction

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4
Q

Where is the SON

A

close to the medial meniscus in the pons

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5
Q

How are the SON and ION related

A

they are not - SON is in the pons, involved in hearing, while the functionally unrelated inferior olivary nucleus is on the medulla and is involved in motor control

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6
Q

What forms the main ascending auditory pathway

What is this known as

A

fibres from the SON combining with fibres from the cochlear nuclei which bypassed the SON

the lateral lemniscus

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7
Q

What is the route of the main ascending auditory pathway to the MGN

What happens after the MGN

A

ascends through the pons and, on reaching the tectum of the midbrain, terminates in the inferior colliculus

fibres then pass to the medial geniculate nucleus in the thalamus

MGN gives the auditory radiation which traverses the internal capsule to the auditory complex of the temporal lobe

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8
Q

What is the result of a unilateral lesion to the auditory pathway above the cochlear nuclei

A

the auditory pathway is both crossed and uncrossed above the level of the
cochlear nuclei, so a unilateral lesion in the pathway rarely causes a major impairment in
hearing.

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9
Q

Briefly list the steps in the ascending auditory pathway

A
vestibulocochlear nerve ->
cerebellopontine angle -> bifurcation
either ventral or  dorsal cochlear nucleus ->
SON->
SON fibres and direct fibres from cochlear nuclei combine to form lateral lemniscus ->
 inferior colliculus->
MGN->
auditory radiation->
auditory cortex of temporal lobe
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10
Q

what are the vestibular nuclei

A

four vestibular nuclei (superior, inferior, lateral and medial)

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11
Q

What do you need to know about the vestibular nuclei (2)

A

don’t need to identify them individually,

note that the lateral (Deiter’s) nucleus is made up of large neurons and gives rise to the descending lateral vestibulospinal tract, (important in balance)

The superior nucleus projects to the thalamus.

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12
Q

What are the second order fibres in the olfactory pathway

A

axons of the mitral cells

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13
Q

Describe the olfactory pathway to the projections from the olfactory tract

A

olfactory nerve fibres enter the cranium through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone and synapse in the olfactory bulb

Second order fibres leave olfactory bulb as olfactory tract and project via olfactory stria to pyriform cortex (uncus) and olfactory tubercle

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14
Q

What is the entry for striate arteries supplying internal capsule and striatum

What olfactory structure underlies it

what is this region susceptible to

A

anterior perforated substance

olfactory tubercle

stroke

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15
Q

Where does the pyriform cortex project to

what is next in the pathway and what do these structures do

A

amygdala and entorhinal cortex

these project to the hypothalamus and brainstem reticular
formation, which generate endocrine and autonomic responses to olfactory experience

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16
Q

Where does the olfactory tubercle project to? what is the subsequent pathway

A

thalamus with further projections to the insula and the

orbitofrontal cortex which underlie olfactory perception

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17
Q

What are the optic nerve fibres

A

axons of retinal ganglion cells

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18
Q

Describe the visual pathway up to the LGN

A

Optic fibres enter through optic foramen and fibres from the nasal retina decussate in the optic chiasm

optic tract leaves the chiasm to wrap around the midbrain. Main projection from here is to LGN in thalamus.
some tract projections to the pretectal region, suprachiasmatic nucleus, and a large projection to superior colliculus

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19
Q

What are the destinations of the projections from the optic tract other than the LGN

What is the role of each

A

pretectal
region in the rostral midbrain (pupil response),

the suprachiasmatic nucleus (circadian
rhythms)

a large projection to the superior colliculus (visual
reflex centre; is not involved in the
direct transmission of sensory
information.)

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20
Q

Where do visual fibres from the LGN head?

A

N pass around the
lateral ventricle in the optic radiation and terminate in the primary visual cortex of the
occipital lobe

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21
Q

How can you distinguish the primary visual cortex

A

e by a white strip that runs through the grey matter, parallel to the surface - the stria of Gennari, and is due to the dense axonal input from the thalamus to layer IV of visual cortex

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22
Q

Where are the motor neurons innervating the eye muscle located

A

in the three motor nuclei of the 3rd
(oculomotor), 4th (trochlear) and 6th (abducens) cranial nerves

“oculogyric” nuclei are located near the midline at distinctive levels in the brain stem

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23
Q

Which brain regions influence the oculogyric nuclei

A

vestibular nuclei and the superior colliculus

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24
Q

What is the medial longitudinal fasiculus

A

a bundle of fibres on either side of the midline, which extends throughout the brainstem and continues caudally into the upper cervical segments of the spinal cord.

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25
Q

What does the MLF connect? Therefore what is its function

A

connects vestibular nuclei to the motor nuclei controlling eye movements (for vestibulo-ocular
movements) and the superior colliculus to the cervical motor neurons in the upper spinal
cord controlling head movement.

co-ordinates tracking movements of the eyes and head

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26
Q

What causes nystagmus in MS

what else does this cause

A

the disease attacks MLF

damage to the MLF also causes diplopia and defects in gaze control

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27
Q

How are eye movements initiated

What is the pathway from here

A

eye fields in the cerebral cortex

These project to the superior colliculus, which embodies a
retinotopic map of visual space. Gaze centres in the reticular formation of the pons translate position into appropriate motor commands to the three oculogyric nuclei. These commands are carried in the MLF

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28
Q

How does subcortical information usually reach the cerebral cortex

A

via the thalamus

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29
Q

How is the thalamus divided

A

grey matter is divided into nuclei by layers of white matter:
3 major groups (medial, ventral and anterior nuclear groups)

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30
Q

What does the anterior thalamic nuclear group contain (3)

A

the ascending somatosensory relays (the ventroposterior part: Vp),

the relays from cerebellum and basal ganglia to primary motor cortex (via the ventrolateral part; Vl)

motor association areas (premotor cortex and supplementary motor areas - via the ventro-anterior nuclei; Va)

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31
Q

What are posterior to the Vp, Vl, and Va parts of the thalamus

A

LGN

MGN

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32
Q

Where does the anterior thalamic nuclear group project

A

to the cingulate gyrus and is probably important for perception of internal emotional state

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33
Q

Name a major input to the anterior nucleus of the thalamus

what are they important for

A

the mammillary bodies of the

hypothalamus, which are important for the formation of declarative memory.

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34
Q

What are the 2 largest nuclei of the thalamus

Where do they receive input from

A

the medial nuclei (MD) and the pulvinar (Pul) -

receive most input from the cerebral cortex itself, forming cortico-thalamo-cortical relays

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35
Q

Where do the MD and Pul of the thalamus project to

A

areas of association cortex, which do not have a simply defined unimodal input, but instead have inputs from many other areas

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36
Q

Where is the prefrontal cortex

A

in the association cortex

anterior to the motor areas
of cerebral cortex, much of which receives input from the medial nuclei

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37
Q

What does the temporal parietal occipital association cortex receive inputs from

A

Pul

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38
Q

Why is the function of the medial nuclei and pulvinar poorly understood

A

humans have comparatively large areas of association cortex, the medial nuclei and pulvinar are very large
in humans, but they cannot be studied in animals,

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39
Q

How many areas did Brodmann describe

What are they based on

A

52

cytological structure

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40
Q

Where do the following areas correspond to in Brodmann’s areas:
a)primary motor cortex
b) the premotor and supplementary motor areas
c)primary somatosensory
cortex
d) the primary visual cortex resides
e)auditory cortex

A

primary motor cortex corresponds to area
4

the premotor and supplementary motor areas to area 6;

primary somatosensory
cortex corresponds to areas 3, 1 and 2;

the primary visual cortex resides in area 17

auditory cortex in area 41

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41
Q

What are the primary cortices?

what area of the hemisphere do they take up

What is the remaining area? Is this special?

A

motor, somatic sensory, visual, auditory and olfactory

65-70 cm2 of an estimated average total of 1200 cm2

remaining 1130 cm2 comprise the so-called “association areas”: in no other species do the
association areas make up so large a proportion of the whole cortex

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42
Q

What is the uncus

A

The most anterior part of the para-hippocampal gyrus in the medial temporal lobe is called the uncus because it resembles a hook; the grey matter of the uncus is believed to be olfactory cortex

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43
Q

Where is the auditory cortex in the brain

A

On the lateral surface of the hemisphere, auditory cortex is on the superior gyrus of the temporal lobe, partly concealed in the lateral fissure.

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44
Q

Describe the layers of the cerebral neocortex

A

e found in 6 layers, stacked one upon the other running

from the surface to the depth of the cortex.

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45
Q

What does layer IV of the cerebral cortex receive input from

What does layer V do

A

layer IV receives input from the thalamus,

whilst layer V is the major output layer to subcortical structures (e.g. the pyramidal cell layer in motor cortex that forms the corticospinal tract)

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46
Q

What does layer VI of the cerebral cortex do

what about II and III

A

sends feedback to the thalamus

whilst layers II and III project to other cortical areas.

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47
Q

Is the layered arrangement of the cerebral cortex uniform?

A

The cells making up the thickness of the
cortex are not uniform; depending on their function, different regions of neocortex show
variations in the arrangements of cells and fibres, complicating the basic six-layered pattern.

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48
Q

What are the layers of the cerebral cortex (out to in)

A
molecular
outer granular
outer pyramidal
inner granular layer
inner pyramidal 
multiform
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49
Q

Describe the cells of layers I and II in the cerebral cortex

A

layer I: contains fibres running parallel to the cortical surface but very few neurons
(therefore is not visible with the Golgi or Nissl stain).

(layer II): characterised by the presence of small rounded neurons.

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50
Q

Describe the cells of layers III and IV in the cerebral cortex

A

(layer III), and contains
triangular-shaped “pyramidal” neurons (output neurons).

layer IV; neurons receiving input

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51
Q

What do layers V and VI contain of the cortex

A

(layer V; output neurons).

Layer VI :thin innermost layer with some scattered cells in it - the multiform layer

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52
Q

What are the variations on the layers in the primary sensory cortex

A

Since this area receives major thalamic inputs, the major input layer (layer IV) is
correspondingly well developed, and the “output” layers reduced

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53
Q

Which layer is particularly well developed in the human primary visual cortex

A

granular layer IV
where the afferent fibres from the lateral geniculate nucleus form a conspicuous horizontal
streak of white matter, the stria of Gennari, which can be seen in brain slices by eye.

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54
Q

What are the variations on the layers in the primary motor cortex

A

This area has an enlarged layer V, with giant pyramidal output neurons, but relatively few granule cells in layer IV.

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55
Q

Describe the layers of the association cortex briefly

A

it lacks anatomic
specialisation in any particular layer.

sometimes described as ‘homotypic’.

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56
Q

Do all parts of the cortex have 6 layers?

A

certain evolutionarily primitive parts of the cortex do not have 6 layers of cortex,
such as
the hippocampus (3 layers)
and parahippocampal gyrus and cingulate gyrus (4-5 layers).

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57
Q

What are the older 3 layers of the cortex called

A

Older 3 layered cortex is known as palaeocortex or allocortex, and intermediate 4-5
layered cortex is known as juxtallocortex.

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58
Q

What is functional in auditory processing disorders

A

the apparatus of the ear is functional but CNS deficits make auditory processing difficult

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59
Q

How can olfactory deficits occur

A

during normal aging and in certain clinical conditions (e.g. Alzheimer’s
disease).

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60
Q

Give 3 olfactory deficits

A

anosmia (inability to detect odours),

hyposmia
(decreased ability to detect odours),

dysosmia (poor identification of odour, e.g. phantosmia, or perception of smell in the absence of an odorant and agnosia, where odours
can be detected but not distinguished).

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61
Q

What is Retrosigmoid craniotomy

A

a classical surgical approach that involves removing and replacing the bone (craniotomy).

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62
Q

Where is a retrosigmoid craniotomy sited

What does it allow access to

A

posterior to the sigmoid sinus and inferior to the transverse
sinus

allows access to the lateral cerebellum and cerebellopontine angle, where cranial
nerves VII and VIII emerge

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63
Q

When is a retrosigmoid craniotomy used

A

when removing an ependymoma, a type of tumour that arises from the ependymal cells that line the ventricles

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64
Q

Give a fact about ependymoma

A

t is one of the most

common tumours in childhood, where it usually arises in the vicinity of the 4th ventricle

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65
Q

What is the prognosis for a child after they have had an ependymoma removed

A

If they are removed completely at surgery, often the tumour does not recur and no further therapy is required.

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66
Q

What are the 2 different ascending somatosensory systems from the skin

A

One carries tactile (touch) and proprioceptive sensation,

the other nociception (perceived as pain) and thermal sensation

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67
Q

Generally what part of the spinal cord carries the nociceptive and thermal sensations?

A

carried by afferents through the dorsal roots to terminate in the spinal cord dorsal horn, close to their entry.

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68
Q

After the nociceptive afferents have terminated in the spinal cord dorsal horn, what happens next

A

at least 1 synapse in superficial dorsal horn

project across spinal cord in ventral commissure to contralateral anterolateral white matter where they ascend

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69
Q

What part of the spinal cord do the nociceptive afferents ascend in

A

the contralateral anterolateral white matter

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70
Q

What is the nociceptive and thermal afferent somatosensory afferent system called?

A

anterolateral ascending system

AKA spinothalamic tract

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71
Q

How do afferents of the tactile system ascend in the spinal cord

A

enter and ascend in dorsal columns on ipsilateral side without a synaptic relay

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72
Q

The axons of the tactile system enter the spinal cord and ascend in the dorsal columns on the
ipsilateral side without a synaptic relay. Does this mean they don’t give any branches?

A

no - they do give branches to the spinal cord

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73
Q

Where do the fibres of the tactile system terminate

A

at the rostral end of the spinal cord in the gracile and cuneate nuclei (dorsal column nuclei)

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74
Q

Where do the axons from the dorsal column nuclei project to after the fibres of the tactile system have terminated here

A

axons from the nuclei cross the midline to ascend through the medial brainstem as the medial lemniscus

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75
Q

What is another name for the tactile system

A

dorsal column-medial lemniscus system

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76
Q

Where do the fast conducting fibres of the medial lemniscus project to

where next

A

thalamus

d from there third order neurons carry tactile and conscious proprioceptive
information to the somatosensory cortex in the postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe

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77
Q

Give the series involved in the spinothalamic tract

A
nociceptor/ thermal receptor->
dorsal root->
spinal cord dorsal horn ->
>1 synapse in superficial dorsal horn ->
ventral commissure->
contralateral anterolateral white matter-> ASCENT
->brainstem/thalamus
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78
Q

Give an overview of the steps in the tactile system afferents

A

axons enter and ascend in dorsal columns (no synapse) ->
gracile and cuneate nuclei ->
axons cross midline and ascend in medial lemniscus->
thalamus ->
somatosensory cortex in postcentral gyrus

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79
Q

What does the spinal cord consist of

A

a central region of nerve cells and processes (grey matter)
surrounded by bundles of mainly myelinated axons (white matter) travelling to and from the
brain, and between different spinal levels.

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80
Q

Which parts of the spinal cord have extensive grey matter

A

regions of the cord that innervate the brachial and lumbar/ sacral plexuses to the limbs, where the dorsal and ventral horns are enlarged
(associated with limb innervation).

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81
Q

If a segment of spinal cord has enlarged dorsal and ventral horns, what does this suggest

A

innervates lumbosacral or brachial plexuses

ie associated with limb innervation

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82
Q

What are the special features of the thoracic cord

A

small dorsal and ventral horns, but
has two extra cell groups not found at other levels.

intermediolateral nucleus
Clarke’s nucleus/ column

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83
Q

Describe the intermediolateral nucleus

Where is this

A

composed of sympathetic pre-ganglionic neurons, the axons of which run to the chain of sympathetic ganglia

thoracic spinal cord

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84
Q

Describe Clarke’s nucleus

Where is this found

A

AKA Clarke’s column
has relay neurons for proprioception from lower limbs

thoracic cord

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85
Q
Describe the different appearances of the spinal cord at the following levels:
cervical
thoracic/ upper lumbar
lumbosacral
lower sacral
A

Cervical level:
Large and pronounced oval shape, with thick white matter

Thoracic and upper Lumbar level:
Circular in shape, with a thin “H” profile to
the grey matter

Lumbosacral:
Circular shape, expanded grey matter, white
matter thinning out

Lower Sacral:
Circular outline, little white matter.

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86
Q

How is the white matter in the spinal cord arranged generally

A

into 3 bundles/ columns/ fasciculi: dorsal, ventral and lateral

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87
Q

How can the dorsal column of the spinal cord be further subdivided in at C and T levels

A

into a lateral cuneate and a medial gracile division carrying fibres from upper and lower limb respectively.

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88
Q

At what levels is surrounding white matter in the spinal cord thickest

why

A

cervical

all of the ascending axons have entered the cord, and few descending fibres from the brain have terminated

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89
Q

How can spinal grey matter be divided

A

into a series of layers (Rexed’s laminae)

these represent functional specialisations

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90
Q

what is the most important division of the Rexed’s laminae

What is its function

Why is it important

A

substantia gelatinosa (layer II),

a critical site for processing noxious information, and therefore a therapeutic target.

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91
Q

What over lies Rexed’s laminae

what does this contain

A

Lissauer’s tract

incoming axons carrying pain and temperature information that travel up or down the cord to an adjacent segment
before entering the dorsal horn.

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92
Q

What do they deep layers of the dorsal horn contain

A

laminae IV and V

relay neurons many with axons that cross the midline in the ventral commissure to ascend in the anterolateral column

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93
Q

What are the largest cells in the spinal cord

Where are they found in a cross section

A

motorneurons that project to muscles

ventral horn

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94
Q

Which part of the spinal cord is associated with reflex actions

A

The major region in the centre of the cord (lamina VII) contains spinal interneurons concerned with local processing (e.g. reflexes)

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95
Q

Which parts of the brainstem are important for pain and temperature sensation from the Head and neck

where are these structures prominent

A

Spinal nucleus and tract of the trigeminal nerve (V)

in the low medulla, where they are continuous with (and homologous to) the substantia gelatinosa and Lissauer’s tract of the spinal cord.

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96
Q

What is the thalamus functionally

A

the major input route to the cerebral cortex, relaying information from the
medulla, cerebellum and brain stem, and from other areas of the hemisphere

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97
Q

What are the ventral nuclei of the thalamus concerned with

A

somatosensory relay and motor coordination

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98
Q

What is the internal capsule

A

massive tract of white matter linking cortex and thalamus.

also contains descending fibres
and fibres running between the nuclei of the thalamus and between different cerebral cortical
regions.

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99
Q

Are proprioceptive sensory axons long?

A

yes

There is no synapse at the spinal level,

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100
Q

What is the sensory decussation

A

Where tactile second order neurons arising in the gracile and cuneate nuclei send their
heavily myelinated axons as a ribbon-like bundle (the medial lemniscus) across the mid-line

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101
Q

Where do second order proprioceptive neurons travel after the sensory decussation

A

to synapse on third order neurons that project to the primary somatosensory cortex via the internal capsule

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102
Q

What is the substantia gelatinosa

A

nociceptors’ principal site of termination is in this superficial part of the grey matter

it consists of
unmyelinated fibres, fine cell processes and very small cell bodies

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103
Q

Where do endogenous opioid peptides act on the nociceptor pathway

A

This first synapse for pain and temperature in the dorsal horn

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104
Q

Which side of the body do second order pain axons arise from

A

same side as stimulus

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105
Q

What happens to the primary sensory axons for pain and temperature after they enter dorsal root but before they terminate in the dorsal horn

A

primary afferents bifurcate into short ascending and descending branches that run for about a spinal segment in Lissauer’s tract and give rise to branches that enter the spinal cord dorsal horns

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106
Q

How can second order pain neurons be considered diverse

A

one group is located in lamina V of the spinal grey matter, and these also have input from the tactile system (wide dynamic range neurons).
Another group are in lamina I and these are
nociceptive specific

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107
Q

Do both groups of second order pain axons cross the midline?

A

yes
cross the midline in the ventral (anterior) commissure immediately below the central canal, and ascend contralaterally in
the anterolateral white matter – note that this is not a distinct tract

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108
Q

Describe the third order pain axons from the thalamus

A

ascend via the internal capsule to sensory processing areas of the cerebral cortex

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109
Q

Where do anterolateral system fibres terminate in the brainstem

A

especially in the reticular formation, where they influence
the level of arousal through actions on the sympathetic system (medulla) and other
ascending systems

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110
Q

Give an example of modulation of pain afferents by descending pathways from higher centres

A

the raphe nuclei embedded in the medullary reticular formation, and the periaqueductal grey of the midbrain

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111
Q

Are the tactile and nociceptor systems separated in the head and neck?

A

yes - trigeminal pain afferents turn caudally and head to the brainstem while tactile afferents terminate in chief sensory nucleus of V

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112
Q

Where does the trigeminal nerve enter the brainstem

A

at the pons

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113
Q

What do primary pain afferents from the face do after entering the pons

A

turn caudally and descend through the brainstem forming a fibre bundle, the spinal tract of V, which is prominent in the low medulla (and extends into the upper cervical spinal cord). then synapse in adjacent spinal nucleus of V in the caudal medulla

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114
Q

What colour is the spinal nucleus and what is it continuous with

A

very pale

substantia gelatinosa

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115
Q

Where do pain second order afferents from the spinal nucleus of V travel to next

A

cross the midline and ascend to the thalamus (trigeminothalamic fibres) with the anterolateral system fibres from the spinal cord.

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116
Q

Where does the pain ascending pathway from the face cross the midline

A

after leaving the spinal nucleus of V before ascending to the thalamus

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117
Q

Where do incoming tactile fibres of the face terminate

A

chief sensory nucleus of V

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118
Q

Why is the chief sensory nucleus of V hard to find on specimens

A

it is buried among pontine fibres

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119
Q

Where is the chief sensory nucleus of V

A

pons at the same level as the incoming trigeminal fibres

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120
Q

After the tactile fibres of the face reach the chief nucleus of V, where do they go

How does this differ for proprioceptive fibres from the jaw muscles?

A

From here fibres cross to join the medial
lemniscus and ascend to the thalamus.

they ascend to a small nucleus in the midbrain

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121
Q

What are the pathways historically known as “unconscious” pathways

A

project to the cerebellum , and there is a particularly heavy projection of proprioceptors
(sensory fibres from muscle and joints).

Historically these were considered not to be concerned with perception (hence they were called “unconscious” pathways) but are concerned with motor function

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122
Q

What provides the pathway from lower limb proprioceptors to the cerebellum

A

Clarke’s column

the characteristic nucleus in the dorsal horn of spinal cord in the thoracic segments,

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123
Q

Briefly how do proprioceptors from the upper limb reach the brain

A

via part of the cuneate nucleus to the cerebellum (unconscious) and thalamus/ cortex (conscious)

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124
Q

What are the signs of Brown-Sequard Syndrome

A

after spinal cord hemisection, tactile sensation from below the lesion site is lost on the same side (the dorsal columns are uncrossed), whereas
nociception and thermal sensation will be normal on the side ipsilateral to the lesion.

On the contra-lateral side, nociception and thermal sensation will be lost below the lesion, but tactile sensation will be normal

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125
Q

Lesions at which level of the ascending somatosensation pathways show separation of the 2 pathways in a similar way to Brown Sequard Syndrome?

Give an example

A

lesions at the medulla

infarction of the inferior cerebellar arteries may damage the laterally located anterolateral system, leaving the tactile system intact.

Thus a patient may sense a pin prick on the contralateral body as a gentle touch.

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126
Q
What is tabes dorsalis:
what disease 
what does it mean 
what does it affect
what is damaged
A

‘dorsal wasting’

seen in late stage cases of syphilis

affects nervous system

causes degeneration of central projections from dorsal root ganglia

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127
Q

Which dorsal root ganglia are especially affected by tabes dorsalis

A

fasciculus gracilis

fasciculus cuneatus

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128
Q

What do ventral commissure axons do

What are they vulnerable to

A

carry pain and temperature information

vulnerable in expansion of the central canal in the disease syringomyelia.

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129
Q

What are spinal dural arteriovenous fistulae

A

rare vascular malformations which are a consequence of an abnormal connection between a meningeal branch of a segmental artery (which normally constitutes the vascular supply of the spinal dura) and an intradural
radiculomedullary vein

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130
Q

What is usually responsible for segmental venous drainage of the spine

A

intradural radiculomedullary vein

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131
Q

What does a spinal dural arteriovenous fistula do

A

causes high pressure blood to flow retrograde into the coronal venous plexus of
the spinal cord causing venous congestion. This causes oedema and injury to the spinal cord.

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132
Q

How do spinal dural arteriovenous fistulae typically present?

A

sensory disturbances due to their

dorsal location but if untreated they progress to cause motor weakness

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133
Q

How do you treat a spinal dural arteriovenous fistula

A

dividing the abnormal connection inside the dura

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134
Q

Where can the spinal dural fistula be found in treatment

A

dural sleeve covering the nerve root where an abnormal vein with arterialised blood can be found. The dural sleeve with the nerve root inside constitutes the spinal nerve which can be found exiting the neural foramen just inferior to the place where the vertebral lamina connects to the vertebral body, i.e. the pedicle.

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135
Q

Name 3 prominent motor structures on the ventral surface of the brainstem

A

the cerebral peduncles,
medullary pyramids,
inferior olivary nuclei

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136
Q

How does the cerebellum connect with other motor structures

A

cerebellar peduncles

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137
Q

What is the principal route through which the brain addresses the spinal cord

A

corticospinal tract

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138
Q

Where do the motor areas of the cerebrum

A

frontal lobes (anterior to the central sulcus)

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139
Q

Which neurons form the corticospinal tract

describe the path of these fibres

A

pyramidal neurons in layer V

run in the internal capsule of the forebrain, which becomes the cerebral peduncles in the midbrain, which pass through the pons, then emerge caudally as the medullary pyramids in
the ventral medulla.

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140
Q

How do corticobulbar fibres travel

A

travel with the pyramidal neurons of layer V then leave the pathway to innervate motor cranial nerves ( V, VII, IX, X, XI, XII (not those controlling eye
movements))

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141
Q

Do the corticospinal fibres cross the midline

A

most do and continue as the lateral corticospinal tract

uncrossed fibres remain as the ventral corticospinal tract

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142
Q

How big is the human corticospinal tract

A

> 1 million fibres enter on either side

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143
Q

Where is the major representation of motor function in the brain

Where is it

A

Primary motor cortex
(Brodmann’s area 4, also called M1),

immediately anterior to the central sulcus

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144
Q

What are the 2 other key motor areas in the brain, other than M1

Where are they in relation to M1

What are other motor structures in the brain that have been found

A

‘Premotor cortex’ and the ‘Supplementary motor areas’ (both parts of Brodmann’s area 6)

anterior to M1

‘cingluate’ motor areas

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145
Q

What does damage to the following result in

a) M1
b) premotor cortex
c) supplementary motor areas

A

a) paralysis

b and c) complex deficits, in which movements are poorly prepared or planned

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146
Q

What two features distinguish

the histological structure of the primary motor cortex from other areas?

A

(i) layer V contains a population of “giant” pyramidal
neurons. These cells are only found in primary motor cortex and are among the largest cells (giving rise to the fastest conducting axons) in the brain.

(ii) The motor cortex is the thickest area of cortex, yet contains few small rounded cells (granule cells). The motor cortex is therefore sometimes called ‘agranular cortex’.

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147
Q

On which prosections can cerebral peduncles be seen

A

brainstem prosections and in cross-sections through the upper and lower midbrain

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148
Q

do all the cortical fibres in the pons just pass through

A

some pass through (the corticospinal and corticobulbar fibres), others terminate in the pons (corticopontine)

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149
Q

Where do the corticospinal fibres emerge from in the medulla?
What happens to them here

A

emerge from the pons as the prominent medullary pyramids,

decussate as the fibres descend into the spinal cord

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150
Q

What demarkates the boundary between the medulla and spinal cord

A

motor decussation

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151
Q

What does ‘bulb’ refer to in the ‘corticobulbar’

A

motor nuclei in the medulla/ ‘bulb’

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152
Q

Which head muscles are not innervated directly by the corticobulbar fibres?

Why?

A

the oculomotor nuclei (III, IV & VI) are not directly innervated by the corticospinal
tract: the eyes need to move consensually (together) and are controlled by brainstem
structures

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153
Q

What is a distinctive feature of the ventral medulla

what are they associated with

A

inferior olives

associated with climbing fibre input to the cerebellum

154
Q

Most mammals lack the corticomotorneuronal connections present in humans. what do they have instead?

A

The great majority of corticospinal fibres travelling in the lateral and ventral corticospinal tracts terminate on spinal interneurons in the spinal grey matter, where they can influence both motor and sensory information processing. In most mammals (e.g. cats, dogs, rodents) this pathway through spinal interneurons is the major pathway through which movement is controlled.

in some primates this pathway exists in parallel to the cortico-motorneuronal pathway

155
Q

What is the cortico-motorneuronal pathway especially important for

A

distal muscle control (eg control of intrinsic hand and foot muscles)

underlies manual dexterity

156
Q

What happens to the myelin of degenerate fibres

What does this mean for their microscopic appearance

A

degenerated fibres demyelinate so they appear pale in comparison to the heavily myelinated dark staining fibres

157
Q

What are the descending motor systems (5)

A

corticospinal and corticobulbar pathways

vestibulospinal tracts

reticulospinal fibres

rubrospinal tract

158
Q

Why are the vestibulospinal tracts, reticulospinal fibres, rubrospinal tract hard to find

A

fibres are smaller and less obvious anatomically, having fibres that mingle with ascending and other descending or propriospinal fibres in the spinal cord white matter.

159
Q

Where in the spinal cord is the vestibulospinal tract found

Where do the fibres of this tract arise

A

ventral columns of the spinal cord

in the vestibular nuclei in the dorsal medulla

160
Q

What is the vestibulospinal tract mainly concerned with (3)

A

extensor (antigravity) limb muscles and proximal muscles (neck and trunk) and is involved in maintaining posture and equilibrium.

161
Q

where do the reticulospinal fibres originate

A

from many cell groups in the reticular formation of the pons and medulla.

162
Q

What is the reticular formation

A

a poorly understood but extensive region
of grey matter extending through the core of the brainstem from spinal cord to
medulla

163
Q

Describe the descending motor fibres from the reticular formation

A

fast conducting and project throughout the length of the spinal cord.

These pathways are important for posture and for coordinated body movement (e.g.
locomotion, reaching)

164
Q

Describe the red nucleus in humans

input and output

A

large but has few (if any) fibres that descend to the spinal cord.

inputs from the cerebellar nuclei and the motor areas of the cerebral cortex

output is
mainly to the inferior olivary nucleus

165
Q

What is the function of the red nucleus thought to be in humans

A

motor skills learning

166
Q

What is the cerebellum involved in in the motor system

A

eedforward motor control, in predicting commands for future movements.

167
Q

Which brain structure allows us to automatically shift our eyes to allow us to read effectively

A

cerebellum

168
Q

Describe the structure of the cerebellar cortex

A

forms large numbers of folia (folds). Cerebellar cortex is much thinner than the cerebral cortex, so the folds are smaller and more tightly packed.

• midline -the vermis
• Large lateral masses (the cerebellar hemispheres)
• On the ventral aspect of the brain, the hemisphere is connected to the pons by the large middle cerebellar peduncle, containing fibres originating from the pons projecting into the cerebellum.
• On the ventral aspect of the cerebellum, in the cerebello-pontine angle, is a very
small, semi-detached part of cerebellar cortex called the flocculus
• On each side, small parts of the cerebellar cortex ‘overhang’ the dorso-lateral aspect
of the medulla. This part is called the tonsil.

169
Q

What is the flocculus (3)

A

a very small, semi-detached part of cerebellar cortex in the cerebello-pontine angle

concerned with vestibular function

The facial and vestibulocochlear nerves enter the brain at this
location

170
Q

What is the clinical importance of the cerebellar tonsil

A

due to its proximity to the medulla and foramen magnum, coning can occur

171
Q

What is coning

A

in patients with raised intracranial pressure there is risk of the tonsils collapsing into the foramen magnum if CSF is withdrawn by lumbar puncture, resulting in pressure on the brainstem and sudden death due to pressure on the “vital centres” for respiratory and autonomic control in the medulla

172
Q

How is coning avoided

A

Lumbar puncture is usually contra-indicated in a
patient with symptoms and signs suggestive of raised intra-cranial pressure (e.g.
papilloedema, swelling of the optic nerve head).

173
Q

Which other brain structures does the cerebellar cortex connect to directly

A

none

All of the cortical output is directed to a group of nuclei buried below the cortical folds, the deep cerebellar nuclei

174
Q

True or false

cerebellar cortical output is inhibitory

A

true

175
Q

What are the true deep nuclei of the cerebellum (3 on each side)

A

the dentate nucleus, the nucleus interpositus (globose and emboliform), and the fastigial nucleus

176
Q

Which areas of the cerebellar cortex don’t send output via the the dentate nucleus, the nucleus interpositus, or the fastigial nucleus

Why does this still make sense

A

(the flocculus, and the buried flocculonodular lobe) send outputs to the vestibular nuclei in the medulla

(the evolutionary origin of the deep cerebellar nuclei is from the vestibular
nuclei).

177
Q

Where is the output of the deep cerebellar nuclei to

A
projections to brainstem descending motor pathways, and mostly to the motor areas of
cerebral cortex (via the thalamus).
178
Q

What is the largest deep cerebellar nucleus

A

dentate
also most important

it is most likely the only one you can see

179
Q

How does the dentate nucleus appear in a cross section

A

as a convoluted line of grey matter within the white matter.

180
Q

What connects the cerebellum to the brainstem on each side

What is the output of each

A
the small inferior
cerebellar peduncle (from the medulla); 

the large middle cerebellar peduncle (from the
pons)

the superior cerebellar peduncle (deep nuclear output).

181
Q

Which of the cerebellar peduncles is largest

what does this reflect

A

middle

the enormous traffic between cerebral cortex and cerebellum via the pons

182
Q

What is the superior cerebellar peduncle important for

How can it be seen on a section

A

major output pathway from
the deep nuclei (mainly the dentate nucleus in humans)

is obvious dorsally in the pons, and where it crosses the midline decussates in the low mid brain

183
Q

Where do the fibres from the superior cerebellar peduncle travel

A

through and to the red nucleus
and then to the motor parts of the thalamus (ventrolateral nucleus, projecting to primary motor
cortex; ventroanterior nucleus, to the premotor and supplementary motor areas)

184
Q

What separates the superior cerebellar peduncles

what does this form

A

A thin plate of tissue bridges the gap between the superior peduncles on either side, so forming the roof of the rostral part of the fourth ventricle.

185
Q

Where are the inputs to the cerebellum from

A

via pons and inferior olive

186
Q

How do neurons from the cerebral cortex reach the cerebellum

A

pass through the internal capsule and cerebral peduncles to terminate ipsilaterally on neurons in the pons; these neurons send their axons across the midline through the middle cerebellar peduncle, to the contralateral cerebellum, as mossy fibres

187
Q

Which cell type is the major input for the cerebellum

A

mosst

188
Q

What does the difference between the size of the cerebral peduncles of the midbrain and pyramids of the medulla indicate

A

the number of fibres that terminate in the pons

189
Q

Where do fibres that end in the pons originate from?

A

many cerebral cortical areas, especially sensory and sensory association areas (including many
visual, tactile and auditory related fibres)

190
Q

How does information reach the cerebellum via the ascending spinocerebellar mossy fibres (uncrossed)

Give an example of fibres that do this

A

through the smaller inferior cerebellar
peduncle; many of these carry somatosensory information, for example from proprioceptors
(Clarke’s nucleus)

191
Q

What forms the climbing fibre input to the cerebellum

A

Fibres from the inferior olive in the medulla

via the inferior cerebellar peduncle.

192
Q

What are climbing fibres important for

A

learning, they are thought to mediate plasticity in the mossy fibre - granule cell – Purkinje cell pathway that refines the cerebellar processing to generate and coordinate movement.

193
Q

Where do outputs from the deep cerebellar nuclei travel

A

leave in the superior cerebellar peduncle, enter the lower midbrain where they cross the midline, pass through and around the red nucleus in the upper midbrain and ascend to terminate in the parts of the thalamus concerned with motor function.

194
Q

Does the cerebellum represent contra or ipsilateral movement

(think about jellicent)

A

As the cerebral cortex represents contralateral body sensation and movement, the cerebellum represents ipsilateral movement and sensation (thus contralateral connections with the cerebral cortex)

195
Q

How many layers does the cerebellum have

A

3

196
Q

What are the 3 layers of the cerebellum

from out to in

A

molecular layer
Purkinje cell layer
granular

197
Q

Describe the molecular layer of the cerebellar cortex

A

a low cell density

consists mainly of the thin axons of granule cells (parallel fibres) which run parallel to the folia and cell dendrites.

198
Q

Describe the Purkinje layer of the cerebellum (2)

A

a single cell thick and

the Purkinje cells are large enough to be visible under a low power microscope

199
Q

Describe the granular layer of the cerebellum

A

innermost layer

containing vast numbers of small granule cells.

200
Q

What lies beneath the layers of the cerebellar cortex

A

the cerebellar white matter containing fibres running to and from the cerebellar cortex

201
Q

What is the function of cerebellar Purkinje cells

A

cerebellar output

202
Q

Describe the structure and arrangement of Purkinje cells (3)

A

extensive dendrites that form a planar sheet.

They lie in a plane at right angles to the long axis of the folia.

The fibres of the molecular layer run parallel to the long axis of the folia, and thus intersect the Purkinje cell dendrites at right angles, which they make synapses on dendritic spines as they pass.

203
Q

What does the arrangement of the Purkinje and parallel fibres in the cerebellar cortex allow (2)

A

allows each parallel fibre to contact many Purkinje cells along a single folium

allows each Purkinje cell to receive synaptic contacts from an enormous number of parallel fibres (~ 250,000).

204
Q

Which are the only cerebellar cortical cells that send their axons out of the cortex

What do they do

A

Purkinje

inhibit cells in the deep cerebellar nuclei (GABA)

205
Q

Describe histological staining of Purkinje cells

A

stained by the Golgi method (based on silver impregnation)
which selects only some neurons (and glia) but stains them in their entirety,

shows their
dendritic arborization particularly well.

206
Q

What can a stroke above the motor decussation cause

A

contralateral weakness (hemiparesis).

More severe strokes will give contralateral paralysis (hemiplegia)

207
Q

What are upper and lower motor neurons

What do upper motor lesions usually involve

A

upper motor neurons (corticospinal or corticobulbar fibres),

lower motor neurons (spinal motoneurons)

motor cortex or its output

208
Q

Where do upper motor lesions usually occur

What are their signs

give 3 causes

A

above the pyramidal decussation

produce contralateral signs.

Strokes, cerebral palsy and multiple sclerosis

209
Q

What can cause lower motor lesions

A

eg polio

210
Q

What do upper motor lesions result in (4)

A

s involve an immediate flaccid paralysis, which gradually becomes
spastic with hyperreflexia,

clonus

a positive Babinski sign: voluntary movement is impaired, but reflex muscle contraction remains.

211
Q

What do lower motor lesion usually result in

A

muscular weakness, flaccid paralysis, muscle wasting and areflexia.

212
Q

True or false
there is a substantial number of corticospinal fibres in humans that descend ipsilaterally, so some ipsilateral limb control is possible

A

false
Although a substantial number do descend ipsilaterally in the ventral spinal cord, there is little evidence that these can contribute to ipsilateral limb function, particularly of the hands: they either cross the midline before terminating, or they control axial (limb girdle and trunk) muscles

213
Q

Can the ispilateral descending motor fibres in the spinal cord rearrange after a stroke

A

no
cannot reorganise to allow recovery of function in adults or in children over a few months old (although they can do so following damage prenatally or in early neonatal life –
an example of developmental windows for plasticity).

214
Q

What are arteriovenous malformations

Why are they dangerous

what is the treatment

A

congenital vascular anomalies consisting of direct arterial to venous connections (‘fistulas’) without an intervening capillary bed and can occur
in the brain and spinal cord

have a propensity to bleeding.

Treatment to prevent future haemorrhage can involve surgical resection, focused radiotherapy, or
endovascular embolization.

215
Q

Give 3 other names for a cavernoma

A

Cavernous Malformation,
Cavernous Angioma,
Cavernous Haemangiomas

216
Q

What are cavernomas

Where do they occur and is there a genetic factor

are they more dangerous than an AVM?

A

composed of thin dilated vascular channels that do not have a feeding artery and therefore do not appear on angiograms

They can occur in the brain or spinal cord and are familial in a proportion of cases.

The risk of bleeding is usually lower than AVMs but if multiple haemorrhages occur then surgical resection is considered

217
Q

Describe the effects of a unilateral stroke on the face (not facial nerve)

why is this

A

complete jaw and tongue paralysis does not follow a unilateral stroke, although movements will be weaker on the affected side (opposite to the side of the brain affected by stroke)

Corticobulbar fibres to some motor nuclei provide bilateral innervation, (e.g. nerves V and XII)

218
Q

What often causes a lopsided tongue

A

Damage to the corticospinal innervation of the hypoglossal nucleus

219
Q

How does the innervation of the upper and lower face differ

What does this mean for a stroke

A

the motor nuclei of the branches of the facial nerve (VII) to the upper facial muscles are also bilaterally innervated by the cortex. On the other hand, the motor nuclei of the
branches of the facial nerve to the lower facial muscles are unilaterally innervated, and these may be completely paralysed after a stroke

stroke frequently produces a contralateral lower facial paralysis (loss of ability to smile or make expressions with the mouth), while the upper face retains some function through intact ipsilateral projections from motor cortex.

220
Q

What is ataxia

A

(“bad movement”): movement becomes clumsy and uncoordinated, speech may become slurred

221
Q

What types of movement make ataxia very obvious

This usually occurs after damage to the cerebellum. What do these symptoms indicate about cerebellar function?

A

n large movements such as reaching and pointing
where poor scaling of movement is a problem (over- or under-reaching, inaccuracy, jerkiness).

the cerebellum contributes to pre-programmed movement, where the current state of the body and information from sensory systems must be taken into account to allow plans for future movement.

222
Q

What does the cerebellum represent for the motor system as a whole

A

behaves as a ‘model’ system,

allowing the future outcome of a given situation (sensory signals indicating a future event, or a motor command for movement) to be predicted, and therefore for appropriate preparation be made

223
Q

What does ‘basal ganglia’ usually refer to

A

a functional system of forebrain and midbrain structures including the large nucleus called the neostriatum (composed of caudate nucleus and putamen) and the globus pallidus

224
Q

What is the neostriatum often referred to as

Where does the name come from

A

striatum

originates from the appearance of the grey matter of the nuclei that is “striated” by the fibre bundles of the internal capsule which pass through

225
Q

What is the relation of the internal capsule to the caudate and putamen

A

completely separates these posteriorly

226
Q

As a guide, where can the caudate nucleus always be found

A

follows the course of the lateral ventricles, and so it can
always be located in the wall of the anterior horn, body and inferior horn of the lateral
ventricle

227
Q

Where is the putamen nucleus found

A

teral to the internal capsule, medial to the insula (‘buried cortex’)

228
Q

Name 3 structures functionally linked to the striatum and globus pallidus

A

nuclei of the diencephalon, the thalamus and the subthalamic nucleus, and a nucleus in the midbrain, the
substantia nigra

229
Q

What are the 2 major divisions of the substantia nigra

A

a dopaminergic component (‘pars compacta’), which innervates the neostriatum, and a nondopaminergic component (‘pars reticulata’)

230
Q

How do the relations of the caudate and putamen change as they pass from posteriorly

where do the globus pallidus and thalamus appear

A

caudate and putamen are continuous ventrally and anteriorly in the forebrain, but then the internal capsule penetrates and separates them more posteriorly

Caudate has a large ‘head’ anteriorly

globus pallidus appears more posteriorly, medial to the putamen. The thalamus also appears in more posterior sections, on either side of the third ventricle.

231
Q

Where does input to the caudate and putamen come from

A

all areas of the cerebral cortex, with particularly prominent projections from the prefrontal cortex to the caudate and from the sensorimotor cortex to the putamen

232
Q

Where do the putamen and caudate join

A

antero-ventrally where the anterior limb of the internal capsule peters out and no longer separates the nuclei.
They are in fact a single structure that has been split during development by the growth of the internal capsule.

233
Q

What is the shape of the caudate nucleus

A

tadpole-shaped mass of grey matter with a large head in the lateral wall of the anterior horn of the lateral ventricle, a narrow body in the lateral wall of the middle part of the lateral ventricle, and a narrow flat tail curling with the lateral ventricle into the roof of the inferior horn

234
Q

What forms the ventral striatum

What does it contain

A

The ventral-anterior part of the caudate-putamen that is still joined

nucleus accumbens

235
Q

Where is output from the neostriatum directed principally

A

to the globus pallidus and to the substantia nigra of the midbrain.

236
Q

What are the 2 divisions of the globus pallidus

what is the in/output of each

A

Fibres from the neostriatum terminate in both divisions;

the internal segment forms the major output pathway of the basal ganglia, to the motor areas of the thalamus (ventro-anterior and ventro-lateral) and the medial nucleus of the thalamus.

The external segment of the globus pallidus sends its projection to the subthalamic nucleus, which sends a return projection to the internal segment of the globus pallidus

237
Q

What does the pars compacta look like

A

in fresh and fixed tissue it appears as the dark pigmented area in the midbrain, next to the cerebral peduncles. In a cross section through the midbrain, where myelin has been stained, it appears as a lighter area

238
Q

Where is the subthalamic nucleus

A

lies at a similar cross-sectional location to the substantia nigra, but at the junction of the midbrain and diencephalon

very hard to find

239
Q

What is the in/output of the subthalamic nucleus

Why is it well placed for its role

A

receives input from the external
segment of the globus pallidus and projects to internal globus pallidus.

It is therefore well
placed to regulate the output of the entire striatum.

240
Q

True or false

the caudate and putament both project to and receive input from the substantia nigra

A

true
Both caudate and putamen project to the substantia nigra pars compacta (which contains the dopaminergic neurons) and pars reticulata (output for basal ganglia in the control of eye movements). In turn they receive dopaminergic innervation from the substantia nigra pars compacta

241
Q

What are the effects of DA loss on the different parts of the globus pallidus

A

excess inhibition in the external globus pallidus and reduced inhibition in the internal globus pallidus

final outcome of these alterations is the same: excess inhibition in the thalamus, leading to reduced motor cortex activity and, as a consequence, reduced movement.

242
Q

Which of the basal ganglia’s outputs are involved in complex executive functions

A

medial dorsal nucleus of the thalamus, which in turn projects to the prefrontal cortex

243
Q

What are the 3 mains types of fibre on the internal capsule

A

Efferent corticobulbar and cortico-spinal fibres
Efferent corticopontine fibres
Afferent thalamocortical fibres

244
Q

Where do efferent corticobulbar and cortico-spinal fibres in the internal capsule begin and end

Where do they lie within the capsule

A

originate primarily from the motor areas of the cerebral cortex. Within the internal capsule, the corticobulbar fibres (to the medulla, controlling head and neck muscles) and the corticospinal fibres lie close to the genu (“bend”).

245
Q

Which part of the internal capsule is affect by middle cerebral artery stroke or haemorrhage

A

the genu

246
Q

Where do efferent corticopontine fibres in the internal capsule begin and end

A

from all lobes of the cerebral cortex, destined for the pons. In turn the neurons in the pontine nuclei project on to the cerebellum

247
Q

Which structure reflects the importance of intercommunication between the cerebral cortex and cerebellum in humans

A

the large size of the pons and corticopontine pathway

248
Q

Where do afferent thalamocortical fibres ascend from

Give an example of how specific groups of thalamocortical fibres can be seen

A

various thalamic nuclei to the cerebral cortex

the lateral geniculate body of the thalamus gives rise to a bundle of large, fastconducting fibres which run around the lateral ventricle and then posteriorly to the visual cortex as the ‘optic radiation’
A parallel ‘auditory radiation’ arises from the
medial geniculate nucleus

These may be visible on some of the horizontal
sections.

249
Q

What is the striatum and internal capsule supplied by

A

small arteries originating from the middle and anterior cerebral arteries (effectively end arteries).
Some of the most important vessels arise from the middle cerebral artery and are termed ‘striate arteries

250
Q

What are pyramidal disorders

A

The consequences of damage to the striatum are often referred to in textbooks and in clinical practice as extrapyramidal disorders, whereas those of internal capsule or motor cortex damage are pyramidal.

it is a misleading term

251
Q

What are the symptoms of Parkinson’s

A

slowness in the execution of movement, rigidity and tremor (although the latter appears less related to dopaminergic pathology).

252
Q

What causes Huntington’s chorea

what does it result in

A

in part due to death of cells in the neostriatum,

spontaneous
unnecessary and unwanted complex limb movements are produced (almost the converse of
Parkinsonism).

253
Q

What do lesions of the subthalamic nucleus lead to

A

hemiballismus, a violent disorder in which flailing limb movements are produced

254
Q

What is deep brain stimulation

A

a surgical procedure that involves placing electrodes in
selected deep nuclei of the brain, usually (although not exclusively) to target movement
disorders such as Parkinson’s disease.

255
Q

What are the nuclei usually targetted in DBS

what is the aim

A

subthalamic nucleus, globus pallidus interna, ventral anterior thalamus, and pedunculopontine nucleus

to disrupt pathological patterns of neural activity that develop (e.g. in Parkinsonism)

256
Q

What is ETV

A

Endoscopic third ventriculostomy

a surgical procedure that involves an endoscope first through the frontal lobe into the lateral ventricle, then through the foramen of Munro into the third ventricle. At this point it makes a hole (‘ventriculostomy’) in the floor of the third ventricle to allow CSF to pass from the ventricle into the subarachnoid space and then onwards to be absorbed

257
Q

What does ETV alllow

A

diversion of CSF from any blockage downstream of the third ventricle, such as from a tumour obstructing the aqueduct of Sylvius, and therefore preventing CSF build up (‘hydrocephalus’) with potentially raised intracranial pressure.

258
Q

What can haemorrhage from the striate branches of the middle cerebral artery, or blockage of them by thrombosis or embolism lead to

A

causes a virtually complete vascular deprivation (and therefore
death) of a corresponding part of the striatum and internal capsule: a paralytic ‘stroke’.

Damage to the internal capsule will lead to weakness or paralysis of the opposite side of the body (contralateral hemiparesis or hemiplegia). The region of the internal capsule that is most commonly affected is the genu, where corticospinal fibres to the head, neck & part of the upper limb are located.

259
Q

What are prefrontal and limbic association areas of cortex essential for (4)

A

cognitive processes such as self-awareness, foresight, abstract reasoning, planning capacity, and complex emotional behaviour

260
Q

Which pair of structures form a rim of ‘old cortex’

what are these structures involved in

A

The cingulate and parahippocampal gyri form a rim of ‘old’ cortex on the medial wall of the hemisphere

mixture of functions including olfaction, recognition memory and emotion.

261
Q

Where can the cingulate and parahippocampal gyri be found

what happens if there is dysfunction of the cingulate cortex

A

they form a rim of ‘old’ cortex on the medial wall of the hemisphere

contributes to certain psychiatric illnesses (e.g. schizophrenia and depression)

262
Q

What is the hippocampal formation important for

what does this structure comprise

A

declarative memory

Cornus Ammonis regions 1, 2 and 3,
the dentate gyrus
the subiculum.

263
Q

Describe Cornus Ammonis regions 1, 2, and 3 together with the dentate gyrus

A

they are primitive 3 layered cortex (thinner than the 6 layered neocortex) folded into the medial temporal lobe in the inferior horn of the lateral ventricle

264
Q

Which disease is considered to begin in the hippocampus

A

Alzheimer’s

265
Q

Where/what is the amygdala

what is it well connected to (3)

A

a subcortical nucleus in the medial temporal lobe that is well connected with the orbitofrontal cortex, the hypothalamus and the nucleus accumbens

266
Q

What are the 4 important chemical pathways in the brain

what are they important for

A

acetylcholine, dopamine, noradrenaline and serotonin

have widespread effects on mood and arousal

267
Q

Briefly compare the defined morphology of the primary motor cortex to that of the primary visual cortex

A

primary motor cortex is agranular but has large layer V pyramidal neurons, which form the corticospinal tract axons,
whereas primary visual cortex has a complex layer IV, which receives thalamic input.

268
Q

How do primary cortical areas differ from association areas

A

primary areas of cerebral cortex are cortical areas with a dedicated function relating to one specific modality

association areas of cortex are not focussed on one specific function but allow different types of information to be processed, or associated together

269
Q

What do ‘secondary’ cortical areas (eg V2) allow

A

allow for different components of a single modality to be processed together

270
Q

What do higher association areas of cortex allow

A

enable more complex processing; for example, different types of sensory modality (auditory, visual and somatosensory) can be combined in the parietal-temporal-occipital area

271
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area

what is this important for

A

in the Parietal-temporal-occipital association cortex

speech comprehension (in the left hemisphere for most humans) and lesions here result in the language deficit, ‘Wernicke’s aphasia’

272
Q

Where is Broca’s area

what is this area important for

A

in the premotor association cortex, adjacent to the premotor cortex (usually left hemisphere)

speech production (lesions lead to Broca’s aphasia)

273
Q

Where is the cingulate gyrus in relation to corpus callosum

A

The cingulate gyrus lies above the corpus callosum

Posteriorly, it continues round the callosum and downwards to become continuous with a strip of cortex lying on the most medial part of the temporal lobe, the parahippocampal gyrus.

274
Q

Which parts of the cingulate and parahippocampal gyri are involved in the following:
olfaction
recognition memory
emotion

A

olfaction: anterior part of parahippocampal gyrus

recognition memory: posterior part of parahippocampal gyrus – entorhinal cortex

emotion: anterior cingulate gyrus

275
Q

Where is the subgenual cortex

what is deep brain stimulation of this cortex used for

A

below the genu of the corpus callosum (it is part of the cingulate gyrus)

used to treat intractable (treatment resistant) depression

276
Q

Where do output fibres from the cingulate gyrus run

A

mostly to the parahippocampal gyrus.

277
Q

What is the principal tract connecting the cingulate and parahippocampal gyri

A

the cingulum

A large association tract (white matter bundle) running below the surface of the cingulate cortex

278
Q

What are the 2 regions of the parahippocampal gyrus

name some things included in each region

A

anterior region: pyriform cortex (a.k.a. uncus) and primary olfactory cortex

posterior region: entorhinal cortex

279
Q

What is the entorhinal cortex involved in

what are some key inputs

A

involved in recognition memory

receives large projections from the cerebral cortex, particularly from those areas dealing with highly processed sensory information (parietal-temporal-occipital cortex)

280
Q

Give an example to damage to a sub-region in the prefrontal cortex which demonstrates its specialised role

A

damage to the ventrolateral prefrontal cortex is associated with ‘attentional control’

281
Q

What part of the brain is the orbitofrontal cortex part of

A

prefrontal cortex

can be found on the ventral surface of the frontal lobes (lying above the orbit)

282
Q

Why is the orbitofrontal cortex famous

A

it was the area most severely damaged in the brain of Phineas Gage, after his railroad accident.

Damage to this structure is associated with profound alterations in emotional and social behaviour.

283
Q

Where does input to the orbitofrontal cortex come from (4)

outputs?

what does it have particularly close connections to (4)

A

from all neocortical association areas as well as the hippocampus, amygdala and hypothalamus.

sends projections to all areas that it receives from

close connections with the cingulate cortex, amygdala and hypothalamus. One of its main output pathways is the nucleus accumbens

284
Q

How can the orbitofrontal cortex influence action

A

via one of its main output pathway in the nucleus accumbens

285
Q

What is the fimbria in the brain (2)

A

a strip of white matter lying on the surface of the hippocampus

one of the output tracts of the hippocampal formation

286
Q

What are the 2 key output tracts of the hippocampal formation

A

fimbria

subiculum

287
Q

Where is the subiculum an output tract from to

A

from hippocampal formation to the overlying cortex

288
Q

describe the course of the fimbria

A

The fimbria forms the fornix on each side; these leave the temporal lobes and merge to form one fornix that follows the inferior aspect of the corpus callosum, towards the hypothalamus

289
Q

What is the subiculum

A

the cortex between the parahippocampal gyrus and the hippocampus

290
Q

true or false
the parahippocampal gyrus, subiculum and hippocampus,
dentate gyrus are continuous with each other

A

true

they represent a single sheet of cortex folded into the inferior horn

291
Q

What type of memory is the hippocampal formation thought to be involved in

A

episodic memory

292
Q

Which brain region has recently been implicated in social memory in animals.

A

CA2

293
Q

What is the hippocampus vulnerable to particularly (3)

A

highly vulnerable to damage e.g. due to hypoxia.

Alzheimer’s disease may start here.

It is also very sensitive to corticoids (e.g. cortisol) and thus to stress.

294
Q

The major input into the hippocampal formation is from the parahippocampal gyrus (entorhinal cortex). What information is it thought to carry?

A

carries information originating in neocortex, especially from sensory association areas, thought to reflect recognition

295
Q

What is the destination of information passing from the hippocampal formation via the fimbria-fornix

A

the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and parts of the thalamus (diencephalic memory system)

296
Q

Where does the fornix run importantly and what does this allow

how does it then pass

A

runs into the median plane at its highest point and fibres are exchanged between the two sides in the fornical commissure (which you won’t see) linking the two hippocampi

Running forwards and then down, the fornix curves away from the callosum to split on the anterior commissure.
The post-commissural part runs to the mammillary body

297
Q

What type of circuitry exists in the hippocampus

A

a classic trisynaptic loop circuitry

298
Q

describe the classic trisynaptic loop circuitry within the hippocampus

A

many inputs reach the hippocampus through the perforant pathway from the entorhinal cortex (1)

which makes synapses with the dendrites of the dentate gyrus granule cells and also with the apical dendrites of the CA3 pyramidal cells. The dentate granule cells project via mossy fibres (2)

to the CA3 pyramidal cells. The CA3 pyramidal cells project via the Schaffer collaterals (3)

to the CA1 pyramidal cells, which in turn have connections (4) with the subiculum.

299
Q

What is the output from the trisynaptic loop of the hippocampus

A

from CA3 pyramidal cells which project through the
fimbria/fornix to the hypothalamus.

The subiculum also projects through the fimbria/fornix to the hypothalamus, as well as back to the entorhinal cortex.

300
Q

What does amygdala mean

A

almond

301
Q

What/ where is the amygdala

A

a subcortical mass of grey matter which lies deep to the primary olfactory cortex of the uncus at the temporal pole

302
Q

Which sections should you take to see the amygdala

A

coronal brain slices or in MRIs taken at the levels of the hypothalamus and anterior temporal lobe

303
Q

What borders the hypothalamus anteriorly and posteriorly

how can it usually be seen

A

ant: optic chiasm
post: mammary bodies

Usually the infundibulum (pituitary stalk) is visible between these two ventral surface landmarks

304
Q

Where is the hypothalamus located within the diencephalon

A

located inferior to and a little anterior to the thalamus

305
Q

When viewing the hypothalamus in coronal section, what is also visible

A

third ventricle will be visible on the midline

306
Q

What brin structure is the nucleus accumbens conventionally part of

however what else is it related to

A

striatum

has close anatomical and functional links with the amygdala

(also has anatomical relation to the caudate and putamen, and to the anterior limb of the internal capsule)

307
Q

Name 3 places which give extensive input to the nucleus accumbens

A

from the orbitofrontal cortex, cingulate cortex and

from the amygdala.

308
Q

What behaviours is the nucleus accumbens functionally concerned with

A

emotional and motivated behaviours

309
Q

Name 2 psychiatric problems assocaited with the nucleus accumbens

A

schizophrenia

addiction

310
Q

Describe the cholinergic system in the brain

geography, function, clinical

A

forebrain system

arises close to the septal nuclei and basal forebrain and projects throughout the cortex.

has been associated with learning and memory,

cholinergic deficits have been implicated in Alzheimer’s disease

311
Q

Describe the dopaminergic system in the brain

geography, function, clinical

A

midbrain system

(i) Substantia nigra, which projects into the ‘motor’ loops of the basal ganglia,
essential for the initiation of movement
(degeneration in this system is known to contribute to the core symptoms of Parkinson’s disease)

(ii) Ventral tegmental area, which projects to the nucleus accumbens where it is thought to be involved in motivation, and may be an important substrate for the actions of drugs of abuse.

312
Q

Describe the NA system in the brain

geography, function

A

midbrain/pontine noradrenergic system

arises in locus coeruleus

thought to be involved in overall attentional functions

313
Q

Describe the serotoninergic system in the brain

geography, function, clinical

A

medullary serotoninergic system

arising in the raphe nuclei

may modulate emotional behaviour and is implicated in impulsive behaviours and obsessive-compulsive disorders.

It is the main target of antidepressant SSRI drugs and of the recreational drug, ecstasy

314
Q

What can damage in association areas of cortex can result in

A

complex deficits such as
apraxias (high-order action deficit due to damage in posterior parietal or premotor cortical areas),
agnosias (high-order visual deficit)
aphasias (high-order language deficit due to damage in
Wernicke’s or Broca’s areas or associated regions and connections)

315
Q

What does amnesia refer to

A

pathological memory loss

316
Q

What is anterograde amnesia

what can cause it (4)

A

specifically refers to memory loss of events after the damage

typically caused by anoxia, ischaemia, encephalitis, thiamine deficiency

317
Q

What does retrograde amnesia refer to

A

memory loss of events prior to the trauma

318
Q

What can cause amnesia generally (give 2 specific causes)

A

can be due to damage in the medial temporal lobe (e.g. patient ‘H.M.’)

or

damage in the diencephalon (e.g. Korsakoff’s syndrome, caused by dietary deficiency of thiamine, vitamin B-1, typically due to alcoholism, associated with anterograde and some retrograde memory loss).

319
Q

Which disease is helpful in understanding the role of the amygdala

A

Urbach-Weithe disease (a rare genetic disorder, calcification of the amygdala) and is associated with deficits in emotional behaviour

320
Q

Give 4 psychiatric/ neurological drugs that act on the ascending chemical systems

A

Selective Serotonin/ Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors (depression),

l-DOPA (Parkinson’s disease),

neuroleptics (schizophrenia)

pro-cholinergic drugs (Alzheimer’s
disease).

321
Q

What is hippocampal sclerosis also known as

why is it important clinically

A

Medial temporal sclerosis

it’s the most common cause for intractable temporal lobe epilepsy

322
Q

What is a common history of stablished refractory temporal lobe epilepsy

A

Up to a third of patients with established refractory temporal lobe epilepsy have a history of seizures in childhood.

323
Q

True or false

the hippocampus is uniformly affected by hippocampal sclerosis

A

false

the dentate gyrus, and the CA1, CA4 and to a lesser degree CA3 sections of the hippocampus are primarily involved

324
Q

What is seen histologically in medial temporal sclerosis

A

neuronal cell loss, gliosis and sclerosis.

325
Q

How do you manage hippocampal sclerosis

A

initially managed medically, but in patients who are refractory to medical management, temporal lobectomy or selective amygdalo-hippocampectomy may be performed.

326
Q

How successful is lobectomy in treating mesial temporal sclerosis

A

Anterior temporal lobectomy is successful in 75-90% of patients.

327
Q

Describe the cranial end of the neural tube

what forms at the caudal end

A

there are three primary expansions (brain vesicles):

forebrain (or prosencephalon), midbrain (or mesencephalon) and hindbrain (or rhombencephalon)

The cavities within the primary brain vesicles are the precursors of the adult ventricular system

spinal cord

328
Q

What does the mesencephalon of the neural tube further develop into (3)

A

into a caudal medulla oblongata (or just medulla) and a more rostral pons, and the cerebellum develops on its dorsal surface.

329
Q

What does the forebrain of the neural tube further develop into (3)

A

into a caudal diencephalon (mainly the thalamus and hypothalamus) and a rostral telencephalon (or telencephalic vesicle, one on either side) and these give rise to the cerebral hemispheres

330
Q

What does the forebrain in a human adult consist of

A

Telencephalon: Cerebral cortex (outer layer) and Basal ganglia (deeper structures)

Diencephalon: Thalamus & Hypothalamus

331
Q

What 3 structures form the brainstem

A

Midbrain, Pons, Medulla Oblongata

332
Q

What forms the hindbrain

A

Pons, Medulla Oblongata & Cerebellum

333
Q

Which sulci are constant among humans

A

lateral sulcus (Sylvian fissure)
central sulcus
Parieto-occipital sulcus

334
Q

Describe the lateral sulcus

A

a deep fissure in the lateral side, (sometimes called the Sylvian fissure) separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes

335
Q

Describe the central sulcus

A

division between frontal and parietal lobes

336
Q

Describe the Parieto-occipital sulcus

A

on the medial surface,

separating the occipital and parietal lobes

337
Q

What is the bulb

A

old name for the medulla
e.g.
nerve fibres from cerebral cortex to the medulla are cortico-bulbar fibres.

338
Q

What does grey matter refer to

A

the cell bodies and dendrites located in the outer layers of the cerebral cortex and cerebellar cortex, in the deep nuclei (collections of neurons) of the brain, and in the spinal cord dorsal and ventral horns.

339
Q

What does white matter refer to

A

the axons that connect different CNS regions, many of which are myelinated, and which may form named nerve tracts

340
Q

What does grey matter look like (2)

A

In the living brain the grey matter is pink, having many capillaries; in the fixed brain it is brown

341
Q

Where is the white matter located in the spinal cord and brainstem? How does this compare with the cerebral and cerebellar cortices?

A

located on the outer surface.

The cerebral and cerebellar cortex have the opposite organisation to the spinal cord:
the neurons form a folded outer sheet, with axons running below

342
Q

What are deep nuclei

A

(‘sub cortical’)
e.g. vestibular nuclei, deep cerebellar nuclei, the amygdala and the basal ganglia, are equivalent to peripheral nerve ganglia

343
Q

What type of cell is abundant in the CNS other than neurons

What do they do

A

glial cells

several types with different functions (myelination, phagocytosis of debris, homeostatic control of the local neural environment, maintaining BBB).

344
Q

How can white and grey matter be seen microscopically

A

using Nissl stains (toluidine blue, cresyl violet etc) to stain nuclei and cell bodies (both neuronal and glial).

White matter can be seen using myelin stains (Weigert-Pal method, osmic acid).

345
Q

Primary motor and primary sensory areas can be determined in relation to gyri and sulci. What are these? (give location and area number if applicable)

A
  • Primary motor cortex (Brodmann’s area 4) is anterior to the central sulcus.
  • Primary somatosensory cortex (Brodmann’s areas 3, 2 and 1) is posterior to the central sulcus.
  • Primary visual cortex (area 17) is located at the occipital pole, particularly in the calcarine sulcus on the medial face of the hemisphere.
  • Primary auditory cortex is in the lateral temporal lobe.
  • Pain is represented in the insula (buried cortex) and in the anterior cingulate cortex, just above the corpus callosum.

• Primary olfactory cortex is in the medial temporal lobe. Olfaction and taste are also represented in parts of the insula.

346
Q

Describe the brain’s ventricular system

A

2 lateral ventricles (below cerebral cortex) communicate via the inter-ventricular foramen (of Munro) with the cavity of the 3rd (III) ventricle, on the midline in the diencephalon

aqueduct connects the 3rd ventricle with the 4th (IV) ventricle in the hindbrain (its roof being formed by the cerebellum).

4th ventricle is continuous with the central canal of the spinal cord and with the subarachnoid space, via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka

347
Q

What are the foramina of the ventricular system

A

inter-ventricular foramen (of Munro): connects lateral and 3rd ventricle

foramina of Magendie and Luschka: connects 4th ventricle with central canal of spinal cord and subarachnoid space

348
Q

What do the ventricles do

A

produce and contain cerebrospinal fluid

349
Q

What makes CSF specifically

A

a plexus of blood vessels wrapped in choroid epithelium (formed from pia mater and ependyma), called the choroid plexus, forms CSF from blood in the lateral, 3rd and 4th ventricles

350
Q

How does CSF escape the ventricular system

A

via the foramen of Magendie and the foramina of Luschka into the subarachnoid space surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

351
Q

what happens to the meninges in brain prosections

A

dura mater is usually left in the cranium when the brain was removed, but the arachnoid mater can be seen covering the cerebral cortex on some specimens

352
Q

Describe cranial pia mater

A

forms an intimate covering for all superficial parts of the brain and spinal cord, but is not visible to the naked eye

353
Q

What are cisterns

A

In some places the pia and arachnoid are widely separated to form cisterns containing accumulations of CSF.

Cisterns are not separate entities but communicate with each other by way of the general subarachnoid space.

354
Q

What are the 2 important cisterns

A

cisterna magna, in the angle between the medulla oblongata and the cerebellum

the lumbar cistern (from which CSF can be sampled).

355
Q

describe the venous sinuses

A

formed from the periosteal and meningeal layers of the dura mater, return venous blood from the cerebral circulation via the internal jugular vein and are also sites for return of CSF into the systemic circulation via arachnoid villi into the superior sagittal sinus.

356
Q

How much of cardiac output does the brain require

A

15-20% of resting cardiac output,

blood flow through the brain approaches a litre per minute.

357
Q

Hoes does the ICA enter the skull

what does it split into

A

through the carotid canal, passes through the cavernous sinus in a characteristic S-shape (carotid siphon), and penetrates the dura into the subarachnoid space

bifurcates into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries

358
Q

Describe the course of the anterior cerebral artery

A

supplies the frontal lobes

then passes into the longitudinal fissure where it runs above the corpus callosum to supply more medial aspects of the parietal and occipital lobes.

These include medial aspects of somatosensory and motor cortical areas, which relate to the lower limbs.

359
Q

Which is the largest cerebral artery

how does it pass

A

middle

passes into the more lateral and inferior parts of the hemispheres through the lateral sulcus.

Its branches supply somatosensory and motor cortex relating to upper limb and face, the basal ganglia and cerebral white matter.

360
Q

Describe the appearance of the vertebral arteries

A

One or both of the vertebral arteries can be found on the ventral aspect of the medulla (they are frequently unequal in size).

They converge at the caudal pons to form the midline basilar artery, which grooves the ventral surface of the pons

361
Q

What do AICA and PICA supply

A

provide the major blood supply to the brain stem (midbrain, pons, medulla). PICA and AICA together with the superior cerebellar arteries supply the cerebellum

362
Q

How does the basilar artery terminate

A

by bifurcating into two posterior cerebral arteries which supply the medial occipital lobes, notably visual cortex, and parts of the temporal lobes.

363
Q

Around which brain structures does the circle of Willis form

A

around the optic chiasm and stalk of the pituitary

364
Q

How do veins in the brain drain

A

Superficial veins drain into the superior and inferior sagittal sinuses,

deep veins drain into the great cerebral vein and then the straight or transverse sinuses.

The sinuses meet at the confluence and drain into the internal jugular veins, which remove exhausted blood and CSF from the brain

365
Q

Which brain part is used to indicate death

why

A

irreversible loss of function of the brain stem has been accepted as an indicator of death.

if the brain stem is irreversibly damaged then the forebrain, even if undamaged, cannot again function normally

366
Q

what does brainstem death indicate other than death

A

indicates a permanent inability to maintain basic homeostatic functions (breathing, cardiovascular control). Although these can be replaced by life-support machinery, recovery cannot occur after brain stem death

367
Q

How can brainstem function be assessed

A

clinical examination of cranial nerve function.

368
Q

What causes stroke generally

A

vessel occlusion or vessel rupture / leakage

369
Q

How can cerebral vessel rupture occur

A

due to the bursting of an aneurysm, an excessive localised swelling of the wall of an artery

370
Q

What are the symptoms of middle cerebral artery blockage

A

most of the motor cortex and somatic sensory cortex are deprived of blood supply, resulting in paralysis and a loss of cutaneous and proprioceptive sensibility in the contralateral upper limb and head and neck.

NB lower limb is likely to be spared because the anterior cerebral artery supplies the parts of the motor and sensory cortices in which they are ‘represented’

371
Q

Why are Potential spaces in the cranium of clinical importance

A

any bleed (extradural, subdural or subarachnoid haemorrhage) will increase the volume of fluid within the cranium and exert pressure on brain tissue.

372
Q

What can cause hydrocephalus

A

narrow passageways in the ventricles are vulnerable to blocking by “space-occupying lesions” (such as tumours) or by intracranial bleeds.

Blockade of CSF flow causes accumulation of CSF proximal to the block, and a rise in pressure, which results in hydrocephalus

This can occur at various sites in the circulatory pathway of CSF

373
Q

What are 2 ways to surgically access the brain

A

craniotomy: surgical removal of a portion of the skull

keyhole surgery:
minimally invasive surgery carried out through a very small incision, with special nstruments and techniques including fibre optics.

374
Q

What is spinal anaesthesia

A

Anaesthetic can be introduced into the CSF in the lumbar cistern, where the
anaesthetic substance acts directly on the spinal cord itself

375
Q

Where is the cauda equina

A

Within the lumbar cistern a sheaf of spinal roots, occupying the subarachnoid space.

376
Q

Why can a lumbar puncture be performed at the lumbar cistern

A

cauda equina’s e mobile spinal roots will roll away from a needle introduced through the dura into the subarachnoid space, allowing a sample of CSF to be taken from the lumbar cistern

377
Q

How can you diagnose e.g. meningitis, subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

CSF can be obtained from the lumbar cistern as a routine procedure, or more exceptionally from the cisterna magna.

378
Q

What does x ray Cerebral angiography require

what is this imaging used for

A

injection of radio-opaque fluid into the internal carotid or vertebral vessels

to examine the vascular tree for constrictions or dilatations. Angiograms can also be generated using MRI, and used in combination with CT

379
Q

What is CT

A

a form of radiography that uses multiple x-ray images through the brain from different angles to generate a series of continuous slices and produce sectional images of the brain

380
Q

What is MRI used to image

A

provides images of the brain by measuring regional variations in proton density when placed in a magnetic field and stimulated by a particular radio frequency.

MRI images can be produced relatively rapidly and with high resolution and high contrast in any desired plane.

The MRI settings may be altered to highlight bone or soft tissues

381
Q

What is PET

A

injections of short-lived radioisotopes are given; these attach to a molecule used by the body (e.g. glucose), circulate and are metabolised within the tissues.

The high-energy gamma rays emitted by the radioisotopes are detected by the scanner depending on the rates of metabolism or level of blood flow.

Radiolabelled ligands can also be used to localise specific receptor types in the
living brain with the same method.

382
Q

What are the symptoms of tabes dorsalis

What are the symptoms of syringomyelia

A

results in a bilateral absence of touch below the level of the lesion. There is also a loss of proprioceptive feedback below the site of the lesion leading to a characteristic stamping gait

characteristic “cape-like” distribution of loss of pain and temperature sensation in the upper limbs and trunk but preservation of touch and pressure sensation (as central cavitation usually disrupts the decussating fibres of the anterolateral system but not the ascending fibres of the DC-ML system)