Neuro Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Opiod receptors are this type of receptor, and have these classes

A

G-protein coupled receptors (mu, delta, kappa)

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2
Q

Receptor that binds morphine and endorphins

A

Mu opiod receptor

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3
Q

Receptor that binds enkephalins

A

Delta opiod receptor

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4
Q

Receptor that binds dynorphins

A

Kappa opiod receptor

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5
Q

Drug category; Clinical Use: cough suppression, diarrhea; SE: respiratory depression, miosis, CNS depression (coma), constipation

A

Opiod analgesics

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6
Q

Opiod drug; MOA: full mu agonist; SE: histamine release

A

Morphine

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7
Q

Opiod drug; MOA: full mu agonist; other: useful for maintenance, long duration, orally active

A

Methadone

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8
Q

Opiod drug; MOA: full mu agonist; SE: muscarinic antagonist (doesn’t cause miosis), don’t combine with SSRIs or MAOIs

A

Meperidine

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9
Q

Opiod drug; MOA: full mu agonist (the other commonly used opiod drug besides morphine)

A

Fentanyl

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10
Q

Opiod drug; MOA: partial mu agonist; given in combination with NSAIDS, antitussive

A

Codeine

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11
Q

Dextramethorphan (antitussive), diphenoxylate (antidiarrheal), loperamide (antidiarrheal)

A

OTC opiod analgesics

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12
Q

Opiod antagonist; short half-life; IV; used for acute opiod overdose

A

Naloxone

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13
Q

Opiod antagonist; PO; used to reduce ethanol craving (given to alcoholics)

A

Naltrexone

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14
Q

Anxiety, GI distress, gooseflesh, muscle spasms, rhinorrhea, sweating

A

Abstinence syndrome (withdrawal from opiods)

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15
Q

Phenytoin, carbamazepine, topiramate, lamotrigine, valproic acid

A

Epilepsy drugs that block Na channels

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16
Q

epilepsy drug; MOA: blocks Na channels; SE: gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, hydantoin fetus, megaloblastic anemia (decreases folate absorption)

A

Phenytoin

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17
Q

epilepsy drug; MOA: blocks Na channels; SE: blood dyscrasias, teratogen

A

Carbamazepine

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18
Q

epilepsy drug; MOA: blocks Na channels; SE: Steven-Johnson syndrome

A

Lamotrigine

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19
Q

epilepsy drug; MOA: blocks Na channels, (inc GABA); SE: kidney stones

A

Topiramate

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20
Q

epilepsy drug; MOA: blocks Na channels, (inc) GABA, (-) T-type Ca++ channels; SE: rare fatal hepatotoxicity, causes fetal NTDs

A

Valproic acid

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21
Q

Ethosuximide, Valproic acid

A

Epilepsy drugs that block thalamic T-type Ca++ channels

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22
Q

Topiramate, Valproic acid, Benzodiazepines, phenobarbitol, gabapentin

A

Epilepsy drugs that increase GABA

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23
Q

epilepsy drug; MOA: (inc) GABA; SE: dependence (first line for acute seizures)

A

Benzodiazepines (diazepam, lorazepam)

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24
Q

epilepsy drug; MOA: (inc) GABA; SE: dependence (first line for pregnant women, children)

A

Phenobarbitol (barbiturate)

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25
epilepsy drug; MOA:(-) T-type Ca++ channels; SE: fatigue, GI, headache, Steven-Johnson Syndrome
Ethosuximide
26
epilepsy drug; MOA: (inc) GABA; SE: sedation, ataxia
Gabapentin
27
Which acts faster, highly blood soluble anesthetics or low blood soluble anesthetics?
Low solubility in blood = Rapid inducation and recovery.
28
What effect does lipid solubility have on anesthetics.
High lipid solubility = high potency
29
What effect does minimal alveolar concentration of anesthetics have on their potency?
As MAC increases potency decreases.
30
List the inhaled anesthetics
Halothane, -flurane, NO2
31
What inhaled anesthetic has hepatotoxicity?
Halothane
32
What inahled anesthetic has nephrotoxicity
Methoxyflurane
33
What inhaled anesthetic is a proconvulsant?
Enflurane
34
Increase the duration of Cl- channel opening, thereby facilitating GABAa action (decreases neuron firing)
Barbiturates
35
Increase the frequency of Cl- channel opening, thereby facilitating GABAa action (decreases neuron firing)
Benzodiazepines
36
zepams, zolams, and chlordiazepoxide
Benzodiazepines
37
Drug used to treat benzodiazepine overdose, competitive antagonist at GABA receptor
flumazenil
38
(TOM thumb) triazolam, oxazepam, midazolam
Short-acting benzodiazepines
39
B.B. King on OPIATES PROPOses FOOLishly (Barbiturates, benzodiazepines, Ketamine, opiates, propofol)
Intravenous anesthetics
40
High potency barbiturate used for induction of anesthesia in short procedures, decreases cerebral blood flow (IV anesthetic)
Thiopental
41
Benzodiazepine that is the most common drug used for endoscopy, may cause severe postoperative respiratory depression (IV anesthetic)
Midazolam
42
A PCP analog used as a dissociative anasthetic, decreases cerebral blood flow (IV anesthetic)
Ketamine (arylcyclohexamines)
43
2 opiates used with other CNS depressants during general anesthesia (IV anesthetics)
Morphine, fentanyl
44
Used for rapid induction of anesthesia and short procedures, less postoperative nausea than other drugs (IV anesthetic)
Propofol
45
What are the Local anesthetics?
Esters - end in caine, Amide end in -caine but have a second I
46
Local anesthetics MOA
Bloack Na channels (preferentially bind activated Na channels)
47
What fibers are affected first by loacal anesthetics?
Small, myelinated fibers. Pain first, Pressure is last.
48
What do you coadminister with local anesthetics and why?
Vasoconstrictors to enhance local action (except cocaine!)
49
What local anesthetics causes CNS excitation and severe cardiovascular toxicity?
Bupivicaine
50
What are neuromuscular blocking drugs used for?
Muscle paralysisin surgery or mechanical ventilation.
51
What receptor do NMJ blocking drugs target?
Nm
52
What is the only depolarizine NMJ blocking drug and what are it's two phases?
Succinylcholine. Phase 1 = prolonged depolarization. Phase 2 = Repolarized but bloacked.
53
Effect of giving cholinesterase inhibitors in each phase of succinylcholine action.
Phase 1: Cholinesterase inhiitors makes it worse. Phase 2: Reversed by cholinesterase inhibitors
54
What are the nondepolarizing NMJ blockers?
Have cur in the name (end in cararine, curium or curonium)
55
How do you reverse a nondepolarizing NMJ block?
AChE inhibitors (neostigmine, edrophonium)
56
How do you treat malignant hyperthermia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Dantrolene (prevents release of Ca2+ from SR)
57
What causes malignant hyperthermia?
Using inhaled anesthetics (except NO2) + succinylcholine)
58
What is the mneumonic for Parkinson's treatments
BALSA (Bromocriptine, Amantadine, Levodopa, Selegiline, Antimuscarinics)
59
What are the 4 treatment classes for Parkinson's?
Agonize dopamine receptors (bromocriptine), Inc Dopamine (Amantadine, Ldopa/carbidopa) Prevent dopamine breakdown (MAO B inh, selegiline), Curb excess cholinergics (benztropine, no effect on bradykinesia)
60
What is the treatment for essential or familial tremors?
Beta blockers
61
How does the L-dopa/carbidopa treatment work?
L-dopa crosses the blood brain barrier and is converted in CNS to dopamine. Carbidopa inhibits peripheral decarboxylase.
62
What parkinson drug causes arrhythmais?
L-dopa (when it's converted to dopamine in periphery)
63
What drug is coadministered with L-dopa in parkinson's but may enhance its side effects?
Selegiline (MAO-B inhibitor)
64
Treatment of migraines
Sumatripan. 5-HT 1D agonist. Causes vasoconstriction. Short half-life. (side effect = coronary vasospasm)
65
Contraindications for sumatripan
CAD or prinzmetals (causes coronary vasospasm)
66
Memantine - mOA?
NMDA receptor antagonist - helps prevent excitotoxicity (mediated by Ca2+)
67
Memantine - AEs?
Dizziness, confusion, hallucinations
68
Donepezil - MOA?
Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
69
Donepezil - AEs?
Nausea, dizziness, insomnia
70
Tetrabenazine - MOA?
inhibits VMAT | - limits dopamine vesicle packaging & release
71
Reserpine - MOA?
inhibits VMAT | - limits dopamine vesicle packaging & release
72
Haloperidol - MOA?
Dopamine receptor antagonist
73
Huntington's drugs?
Tetrabenazine, Reserpine, & Haloperidol
74
Sumatriptan - MOA?
5-HT(1B/1D)-agonist - inhibits Trigeminal nerve activation - prevents vasoactive peptide release - induces vasoconstriction - ½-life < 2 hours
75
Dantrolene - clinical uses?
- Malignant hyperthermia (rare, life-threatening side-effect of inhalation anesthetics -- except NO2 -- & succinylcholine) - Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (toxicity of antipsychotics)