Neuro Final Exam Review Sheet Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Describe status epilepticus
A

Continuous tonic-clonic attacks during which patient does not completely recover consciousness between attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common cause of status epilepticus?

A

abrupt withdrawal of anticonvulsant meds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why is status epilepticus a medical emergency.

A

b. This is a medical emergency because it risks permanent damage from hypoxia, hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, cardiac arrhythmias, and respiratory depression – 25% mortality rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two types of partial seizures?

A

simple and complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which type of partial seizure experiences loss of consciousness?

A

complex partial has consciousness impaired but not lost initially. When it spreads to both hemispheres is when we expereince LOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

describe the characteristics of a simple partial seizure

A
  1. Consciousness NOT impaired
  2. Only involves part of the brain
  3. May have aura
  4. Motor or sensory signs can spread to involve regions of motor cortex – spread through homunculus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

describe the characteristics of complex partial seizure

A
  1. Consciousness is impaired but not lost initially, THEN lose consciousness
    a. Spread to both hemispheres  loss of consciousness
  2. Most often begin as partial seizure
  3. 90% start in temporal lobe
  4. Aura is common
  5. Automatisms common
  6. lasts 1-2 min but can be longer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the common automatisms associated with complex partial seizures?

A

a. Orobuccolingual
b. Facial or Neck Movements
c. Sitting or standing up
d. Fumbling with objects
e. Walking
f. Talking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the types of generalized seizures?

A
absence
tonic-clonic
myoclonic
tonic
clonic
atonic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is another name for absence seizures?

A

petit mal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How long do absence (petit mal) seizures last?

A

less than 15 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How are absence and tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures different?

A

absence seizures have full orientation after

tonic-clonic seizures present with 10-30 minutes of confusion afterwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what can petit-mal seizures be diagnosed as?

A

an intellectual disability or ADHD because someone can have hundreds of them per day with a brief period of LOC but full orientation afterwards
subtle motor manifestations such as eye blinking are common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how long do grand mal (tonic-clonic) seizures last?

A

3-5 minutes or less

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what happens during the tonic phase of a grand mal seizure?

A

Tonic phase: unconscious and has tonic contractions for 10-30 seconds, extension of trunk and extremities, may have high pitched cry due to tonic contraction of muscles of respiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what happens during the clonic phase of a grand mal seizure?

A

alternating muscle contraction and relaxation for 30-60 seconds or longer, gradually subsides, may become incontinent, may be unconscious for up to 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens during a myoclonic seizure?

A

sudden brief shock like contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What 2 types of generalized seizures are rare?

A

tonic and clonic are rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what happens during atonic seizure?

A

complete loss of tone in the body and LOC

occurs most commonly after brain damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the process of prescribing medications for the treatment of seizures.

A

a. Must establish a firm diagnosis before beginning anticonvulsants
b. Choose right drug for the type of seizure
c. Control symptoms – not looking for target serum level
i. Different for different patients
ii. Increase dose based on blood levels and patient response
iii. Evaluate one drug at a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What should you do if a patient has a seizure?

A

a. Get others out of the room
b. Observe, time
c. Be the calm professional
d. Try to stay safe, stay away from mouth! (NO wallet in mouth… sorry!)
e. > 5 minutes, call 911
f. Second seizure right afterwards, call 911

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the 7 types of spinal cord defects?

A
  1. Meningomyelocele
  2. Meningocele
  3. Spina bifida occulta
  4. Lipomeningocele
  5. Diastematomyelia
  6. Syringomyelia
  7. Chiari type II malformation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which type of spinal cord defect has an abnormal tuft of hair over the arch that didn’t form right?

A

spina bifida occulta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the2 types of spinal cord defects that are considered closed neural tube defects?

A

diastematomyelia and lipomeningocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the characteristics of syringomyelia?

A

hydrocephalus of the spinal cord caused by accumulation of CSF in the central canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the most common type of spinal cord defect?

A

Myelomeningocele (meningomyelocele) make up about 95% of spinal cord defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What part of the body is herniated with a meningomyelocele (myelomeningocele)?

A

the spinal cord and meninges herniates usually with the baby lacking skin over the site at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which type of spinal cord defect has the spinal cord intact usually?

A

meningocele is less common with the spinal cord deeper inside and usually ok

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In Lipomeningocele what is compressing the spinal cord?

A

fat deposits latch onto the spinal cord and can cause compression or even worse tethering which means the spinal cord will not migrate upwards and will be stuck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What can tethering/compression of the spinal cord cause?

A

may lead to bowel and bladder issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What type of spinal cord defect has just the vertebrae affected with NO herniation?

A

spina bifida occulta has just the vertebra affected. they lack the spinous processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is occurring in diastematomyelia?

A

longitudinal splitting of the cord with each half having its own dorsal and ventral roots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What symptoms are possible in syringomyelia?

A

sensory loss and quadriplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what malformation has experiences elongation of the cerebellum and medulla?

A

Chiari type II presents with elongation of the cerebellum and medulla which protrude through the foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What symptoms can occur in chiari type II malformation?

A

we can have lower brainstem symptoms because of the compression of the hindbrain
the medulla and pons are also small and deformed
there is also blockage of CSF flow resulting in hyrdocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are some possible causes of spina bifida?

A

a. multifactorial
b. folate deficiency
c. polygenetic
d. other: maternal diabetes, exposure to chemicals, extreme alcoholism, thalidomide-valporic acid/ antiseizure med

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are some common S&S of tethered cord?

A

Increased new spasticity, changes in bowel and bladder, changes in foot position, back pain, development of hamstring contracture, rapid scoliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are some common S&S of a shunt dysfunction?

A

increasing head size, vomiting, sweating, swelling of head, headache, irritability, seizures, rapid scoliosis, lethargy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Why is VP shunting used for patients with SB?

A

It is used to relieve the pressure on the brain caused by accumulation of fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the 4 types of CP?

A

Spastic (most common; >80% of cases)
Athetoid
Mixed
Ataxic

41
Q

What are the 3 subcategories of spastic CP?

A

spastic hemiplegia
spastic diplegia
spastic quadriplegia

42
Q

Describe spastic CP

A

overactivity which leads to hypertonicity and involves the UMN

43
Q

what is affected in spastic hemiplegia?

A

1/2 of the body is affected

ex: L UE and L LE

44
Q

What is affected is spastic quadriplegia?

A

all 4 extremities are affected

45
Q

What is affected is spastic diplegia?

A

bilateral LE are affected

46
Q

What is involved in athetoid CP?

A

also known as dyskinetic CP, the basal ganlia is involved which is why we see rapid/slow dystonia with this type of cerebral palsy
there are patterns of involuntary movement esp. in the distal muscles when the pt. goes to move

47
Q

What is the second most common type of CP?

A

mixed spastic and athetoid

48
Q

which type of CP involves the cerebellum?

A

ataxia CP which is very rare because the cerebellum in not vulnerable for a long time throughout the development

49
Q

What is associated but NOT a cause of CP?

A

prematurity has a large association

50
Q

What are some prenatal factors related to CP?

A
  • low socioeconomic status
  • not good prenatal care
  • maternal infection such as herpes, rubella, toxoplasmosis (kitty litter), measels, anemia, Rh incompatibility, severe maternal diabetes
  • genetics
51
Q

What are some perinatal factors related to CP?

A

intraventricular hemorrhage

fetal anoxia from wrapping of the umbilical cord around the baby

52
Q

What are some postnatal factors related to CP?

A
trauma
infection 
near drowning anoxia
toxic conditions such as lead poisoning
shaken baby syndrome
cardiac arrest
53
Q

signs and symptoms you would see in a child diagnosed with CP?

A

a. Prolonged fisting
b. early handedness
c. scissoring of legs
d. inability to bring hands and feet together
e. delay/slowing of developmental milestones
f. abnormal postures/reflexes
g. low tone

54
Q

Do all children with CP have an intellectual disability?

A

No, IQ involvement is more likely the more severe the CP is. ⅓ have normal intelligence

55
Q

What are some common medical treatment options for children with CP?

A

a. Surgery- tendon releases, osteotomy, etc
b. bracing of foot ankle
c. selective dorsal rhizotomy- just cut the 1a axons
(to be a good candidate they must not be using the spasticity for their function because this surgery elimates the spasticity)
d. Meds: baclofen, botox

56
Q

What are the physiological events that occur distal to the site of an injury to a peripheral nerve?

A

Wallerian degeneration with myelin sheath breakdown-damaged Schwann cells release factors that attract macrophages

Macrophages invade and proteases and IL-1 are produced - stimulates Schwann cell proliferation

Schwann cells fill up connective tissue tube

Schwann cells produce neurotropic and neurotrophic factors that guide and support axonal regrowth to targets

Once the axon contacts a Schwann cell, the above factors fall in present levels

Axon is attracted down tubule until target is reached

57
Q

Does the CNS exhibit axonal regeneration in the same way the PNS does?

A

No, the CNS has minimal capability for axonal regeneration because the adult CNS environment is not conducive to axonal regeneration

58
Q

Why is the CNS environment not conducive to axonal regeneration?

A

Invading macrophage response much slower
Clean up is delayed because macrophages have trouble crossing the blood brain barrier
Astrocytes are produced that create a “walling off” of the injury
No new glial matrix is formed
Oligodendrocytes do not multiply and produce a hostile environment
They produce Nogo factor that is an inhibiting protein of axonal elongation
**Keep in mind that the the axons themselves DO have the ability to regenerate

59
Q

What are the SIMILARITIES between axonal regeneration in the PNS and CNS

A

both have a growth cone
both have the capability for axonal regeneration
both have initial axon sprouting
both have a macrophage response but the PNS is much better
both have chormatolysis ( change seen in the cell body of a neuron, where the chromatin and cell nucleus are pushed to the cell periphery, in response to axonal injury) occurring

60
Q

What are the DIFFERENCES between axonal regeneration in the PNS and CNS

A

The PNS has a much better macrophage response which starts Schwann cell proliferation
The CNS has decreased macrophage response due to their limited ability to cross the blood brain barrier. These macrophages produce astrocytes that form an astrocytic scar that “walls off” the injury therefore reducing clean up
for the CNS there is minimal axon regeneration therefore minimal function is restored (1-2 mm growth)
In the CNS we have limited microglia response

61
Q

What does the CNS contain that produces a hostile environment?

A

oligodendrocytes that produce Nogo factor which is a protein that inhibits axonal elongation by destroying the growth cone therefore a hostile environment is produced

62
Q

How does recovery of function occur after CNS damage?

A

a. reduced effects of ischemia
b. elimination of edema
c. behavioral compensations
d. recovery from diashcisis

63
Q

What are some examples of behavioral compensations?

A

i. learned use of an unaffected extremity for a task previously performed by an affected extremity
ii. restricting/modifying functional activities
iii. reading Braille after losing vision

64
Q

what are the parts of recovery from neuronal shock (diashcisis)?

A

i. neural sprouting
ii. denervation supersensitivity
iii. silent synapses
When the loss of one structure influences other nearby structures that have the same innervation and results in physiological imbalance
System returns to normal with gradual recovery of structures or from reorganization (PLASTICITY)
We exhibit more obvious and pronounced diaschisis with sudden loss
A series of small lesions have the ability to recover much better than one large lesion
Better recovery is also seen from a bilateral (symmetrical) lesion

65
Q

What is denervation supersensitivity?

A

a decreased frequency of inputs leads to an increase in post-synaptic receptor number which leads to greater response/sensitivity to neurotransmitters within a synapse

66
Q

What are silent synapses?

A

synapses that are not normally functional due to competition among other neural pathways may become active in the presence of CNS damage

67
Q

What are the 2 types of neuronal sprouting?

A

i. regenerative synaptogenesis - injured axons re-sprout

ii. reactive synaptogenesis - neighboring axons sprout to innervate injured regions

68
Q

How do we promote plasticity?

A

a. We encourage exploration (of the environment, of the task, etc.).
b. We make a task/intervention meaningful (functional).
c. We encourage active problem solving and promote novelty.
d. We make the task challenging “enough” (not too hard, but of sufficient challenge to the individual).
e. The patient practices.

69
Q

What is the difference between learning, performance and skill?

A

a. Learning is a relatively permanent change that occurs as a result of synaptic plasticity.
b. Performance is a temporary change seen during practice session. (short term learning)
c. Skill is the ability to be flexible with multiple outcomes that are efficient and effective. (long term learning)

70
Q

Explain what happens in short term learning versus long term learning

A

short-term= simple forms of learning that lead to changes in effectiveness of synaptic transmission (NT level changes).
long-term= synthesis of new proteins and growth and elimination of new synaptic connections
-involves structural changes in organization and number of connections among neurons takes place with long-term learning

71
Q

explain habituation

A

Form of nonassociative learning; there is no temporal relationship with the stimulus that is given
With repeated stimulus, the responses become progressively smaller
Fewer NT are released

72
Q

What happens with short term learning and habituation?

A

Homosynaptic depression occurs in short-term learning and habituation
Activation of interneurons and motor neurons is decreased

73
Q

what happens with long term learning and habituation?

A

With habituation and long-term learning there are structural changes
The number of directs sensory to motor connections is decreased
This demonstrates that spaced (intermittent) training and distributing learning produce the best results

74
Q

explain sensitization

A

enhanced response to a stimuli

Involves second messenger G proteins and metabotropic receptors

75
Q

What is classical conditioning?

A

Pavlovs dog
: learning to associate two stimuli.
Involves facilitation of synaptic transmission
There must be pairing with the unconditioned stimulus to undergo conditioning effects
Cellular mechanisms are similar to sensitization
NMDA channels involved

76
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

learning to associate a specific behavior with a reinforcing event: trial and error learning.Similar mechanisms to classical conditioning

77
Q

What are the 4 intrinsic principles of motor learning

A

a. Arousal
b. Attention
c. Motivation
d. Memory

78
Q

elements of arousal

A

No learning is occurring
Can be an issue with patients who have neurological problems
As arousal increases you get stronger muscle contractions and increased co-activation
There is difficulty seen at both ends of the spectrum of arousal (not aroused enough in a coma → too agitated to cooperate)

79
Q

elements of attention

A

Ability to focus and attend to what one is doing
Reading a book and walking at the same time
Can be improved with training

80
Q

elements of memory

A

Many ways to compensate for memory deficits
Slow pace
One-step instructions
Reminders
Cognitive therapy
Can improve motor learning even without explicit learning

81
Q

elements of motivation

A

Inner urge to prompt a person to action with purpose
Infants have inner urge to explore
Reinforcers can increase motivation BUT they must be meaningful

82
Q

What is intrinsic feedback?

A

Comes to the person through various sensory systems as a result of movement (proprioception, kinesthesia)
Can have concurrent and terminal

83
Q

What is extrinsic feedback?

A
Supplements intrinsic
Concurrent
Continuous, small steps (hands all over when getting pt. up)
Terminal
One step given at the end
Enhances learning
84
Q

What is the difference between knowledge of performance and knowledge of results?

A

Knowledge of Results
WHAT they did → “Good, you got your arm up!!”
Knowledge of Performance
HOW they did it → “Do you know how you climbed the step?”
KP is better!!!!!!

85
Q

When should feedback be given?

A

before a new task is given

86
Q

What are the 3 types of models for practicing? Which is the best

A

Expert models
Demonstrator has mastered the task
Worst way to learn

Coping models
Demonstrator is only slightly better at the task
PT can turn themselves into a coping model

Peer models
Demonstrator is someone just as good/bad as you
Watching themselves in the mirror
Best way to learn

87
Q

a. whole vs part

A

i. whole: doing the entire task at once
ii. part: breaking the task down and doing each section of the task at a time
WHOLE IS BETTER

88
Q

b. variable vs consistent

A

i. variable: performing the task with different scenarios to have the ability to perform the task in a variety of ways
ii. consistent: performing the task exactly the same way over and over
VARIABLE IS BETTER; NONREPITIOUS REPETITION

89
Q

c. random vs blocked

A

i. random: alternating between tasks, switching back and forth between tasks
ii. blocked: only focusing on one task at a time, performing many repetitions of the same task over and over before switching to a new task completely
RANDOM IS BETTER

90
Q

d. massed vs distributed

A

i. massed: practice time > rest time (resting or performing a different task)
ii. distributed: rest time > practice time
DISTRIBUTED IS BETTER

91
Q

what is manual guidance?

A

This is considered concurrent feedback
Extrinsic because you are doing it to them
Use this when it is the only way you can convey the task

92
Q

Explain reflex hierarchy Theory

A

motor control emerges from reflexes that are nested within hierarchically organized levels of the CNS. Normal development is a process of increasing corticalization in the CNS. The cortex is the supreme commander.

93
Q

explain dynamic systems theory

A

a system that changes over time and has a set of orderly and persisting interrelationships between parts of a whole that all work together to perform a given function. Function is the result of how the various parts of the nervous system interact as well as nervous system interacting with other systems.
involves the concept of synergy

94
Q

what is a control parameter?

A

a. A factor which serves as a catalyst to change behavior (ex. the speed on the treadmill changed the horse’s behavior).
Pregnant woman tying her shoes differently
Patients with hemiplegia losing and relearning balance control
Speed of treadmill to go from walk to run
Walking on ice
Increasing ROM can change movement pattern
Stimulus is not the same as cause
Can change with time in the same individual

95
Q

difference between hierarchy and heterarchy

A

hierarchy has the cortex as the control

heterarchy is non-hierarchical; No strict order of command therefore no complex rules

96
Q

what is a phase shift?

A

a. Changes in behaviors that are often non-linear even when the change to the system was linear (the phase shifts were when the horse changed from walk to trot to canter, the speed of the treadmill was increased linearly).

97
Q

What is the difference between creative and stable phase?

A

a. Creative phase: the system is unstable and new behaviors can emerge.
b. Stable phase: the system is maintaining a specific form of behavior.
we are drawn towards efficiency

98
Q

what are constraints?

A

a. Characteristics of an element in a system that limits, confines, retains or restricts behavior.

99
Q

what are affordances?

A

a. Possibilities that an object invites, supports, provides or affords for a particular behavior.
A chair can afford sitting, kneeling, standing on the seat, hiding under it