Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q

what is the CNS composed of?

A

the brain and spinal cord

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2
Q

what is the PNS composed of?

A

12 pairs of cranial nerves

31 pairs of spinal nerves (& branches)

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3
Q

what are the first 3 swellings of the neural tube called during development - around week 4?

A

prosencephalon

mesencephalon

rhombencephalon

*these are primary vesicles

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4
Q

the prosencephalon and rhombencephalon divide into two further parts at around 6-8 weeks - what are these secondary vesicles called?

A

prosencephalon = telencephalon and diencephalon

rhombencephalon = metencephalon and myelencephalon

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5
Q

what do each of the secondary vesicles give rise to in a mature brain?

A

telencephalon = cerebral hemispheres

diencephalon = thalamus and hypothalamus

mesencephalon = midrain

metencephalon = pons and cerebellum

myelencephalon = medulla oblongata

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6
Q

what three structures make up the brain stem?

A

midbrain

pons

medulla oblongata

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7
Q

what are the two main types of cells found in CNS and what is their functions?

A

neurones = communicate via electrical impulses

glial cells = “glue” the CNS together as there is no connective tissue for support

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8
Q

what are the 2 main types of neuron and what type of signals usually flow through each?

A

multipolar - many dendrites and one axon extending into PNS (motor efferents travel along these)

pseudo-unipolar = cell body in PNS (sensory afferents travel along these)

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9
Q

what are the four main types of glial cells found in CNS and what is their role?

A

astrocytes = supportive, maintain BBB and homeostasis

oligodendrocytes = myelination in CNS (not PNS)

microglia = immune monitoring and antigen presentation (similar to macrophages)

ependymal cells = ciliated columnar epithelium lining ventricles

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10
Q

describe how oligodendrocytes myelinate nerve fibres in order to speed up the rate of electrical conduction?

A

myelinate sections - leaving small gaps (called nodes of ranvier)

electrical signals must jump over this gap which speeds up signal conduction

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11
Q

how do microglia appear in their resting phase compared to a phase where they encounter an insult of infection?

A

resting = short, spiny cell processes

when activated by infection = rounder and more similar to macrophage

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12
Q

ependymal cells form a barrier between the CSF and the brain tissue - true or false?

A

false - CSF can still move outwith ventricles regardless of this layer of epithelium

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13
Q

what are the 2 types of astrocytes and which is found in grey and white matter?

A

grey matter = protoplasmic astrocyte

white matter = fibrous astrocyte

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14
Q

what are gyri, sulci and fissures?

A

gyri = bulges of cerebral hemispheres

sulci = indentations (or sunken in parts)

fissures = deep sulci

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15
Q

what is the difference in the make up of grey matter and white matter?

A

grey = cell bodies of neurones, synapses and support cells

white = axons of neurones and support cells (no cell bodies)

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16
Q

describe the distribution of grey and white matter in the spinal cord?

A

grey matter - H shaped (has 2 anterior horns and 2 posterior horns)

white matter = surrounds grey H

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17
Q

what is the function of the central sulcus?

A

differentiates regions with different functionalities (ie primary sensory and motor cortexts)

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18
Q

where is the primary somatosensory cortex located?

A

post-central gyrus

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19
Q

where is the primary somatomotor cortex located?

A

pre-central gyrus

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20
Q

what is the corpus callosum?

A

large area of white matter carrying material between the right and left hemispheres of the brain

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21
Q

what is the relevance of the calcarine sulcus?

A

marks the location of primary visual cortex

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22
Q

what is contained in the fornix of the brain and what is its function?

A

limbic system found here

plays a role in memory making

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23
Q

what are the four traditional lobes of the brain?

A

frontal

parietal

temporal

occipital

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24
Q

what seperates the frontal and parietal lobes?

A

central sulcus

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25
Q

what seperates the frontal and parietal lobe from the temporal lobe?

A

lateral sulcus

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26
Q

what seperates the parietal and occipital lobes?

A

parieto-occipital sulcus

*this is defined more medially than it is on lateral brain

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27
Q

what non-traditional lobe of the brain is found concealed in the cerebral hemispheres, and what is its function?

A

insular lobe (insula)

plays a role in patients experience of pain

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28
Q

what 3 layers make up the meninges (superficial to deep)?

A

dura mater

arachnoid mater

*subarachnoid space containing CSF*

pia mater

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29
Q

why is it difficult to remove the dura mater from the inner surface of cranium?

A

it acts as periosteum for the inner part of the skull

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30
Q

describe how the layout of the arachnoid and pia mater create the subarachnoid space?

A

arachnoid mater = stretched layer over brain

whereas pia mater = only 1-2 cells thick, so falls into all the sulci and tightly covers gyri

space between these 2 layers create CSF

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31
Q

why are the lateral ventricles shapes the way they are?

A

to extend CSF into all traditional lobes of the brain

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32
Q

what could potentially cause a blockage in the ventricular system?

A

a tumour pressing on cerebral aqueduct

*this could cause hydrocephalus

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33
Q

what other nervous system is often forgotten about in the body?

A

enteric (digestive) nervous system

has own set of nerve plxuses in gut walls

influenced by ANS

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34
Q

by which 2 directions is blood supplied to the brain?

A

from vertebral arteries and internal carotids

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35
Q

what arteries connect the blood supply from vertebral and internal carotid arteries?

A

posterior communicating arteries

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36
Q

roughly where do each of thr 3 major cerebral arteries supply?

A

anterior = medial brain and most of frontal lobe

middle = lateral brain

posterior = posterior brain

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37
Q

how is the majority of blood drained from brain?

A

dural venous sinuses - these then drain into internal jugular vein

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38
Q

why are there enlargements in the cervical and lumbar regions of the spinal cord?

A

increased spinal tissue required to innervate and deal with the limbs

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39
Q

at what vertebral level does the spinal cord end, and what is this structure called?

A

L2 - conus medullaris

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40
Q

what continues after the conus medullaris in order to connect to the coccyx?

A

thin connective tissue cord - filum terminale

*this forms part of the cauda equina

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41
Q

the meninges in the spinal cord are continuous with those in brain - true or false?

A

true

however, the dura mater in spinal cord does not act as periosteum for the vertebrae, they are seperated by a fat pad known as the epidural space

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42
Q

what arteries help to supply blood to the spinal cord?

A

3 major longitudinal arteries - 2 posterior and 1 anterior (originate from vertebral arteries)

segmental arteries eg intercostal, lumbar

radicular arteries that travel long dorsal and ventral roots

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43
Q

embolic occlusion of any of the arteries supplying the spinal cord can lead to areas of infarction - true or false?

A

true

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44
Q

how is blood drained from the spinal cord?

A

anterior and posterior venous plexuses

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45
Q

how do sensory signals travel up to the primary somatosensory cortex using the dorsal column/medial leminiscus system?

A

3 neuron process up the ascending tracts in CNS:

1st neuron ascends in dorsal column (blue)

synapse at medulla

2nd order neuron crosses midline moving from medulla to thalamus then

synapses (green)

3rd neurone stretches from thalamus to corresponding part of post-central gyrus (red)

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46
Q

why is the dorsal column split with a fissure on either side?

A

to differentiate sensory info coming from lower limb (medial) and upper limb (lateral)

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47
Q

what two main tracts are used for sensory signals ascending the spinal cord and which signals does each carry?

A

dorsal column / medial leminiscus system = fine touch and conscious proprioception

spinothalamic tract = pain, temperature, deep pressure

48
Q

what is the difference between the crossing of fibres in dorsal column tract vs spinothalamic tract?

A

dorsal column = crosses at medulla

spinothalamic = cross segmentally

*spinothalamic synapses immediately in spinal cord then travels up to the thalamus rather than waiting until the medulla to synapase

49
Q

how do most somatomotor signals from the pre-central gyrus descend the spinal cord?

A

via the lateral or ventral/anterior corticospinal tracts

*corticospinal tracts control fine, precise movement particularly of distal limb muscles

*corticospinal tracts also known as pyramidal tract

50
Q

describe how motor signals reach the spinal cord from the brain?

A

1st neuron extends all the way from pre-central gyrus to the level of effect

*may cross side at medulla (85% - lateral corticospinal tract) or may continue on same side until desired level (15% - ventral corticospinal tract)*

synapse at desired level

51
Q

what is the internal capsule and what symptom would be experienced after a stroke in this area?

A

white matter pathway (especially for corticospinal tract)

spastic paralysis with hyperflexion of upper limbs - decorticate posturing

52
Q

there are a number of motor systems outside of the pyramidal tract - what are these often referred to?

A

extrapyramidal system

53
Q

what is the function of the tectospinal tract and what part of the brain does it involve?

A

input from cervical segments

from tectum in posterior midbrain, down to spinal cord

mediates redlex head and neck movement in response to visual stimuli

54
Q

what is the reticulospinal tract and what movements can it facilitate?

A

tract between reticular formation (centre of brainstem) to spinal cord

fibres in pons = facilitate extensor movements and inhibit flexor movements

fibres in medulla = facilitate flexor movements and inhibit extensor

55
Q

what is the vestibulospinal tract responsible for and where does it span from?

A

from vestibular nuclei in pons and medulla

excites anti-gravity extensor muscles for impulse response (ie after being pushed by someone)

56
Q

what are the symptoms of brown-sequard syndrome caused by lateral hemisection of the cord?

A

ipsilateral paralysis

ipsilateral hyperreflexia and extensor plantar reflex

ipsilateral loss of vibratory sense and proprioception

contralateral loss of pain and temperature sense

57
Q

what are the functions of the cerebellum and basal ganglia in motor movement?

A

feedback to motor cortex via the thalamus

helps to improve and adapt movement the body is making

58
Q

what are the 3 lobes of the cerebellum?

A

anterior, posterior (largest) and flocculonodular lobe

59
Q

the cerebellum is known as a sub-tentorial organ - what does this mean?

A

it sits under the tentorium cerebelli (extension of dura mater which covers cerebellum)

60
Q

how is the cerebellum attached to the brainstem?

A

3 penducles of white matter - superior, middle (largest) and inferior

61
Q

the small bulges on the cerebellum are not called gyri like those in the brain, what are they instead referred to as?

A

folia

62
Q

describe the distribution of grey and white matter seen when the cerebellum is cut?

A

grey matter towards the outside

white matter in “tree” shape in centre

deep grey matter visible inside the white matter centre

63
Q

what are the 3 layers of the cerebellar cortex?

A

molecular layer (outer)

purkinje cell layer (middle)

granule cell layer (inner)

64
Q

what is contained in the granular cell layer that is easily seen on histology?

A

lots of neurones which recieve important afferent signals from spinal cord, cerebral cortex (relayed via pons) and vestibular apparatus

65
Q

why does the pons swell anteriorly?

A

it is receiving / giving a lot of information from / to the cerebellum posteriorly

66
Q

what is the only point of output in the cerebellum?

A

purkinje cells from all three lobes

mainly synapse on neurones of deep cerebellar nuclei

67
Q

what is the function of the flocculonodular lobe?

A

recieves vestibular info which is feeds back to brainstem

68
Q

if one side of the cerebellum is affected by disease, is it the ipsilateral or contralateral side of body that is affected?

A

ipsilateral

69
Q

what does the central vermis in the cerebellum control?

A

autonomic movements that we do not think about

70
Q

describe the difference in effect a lesion may have depending on where in the cerebellum it is found?

A

midline = affects posture control (despite preserved limb co-ordination)

unilateral = ipsilateral affect on body (disturbance of co-ordination - intention tremor and unsteady gait in absence of weakness or sensory loss)

bilateral = slowed, slurred speech (dysarthria), bilateral incoordination of arms and a staggering, wide based gait (cerebellar ataxia)

71
Q

acute alcohol exposure typically results with which type of cerebellar dysfunction?

A

bilateral cerebellar hemisphere dysfunction

presents with cerebellar ataxia

72
Q

what are the main functions of the basal ganglia when providing the motor cortex with feedback?

A

facilitate purposeful movement

inhibit any unwanted movement

role in posture and muscle tone

73
Q

what 5 components make up the basal ganglia?

A

caudate nucleus

putamen

globus pallidus

subthalamic nucleus

substantia nigra

74
Q

how does the substantia nigra appear in the midbrain?

A

looks like a black line

75
Q

in which condition would the substantia nigra potentially not be present?

A

parkinsons

substania nigra is only present when dopamine is being produced - the black colour comes from a by-product of this reaction

76
Q

how does the basal ganglia signal to the motor cortex to enhance useful movement?

A

direct pathway - enhances outflow of thalamus, enhancing the desired movement

77
Q

how does the basal ganglia signal to the motor cortex to inhibit a certain movement?

A

indirect pathway - inhibits outflow of thalamus

78
Q

lesions in the basal ganglia cause what type of symptoms?

A

contralateral symptoms

do not cause paralysis, sensory loss, loss of power or ataxia

DOES cause change in muscle tone and dyskinesias inclusing tremor (sinusoidal movements), chorea (rapid, asymmetrical movements usually affecting distal limb musculature) and myoclonus (muscle jerks)

79
Q

what 2 disorders are associated with basal ganglia and how do they present differently?

A

parkinsons = akinesia, rigidity and resting tremor (degeneration of dopaminergic neurones of substantia nigra)

huntingtons = chorea and progressive dementia (progressive degeneration of the basal ganglia and cerebral cortex)

80
Q

why is the optic nerve considered more like the CNS?

A

it is myelinated by oligodendrocytes rather than schwann cells

extends to the back of eye with meninges covering like in the brain

81
Q

CN I has no motor function - true or false?

A

true - only sensory

vesicles on end of neurone pick up smell in olfactory mucosa

82
Q

where is the nuclei for CN III found?

A

in the centre of the midbrain (centre deals with motor)

83
Q

why does CN IV exit the brain posteriorly after having crossed the midline?

A

it curves round the cerebral aqueduct before exiting the contralateral part of posterior brain

84
Q

where is the CN IV nucleus found?

A

lower midbrain

85
Q

where is the CN VI abducens nucleus located?

A

caudal pons - at base of the midbrain, behind the 4th ventricle

86
Q

where is the CN XII nuclei found?

A

in the medulla

87
Q

why do CN III, IV, VI and XII all exit the brain medially?

A

this is where their nuclei are in the brainstem

they all have motor portions - due to development they are found medially in brainstem

88
Q

what are the 3 main parts of the trigeminal sensory nucleus?

A

spiral nucleus = extends towards (pain/temp)

principle nucleus / pontine nucleus = in middle at entry (touch/vibration)

mesencephalic = upwards (chewing proprioception)

89
Q

what does the trigeminal motor nucleus control and where is it located?

A

some muscles of mastication eg tensor veli palatini

located behind principle nucleus

90
Q

what are the 3 components of the facial nerve and what nucleus is used to facilitate each?

A
  1. motor (muscle facial expression) = facial motor nucleus
  2. parasympathetics = spinal trigeminal nucleus / salivatory
  3. taste = solitary nucleus
91
Q

what are the 4 components of CN IX glossopharyngeal and what nucleus is used to facilitate each?

A

taste = solitary

small region of somatosensation in ear = spiral trigeminal nucleus

parasympathetic = salivatory

innervation of pharyngeal muscles = nucleus ambiguus

92
Q

what are the 4 components of the vagus nerve and what nuclei are used for these?

A

parasympathetic = dorsal (motor) nucleus

taste = solitary, commissural = visceral information

sensation around ear = spinal trigeminal nucleus

motor to some pharyngeal muscles = nucleus ambiguus

93
Q

what shape is adopted by the solitary nucleus to provide space for many different cranial nerves associated with it?

A

V from upper to lower medulla

94
Q

what are the three tubes which form the spiralling cochlea?

A

scala vestibuli

scala media

scala tympani

95
Q

how many turns does the cochlea make in the ear?

A

2.5

96
Q

which organ inside the cochlea is important for sounds interpretation?

A

organ of corti

97
Q

what does the organ of corti sit on top of and how does this help us to hear sound?

A

sits on top of basilar membrane (hair cells poke up from here)

basilar membrane varies in length and stiffness throughout cochlea - makes tip of cochlea more specific for low pitch and the base more specific to high pitch

98
Q

what other membrane brushes against hair cells to turn vibrations into electrical impulses?

A

tectorial membrane

99
Q

what carries electrical impulses from the stimulated hair cells in organ of corti to the cochlear nerve?

A

spiral ganglion

100
Q

describe how input from the spiral ganglion makes its way up to the primary auditory cortex?

A

1st neuron goes from the spiral ganglion to ventral and dorsal cochlear nuclei (at inferior cerebellar peduncle of brainstem)

synapse

2nd neuron ascends bilaterally to superior olivary nucleus

some synapse but not all

2nd / 3rd neurones travel up to inferior colliculus where all synapse

these signals progress up to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus

and finally to primary auditory cortex

101
Q

identify the auditory areas within the brain?

A

anterolateral part of auditory cortex = low frequency

posteromedial part of auditory cortex = high frequency

102
Q

what two structures that are passed through in the auditory pathway of the brainstem help to localise sound?

A

lateral leminiscus (white matter between nuclei)

superior olivary nucleus

*they help us tell what time sound arrived at each ear to orientate what side the sound originated from

103
Q

the vestibular pathway has more nuclei in the brainstem than in cochlea pathway - true or false?

A

true

104
Q

damage to which specific named areas of the brain can cause aphasia ie inability to use language?

A

brocas area = difficulty producing language, saying most important word in sentence, no difficulty comprehending language

wernickes area = difficulty comprehending language, speak words out of order / use meaningless words

105
Q

where does the vestibular nuclei connect to?

A

thalamus - for conscious movement

CNs III, IV and VI - for eyes to adapt to movement

cerebellum

lateral vestibular nucleus connects straight to spinal cord

106
Q

where in the brain is the primary vestibular cortex located?

A

there is no primary vestibular cortex

areas upon which vestibular info has been found to converge is: area of parietal cortex just posterior to postcentral gyrus that represents hand and mouth, an area just rostral to primary auditory cortex and the posterior insular cortex

107
Q

why does the fovea have more acute vision than rest of retina?

A

layers are thinner - light easily hits photoreceptor cells

108
Q

where does the optic tract extend back to in the thalamus?

A

lateral geniculate nucleus (for sight)

*remember the medical geniculate nucleus is for auditory info

109
Q

does the primary visual cortex have a large or small association area?

A

large

110
Q

how is the visual cortex arranged at the calcarine sulcus in reference to our visual field?

A

lower portion of our visual field is processed in the gyrus above the calcarine sulcus

upper portion of visual field = gyrus below

central vision = posterior part of these gyri

peripheral vision = anterior part of these gyri

111
Q

signals from the upper visual field have to loop around what structure embedded in cerebral hemisphere?

A

lateral ventricle - meyers loop

112
Q

what two areas of the brain control eye movement?

A

viual cortex and frontal eye field (motor area in frontal lobe)

113
Q

what type of eye movement is controlled by frontal eye field?

A

command movements (eg telling someone to look in particular direction = jumpy / quick movements)

114
Q

what type of eye movement is controlled by the visual cortex?

A

smooth “tracking” movement

115
Q

what nucleus is reponsible for the bilateral response in pupillary light reflex?

A

edinger-westphal nucleus

116
Q

what are the 3 different types of fibres in the white matter of the cerebral hemispheres?

A

association fibres = connect cortical sites lying in the same hemisphere

commissural fibres = connect one hemisphere to the other, usually connecting areas with similar function

projection fibres = connect hemispheres to deeper structures including thalamus, corpus striatum, brain stem and spinal cord