Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

upper extremities in spastic flexed position with internal rotation and adduction with lower extremities in spastic extended position, internally rotated, and adducted

A

decorticate rigidity

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2
Q

upper and lower extremities in spastic extension, adduction, and internal rotation with wrist and fingers flexed, plantar portions of the feet flexed and inverted, trunk extended, and head retracted

A

decerebrate rigidity

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3
Q

what reflexes will be impaired with midbrain damage

A

righting reflexes

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4
Q

what reflexes will be impaired with basal ganglia damage

A

equilibrium reactions and protective extension

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5
Q

what is a common feature of cerebellar damage

A

ataxia

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6
Q

what is a critical difference between a coma and vegetative state

A

sleep-wake cycle

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7
Q

3 behavioral areas of the Glasgow coma scale

A

motor responses
verbal responses
eye opening

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8
Q

describe the levels of eye opening for the Glasgow coma scale and their related point values

A

no response (1)
response to pain not applied to face (2)
response to commands/verbal stimuli (3)
spontaneous eye opening (4)

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9
Q

describe the levels of verbal responses for the Glasgow coma scale and their related point values

A
no response (1)
incomprehensible speech (2)
inappropriate words (3)
confused but able to answer questions (4)
oriented to person, place, time (5)
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10
Q

describe the levels of motor responses for the Glasgow coma scale and their related point values

A

no response (1)
extension response to pain (decerebrate) (2)
flexion response to pain (decorticate) (3)
withdrawals from pain (4)
purposeful movement to pain (5)
obeys commands for movement (6)

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11
Q

describe the scoring for the Glasgow coma scale

A

below 8: severe brain injury
9-12: moderate brain injury
> 14: minor brain injury

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12
Q

Describe level I of the Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning

A

no response

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13
Q

Describe level II of the Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning

A

generalized response; inconsistent and non-purposeful reactions to stimuli

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14
Q

Describe level III of the Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning

A

localized response; reacts specifically to stimuli, though inconsistently

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15
Q

Describe level IV of the Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning

A

confused/agitated

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16
Q

Describe level V of the Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning

A

confused, inappropriate, non agitated

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17
Q

Describe level VI of the Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning

A

confused and appropriate

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18
Q

Describe level VII of the Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning

A

automatic and appropriate

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19
Q

Describe level VIII of the Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning

A

purposeful and appropriate

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20
Q

What Ranchos Los Amigo Score would an individual with heightened activity state and severe decreased ability to process information; max A with brief attention

A

Ranchos Los Amigos Scale IV

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21
Q

What Ranchos Los Amigo Score would an individual with alert with fairly consistent reactions; complex commands cause random responses; max A no goal directed behavior and ataxia

A

Ranchos Los Amigos Scale V

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22
Q

What Ranchos Los Amigo Score would an individual with goal-directed behavior but dependent on external output for direction; mod A for 30 minutes of attention; NEW LEARNING

A

Ranchos Los Amigos Scale VI

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23
Q

What Ranchos Los Amigo Score would an individual that behaves appropriately and is oriented to place and routine but displays shallow recall; min A for ADLs; carryover of new learning

A

Ranchos Los Amigos Scale VII

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24
Q

What Ranchos Los Amigo Score would an individual that is alert and oriented and able to recall and integrate past and recent events; SBA for 1 hour of attention; increased rate of depression due to awareness

A

Ranchos Los Amigos Scale VIII

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25
Q

what is the top priority in the acute phase of a TBI

A

positioning and PROM

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26
Q

what is the preferred position for clients with abnormal tone following a TBI

A

side lying or semi-prone

provides sensory input

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27
Q

if spasticity is present following a TBI what splint would be prescribed as well as the wear schedule

A

resting hand splint when not involved in activity (alternating 2 hour periods)
anti-spasticity splint- abduct the fingers

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28
Q

what system should be used to track arousal and alertness to establish a method of communication initially

A

yes-no system (can be done through eye blinks)

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29
Q

what may be treated through interventions that focus on compensatory strategies for control such as weighting of body parts and use of weighted utensils/cups

A

ataxia

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30
Q

what may be treated through hand-over-hand exercises to repair damaged neural pathways; pictures or written steps may also work

A

apraxia

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31
Q

at what stage of rehabilitation would you most likely be able to use errorless learning, fading cues, and positive encouragement to restore competence in self-maintenance roles for TBI

A

post acute rehabilitation

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32
Q

birth defect caused when the backbone and spinal canal do not close before birth

A

myelomeningocele

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33
Q

growth of a cyst in the spinal cord

A

syringomyelia

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34
Q

complete injuries that have some innervation of dermatomes below the level of the injury; strengthening these muscles may dramatically improve functional performance

A

zone of partial preservation

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35
Q

initial stage of SCI that may last between 24 hours and 6 weeks where reflex activity ceases below the level of the injury, eventually resulting in spasticity

A

spinal shock

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36
Q

what level of SCI would indicate the need for respiratory assistance and an electric WC with sip and puff capabilities

A

C1-C4

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37
Q

what level of SCI would indicate the ability to breathe on one’s one, ability to raise the arms and flex the elbow and use an electric WC with hand controls

A

C5

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38
Q

what level of SCI would indicate moderate assistance for personal care, some wrist extension, and possibility of driving a vehicle with hand controls

A

C6

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39
Q

what level of SCI would indicate limited assistance for personal care; elbow extension, wrist flexion/extension, and partial finger movement; independent transfers

A

C7

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40
Q

what level of SCI would indicate partial assistance for heavy duty domestic care

A

C8

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41
Q

what level of SCI would indicate normal UE ROM and strength

A

T1-T5

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42
Q

what level of SCI would indicate the possibility of standing in a standing frame or walking with braces

A

T6-T12

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43
Q

what level of SCI would indicate partial paralysis in the hips and legs and possibility of walking with braces

A

L1-L5

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44
Q

what level of SCI would indicate the likelihood of walking with assistance and ability to load a WC into a car independently

A

S1-S5

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45
Q

if sensation or return of motor function does not occur in _________ after the injury, motor function is less likely to return

A

24-48 hours

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46
Q

most recovery for a SCI occurs in the first ________ post injury and continues for ___________ or longer with a slower rate of recovery

A

3 months

18 months

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47
Q

positioning for orthostatic hypotension

A

supine with feet elevated above the heart

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48
Q

positioning for autonomic dysreflexia

A

standing, loosening restrictive clothing/devices, and checking catheter for obstruction

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49
Q

visual inspection for asymmetry of LE color, size, and temperature is essential for identifying a

A

deep vein thrombosis

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50
Q

type of pain that occurs with muscle over use

A

nociceptive

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51
Q

type of paint that occurs with nerve damage

A

neuropathic

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52
Q

the initial physical evaluation for a SCI should start with

A

identification of precautions to identify how much movement and load is allowed without jeopardizing spinal integrity

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53
Q

assessment completed by the health care team and includes measures of ADL performance, sphincter control, respiration, and mobility for spinal cord injuries

A

the spinal cord independence measure

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54
Q

assessment specific for clients with tetraplegia

A

The quadriplegia index of function

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55
Q

phase of SCI recovery focused on environmental control, positioning, and ROM

A

acute recovery phase

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56
Q

what should be the position of the UEs in the acute phase of recovery for SCI

A
80° shoulder abduction
external rotation
scapular depression
elbow extension
forearm pronation
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57
Q

how often should weight shifts occur

A

every 30-60 minutes

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58
Q

important physical interventions for C5 SCI

A

mobile arm support and universal cuff for activity and grasp

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59
Q

important physical interventions for C6-C7 SCI

A

wrist-drive wrist-hand (tenodesis) splint for functional activity and pinch strength

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60
Q

important physical interventions for C8 SCI

A

grasping objects with MCP extension and PIP/DIP flexion

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61
Q

communication impairment is most commonly caused by damage to the

A

left hemisphere of the brain

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62
Q

loss of all language ability

A

global aphasia

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63
Q

broken speech, slow, labored speech with frequent mispronunciations

A

Broca’s aphasia

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64
Q

impaired auditory reception; speech may be fluent but is often meaningless of nonsensical

A

Wernicke’s aphasia

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65
Q

difficulty finding words

A

anomic aphasia

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66
Q

articulation disorder resulting from paralysis of the organs of speech

A

dysarthria

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67
Q

difficulty completing planned movements

A

motor apraxia

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68
Q

difficulty conceptualizing planned, multistep movements

A

ideational apraxia

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69
Q

difficulty recognizing objects

A

visual agnosia

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70
Q

common psychosocial disorder as a result of a stroke

A

depression

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71
Q

the barthel index, FIM, COPM, assessment of motor and process skills, stroke impact scale, and Arnadottir OT-ADL scale are common assessments for what type of injury

A

stroke

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72
Q

multidisciplinary team assessment that addresses several client factors for a stroke

A

National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale

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73
Q

functional test for the hemiplegic/paretic UE, arm mobility test, and wolf motor function test are all assessments specific to what

A

UE with hemiparesis

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74
Q

assessment not within the context of functional task performance used to assess postural adaptation

A

Berg Balance Scale

Functional Reach Test

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75
Q

approach to address environmental and activity considerations which has shown significant effectiveness in stroke rehabilitation compared with traditional therapy approaches; see’s person and environment as heterarchical organized

A

task-oriented approach

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76
Q

useful activities to address postural adaptation in standing for stroke recovery

A

kitchen tasks

allow for sturdy support with use of countertop if postural correction is needed

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77
Q

impairment of voluntary and spontaneous movement initiation resulting in freezing, especially during gait for PD, also present in Huntington’s disease

A

akinesia

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78
Q

slowed motor movement

A

bradykinesia

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79
Q

decreased coordination of movement

A

dysmetria

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80
Q

muscle stiffness that impairs movement

A

rigidity

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81
Q

involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation observed as a muscle twitch

A

fasciculation

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82
Q

small rapid steps resulting from a forward-tilted head and trunk posture

A

festinating gait

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83
Q

numbness and tingling because of sensory nerve changes

A

paresthesia

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84
Q

typical initial symptoms of MS

A

vision, dizziness, weakness

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85
Q

impaired balance and coordination while performing voluntary movement

A

ataxia

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86
Q

a sudden loss of vision with pain in or behind the eye, with symptoms possibly subsiding after 3-6 weeks without residual impairments. common with MS

A

optic neuritis

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87
Q

slow enunciation with frequent hesitations at the beginning of words or syllables. common with MS

A

scanning speech

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88
Q

lability is generally attributed to damage of which area of the brain

A

frontal lobe; right side

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89
Q

MS that has a fluctuating course of relapses with associated neurologic deficits, followed by periods of relative quiet

A

relapse-remitting

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90
Q

MS characterized by cessation of fluctuations with slow deterioration

A

secondary progressive

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91
Q

MS characterized by fluctuation with relapses and deterioration between relapses

A

secondary progressive with relapses

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92
Q

MS characterized by deterioration from the beginning

A

primary progressive

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93
Q

MS characterized by progression with relapses

A

progressive relapsing

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94
Q

medication used for functional skills

A

methylprednisolone

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95
Q

gabapentin is used for

A

pain

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96
Q

oxybutynin is used for

A

urinary problems

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97
Q

assessment of short distance walking, hand function, and cognition for MS

A

MS functional composite

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98
Q

one of the most important assessments for MS that measures endurance

A

Modified Fatigue Impact Scale

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99
Q

goals for MS should be

A

compensatory

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100
Q

contraindications to intervention for MS

A

hot temperature modalities (moist heat or fluidotherapy) and over exertion

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101
Q

therapeutic exercise for MS should be done

A

at submaximal resistance with frequent repetition to avoid overuse

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102
Q

encouraging proximal stabilization and hand-over-hand techniques for fine motor tasks can be useful in the presence of what symptom

A

ataxia

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103
Q

primary brain areas affected in parkinsons and the neurotransmitter that is diminished

A

basal ganglia/substantia nigra

dopamine

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104
Q

speed and accuracy of motor skills, postural stability, cognition, affect, and expression are mediated by what neurotransmitter

A

dopamine

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105
Q

condition in which people experience symptoms similar to those of parkinsons but the cause is related to the ingestion of drugs or other toxic chemicals (drugs to treat mental illness)

A

secondary parkinsonism

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106
Q

jerky sometimes painful movement with joint mobility most commonly in the UEs

A

cogwheel motions

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107
Q

smaller handwriting

A

micropraphia

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108
Q

reduced volume of speech

A

hypophonia

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109
Q

clinical stage of PD with unilateral symptoms, resting tremor, and none or minimal loss of function

A

stage 1

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110
Q

clinical stage of PD with bilateral symptoms, balance unaffected, problems with trunk mobility and postural reflexes

A

stage 2

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111
Q

clinical stage of PD with impaired balance secondary to postural instability, mild/moderate impaired function

A

stage 3

112
Q

clinical stage of PD with decreased postural stability, decreased function, impaired mobility, need for assistance with ADLs, and poor fine motor and dexterity

A

stage 4

113
Q

clinical stage of PD with total dependence for mobility and ADLs

A

stage 5

114
Q

medication used for PD that increases dopamine with side effects of nausea and dyskinesia

A

levodopa

115
Q

application of heat via an electrode or y-knife radiosurgery to destroy part of the thalamus to reduce tremors with PD with effects lasting more than 10 years

A

thalamotomy

116
Q

application of heat via an electrode or y-knife radiosurgery to destroy part of the globus pallidus to reduce tremors, shuffling gait, flat affect, rigidity, and bradykinesia for PD with the effects lasting about 5 years

A

pallidotomy

117
Q

delivery of electrical impulses to areas of the brain through an implanted device to reduce tremor for PD; has an external switch that can be turned on/off; generator must be replaced every 3-5 years

A

deep brain stimulation

118
Q

clinical stage of PD with unilateral symptoms, resting tremor, and none or minimal loss of function

A

stage 1

119
Q

clinical stage of PD with bilateral symptoms, balance unaffected, problems with trunk mobility and postural reflexes

A

stage 2

120
Q

clinical stage of PD with impaired balance secondary to postural instability, mild/moderate impaired function

A

stage 3

121
Q

clinical stage of PD with decreased postural stability, decreased function, impaired mobility, need for assistance with ADLs, and poor fine motor and dexterity

A

stage 4

122
Q

clinical stage of PD with total dependence for mobility and ADLs

A

stage 5

123
Q

medication used for PD that increases dopamine with side effects of nausea and dyskinesia

A

levodopa

124
Q

application of heat via an electrode or y-knife radiosurgery to destroy part of the thalamus to reduce tremors with PD with effects lasting more than 10 years

A

thalamotomy

125
Q

application of heat via an electrode or y-knife radiosurgery to destroy part of the globus pallidus to reduce tremors, shuffling gait, flat affect, rigidity, and bradykinesia for PD with the effects lasting about 5 years

A

pallidotomy

126
Q

delivery of electrical impulses to areas of the brain through an implanted device to reduce tremor for PD; has an external switch that can be turned on/off; generator must be replaced every 3-5 years

A

deep brain stimulation

127
Q

interventions using counting or singing to help clients fine tune movement is useful for which disorder

A

PD

128
Q

symptoms of ALS progress

A

distal to proximal

129
Q

corticobular tract symptoms of ALS

A

dysphagia and dysarthria

130
Q

client factors typically not affected by ALS (4)

A

cognition
vision and hearing
sensation
bowel and bladder control

131
Q

stage of ALS characterized by having the ability to walk, independence with ADLs, but some weakness

A

stage 1

132
Q

stage of ALS characterized by ability to walk but moderate weakness

A

stage 2

133
Q

stage of ALS characterized by ability to walk but severe weakness

A

stage 3

134
Q

stage of ALS characterized by requiring a WC for mobility, assistance with ADLs, and severe leg weakness

A

stage 4

135
Q

stage of ALS characterized by requiring a WC for mobility, dependence for ADLs, and severe weakness in arms and legs

A

stage 5

136
Q

stage of ALS characterized by being confined to bed and dependence for ADLs and self-care

A

stage 6

137
Q

what does death typically occur secondarily to with ALS

A

respiratory failure

138
Q

medication used for ALS

A

riluzole

139
Q

initial symptoms of ALS

A

small muscle weakness of hands, asymmetrical foot drop (with or without night cramps in the calves)

140
Q

inflammatory disease that causes demyelination of axons in the peripheral nerves with rapid symmetrical progression of symptoms and ascending pattern of flaccid paralysis that starts in the feet; may affect respiratory muscles

A

Guillan-Barre syndrome

141
Q

stage of GBS with acute weakness in at least 2 extremities that reaches maximum in 2-4 weeks (30% need mechanical ventilation)

A

onset and acute inflammatory stage

142
Q

stage of GBS where symptoms are most disability with little or no change over a few days or weeks

A

plateau phase

143
Q

stage of GBS with remyelination and axonal regeneration occurs over 2 years starts at the head/neck and traveling distally

A

recovery phase

144
Q

description of sensation loss in GBS

A

glove and stocking distribution

145
Q

hereditary neurological disorder that leads to severe physical and metal disabilities

A

Huntington’s disease

146
Q

rapid involuntary irregular movement of distal extremities and face that increase during stressful situations and lessen or absent during voluntary motor activities and sleep; characteristic of Huntington’s disease

A

chorea

147
Q

motor restlessness. characteristic of Huntington’s disease

A

Akathisia

148
Q

abnormal, sustained posturing of a body part, typically the arms, head, or trunk. characteristic of Huntington’s disease

A

dystonia

149
Q

medication used to reduce chorea

A

haloperidol

150
Q

assesses changes in the areas of motor function, cognitive function, functional capacity, and behavioral abnormalities for Huntington’s disease

A

Unified Huntington’s Disease Rating Scale

151
Q

cerebrovascular disease (series of small strokes) leading to focal lesions on the brain and neurotransmitter disruption; less severe memory involvement; gait disturbance; sudden appearance of symptoms; emergency medical treatment necessary

A

vascular dementia

152
Q

form of dementia characterized by disinhibited behavior, decreased social tact, lack of empathy and interest; immediate distinct onset

A

frontotemporal dementia

153
Q

form of dementia with parkinosonism like symptoms

A

dementia with lewy bodies

154
Q

involuntary resistance to passive movement of the extremities

A

paratonia

155
Q

at what stage of dementia would an individual believe that they are in an earlier stage of life, unable to live alone, and can no longer attend to ADLs

A

middle

156
Q

what does the Blessed dementia scale measure

A

cognition

157
Q

Allen’s cognitive level characterized by automatic actions, total cognitive assist, limited attention, motor responses to one-word commands, assistance with mobility, dependent for ADLs, and 24-hour supervision

A

level 1

158
Q

Allen’s cognitive level characterized by postural actions, maximum cognitive assistance, one step motor actions, ADL imitation, ability to eat finger foods, wandering, around the clock supervision, and interventions that guide the client through physical actions

A

level 2

159
Q

Allen’s cognitive level characterized by manual actions, moderate cognitive assistance, the use of tactile cues, inability to learn new behaviors, the need for routine, ability to perform grooming with sequence assistance, and the need for 24-hour supervision

A

level 3

160
Q

Allen’s cognitive level characterized by goal directed activity minimum cognitive assistance, the need for visual and tactile cues, ability to follow 2 or 3 step commands, task set up for ADLs, safety protection for wandering, and 24-hour supervision

A

level 4

161
Q

Allen’s cognitive level characterized by exploratory actions standby supervision for cognitive assistance, learning through meaningful stimuli, external cueing, trial-and-error problem solving, 4 to 5 step processes, new learning, independence in ADLs

A

level 5

162
Q

Allen’s cognitive level characterized by planned actions, independence, and the absence of disability

A

level 6

163
Q

at what cognitive level would you introduce the cordovan stitch

A

level 5

164
Q

at which cognitive level would you introduce the whip stitch

A

level 4

165
Q

at which cognitive level would you introduce the running stitch

A

level 3

166
Q

intervention to prevent self destructive behavior for dementia

A

milieu therapy

167
Q

motor learning model where postural adjustment and limb movement linked to learning process; learning not developmental; focus on learning strategies and problem solving rather than specific movements

A

Carr and Shepard’s Motor Relearning Program (CMP)

168
Q

stage of motor learning characterized by initial instruction and practice

A

skill acquisition (cognitive stage)

169
Q

stage of motor learning characterized by carryover of initially learned skill

A

skill retention (associated stage)

170
Q

stage of motor learning characterized by demonstrating a new skill in context

A

skill transfer (autonomous stage)

171
Q

sequence of motor learning

A
initial task
near transfer
intermediate transfer
far transfer
very far transfer
172
Q

FOR characterized by handling

A

NDT

173
Q

FOR characterized by diagonals and motor behavior expressed in orderly sequence of patterned movements

A

PNF

174
Q

FOR characterized by recovery through 7 sequential stages of motor recovery; focus on synergies

A

Brunnstrom

175
Q

FOR characterized by 4 sequential phases: reciprocal inhibition, co-contraction, heavy work, skill; focus on ontogenic motor patterns

A

Rood

176
Q

undershooting a target

A

hypometria

177
Q

overshooting a target

A

hypermetria

178
Q

joints moving separately toward a desired target creating a decomposition of movement

A

dyssynergia

179
Q

rigidity with consistent contraction throughout range

A

lead pipe

180
Q

dyskinetic; inadequate timing, force, and accuracy of movement

A

athetosis

181
Q

unilateral chorea with violent, forceful movements of proximal muscles and extremities

A

hemiballismus

182
Q

what type of splint allows for maximum sensory feedback when worn

A

dorsal based splints

183
Q

CN responsible for smell; assessed by having the patient sniff various substances

A

CN I: olfactory

184
Q

CN responsible for vision; assessed using eye charts and visual field testing

A

CN II: optic

185
Q

CN responsible for medial and vertical eye movement and proprioception assessed by visual tracking and pupillary reflex

A

CN III: oculomotor

186
Q

CN responsible for downward/inward eye movement assessed by visual tracking

A

CN IV: trochlear

187
Q

CN responsible for mastication and face sensation assessed by observing jaw ROM and sensation modalities to the face

A

CN V: trigeminal

188
Q

CN responsible for lateral eye movement assessed with visual tracking

A

CN VI: abducens

189
Q

CN responsible for facial expression, salivary glands, and taste assessed by observing facial symmetry and taste testing

A

CN VII: facial

190
Q

CN responsible for acoustic equilibrium and hearing assessed with a tuning fork

A

CN VIII: vestibulocochlear

191
Q

CN responsible for the pharynx, salivary glands, and taste assessed using taste testing and the gag reflex

A

CN IX: glossopharyngeal

192
Q

CN responsible for the larynx, pharynx, abdominal organs, and the viscera assessed using the gag reflex

A

CN X: vagus

193
Q

CN responsible for the sternocleidomastoid, trapezius, and soft palate assessed using MMT

A

CN XI: spinal accessory

194
Q

CN responsible for tongue movement

A

CN XII: hypoglossal

195
Q

postural intervention for swallowing

A

chink tuck with forward head tilt

196
Q

swallowing adaptation with prolonged tongue contract for a prolonged rise of the larynx

A

Mendelsohn’s maneuver

197
Q

standardized test of sensory integration with a focus on vestibular in 3 areas (1) bilateral motor coordination (2) postural control (3) reflex integration

A

DeGangi-Berk Test of Sensory Integration

198
Q

anterior/ventral horn cells are:

A

efferent motor neurons

199
Q

posterior/dorsal horn cells are:

A

afferent sensory neurons

200
Q

fight or fight emergency response system; raises HR, BP, constricts vessels, inhibits peristalsis

A

sympathetic

201
Q

restores homeostasis, slows HR and BP, increased peristalsis

A

parasympathetic

202
Q

artery responsible for stroke that involves aphasia and apraxia (when left sided) unilateral neglect (when right sided)

A

middle cerebral artery

203
Q

artery responsible for stroke that involves grasp reflex, incontinence, confusion, apathy, and mutism

A

anterior cerebral artery

204
Q

artery responsible for stroke that involves homonymous hemianopsia, thalamic pain, hemi-sensory loss, alexia (reading aloud and understanding written word)

A

posterior cerebral artery

205
Q

what are pseudo-bulbar signs of a stroke

A

dysphagia, dysarthria, emotional instability

206
Q

ASIA classification characterized by no sensory/motor function preserved in sacral segments

A

ASIA A

207
Q

ASIA classification characterized by sensory but no motor function preserved below level and through sacrum

A

ASIA B

208
Q

ASIA classification characterized by motor function preserved below level, key muscle groups below level less than 3/5

A

ASIA C

209
Q

ASIA classification characterized by motor function preserved below level and key muscle groups below more than 3/5

A

ASIA D

210
Q

ASIA classification characterized by normal sensory and motor function

A

ASIA E

211
Q

clinical SCI syndrome typically the result of hyperextension injuries where the UE are worse than the LE

A

central cord

212
Q

clinical SCI syndrome that is typically the result of trauma resulting in hemi-section of the spinal cord

A

brown-sequard syndrome

213
Q

clinical SCI syndrome that is typically the result of flexion injuries and result in bilateral loss of motor function, pain, pinprick, and temperature sensation below the lesion

A

anterior cord syndrome

214
Q

clinical SCI syndrome that is typically the result of injury to the posterior columns, loss of proprioception

A

posterior cord syndrome

215
Q

clinical SCI syndrome that is typically the result of injury to the sacral cord and lumbar nerve roots; LE sensory and motor loss, areflexic bowel and bladder

A

conus medularis

216
Q

clinical SCI syndrome that is typically the result of injury at L1 and below; flaccid paralysis with no spinal reflex; areflexic bowel and bladder

A

cauda equina

217
Q

cerebral palsy characterized by a lesion in the motor cortex and spasticity with flexor and extensor imbalance

A

spastic cerebral palsy

218
Q

cerebral palsy characterized by a lesion in the basal ganglia and fluctuations in muscle tone (dystonia, athetosis, chorea)

A

dyskinetic cerebral palsy

219
Q

cerebral palsy characterized by a lesion in the cerebellum, hypotonia and ataxic movement, lack of stability and co-activation, and primitive patterns of movement

A

ataxic cerebral palsy

220
Q

involuntary, non repetitive movement, occasionally stereotyped affecting distal, proximal, and axial musculature in various combinations; present in basal ganglia disorders

A

dyskinesias

221
Q

brief and rapid contraction of a muscle or group of muscles

A

myoclonus

222
Q

failure of the spinal cord vertebral arches to fully form to enclose the neural tube causing protrustion

A

spina bifida

223
Q

spina bifida with bony malformation and separation of vertebral arches with no external manifestations; may not be discovered until late adulthood

A

spina bifida oculta

224
Q

spina bidifda with external manifestations with the site covered

A

occult spinal dysraphism (OSD)

225
Q

spina bifida with an exposed pouch containing the spinal cord and meninges

A

spina bifida cysta

226
Q

spina bifida with protrusion of the sack through the spine containing CSF and meninges

A

meningocele

227
Q

spina bifida with protrustion through the spine containing CSF, meninges, SC, and nerve roots

A

myelomeningocele

228
Q

occurs when the SC is stretched from compression or entrapment, can be developmental or the result of an injury

A

tethered cord syndrome

229
Q

a ventriculoperitoneal shunt is used to treat what syndrome and is crucial to monitor blockage and infection

A

spina bifida

230
Q

most common form of muscular dystrophy characterized by enlarged calf muscles and forearm/thigh muscles; progressive proximal joint weakness; Trendelenburg gait and Gower’s sign; survive to 20’

A

Duchene’s muscular dystrophy

231
Q

waddling gait

A

Trendelenburg sign

232
Q

crawling the hand up the thighs to move from floor to standing

A

Gower’s sign

233
Q

form of Duchene’s muscular dystrophy that progresses slower and is less severe/predictable; there is loss of motor function, enlarged calves, and cardiac involvement with survival into late adulthood

A

Becker’s muscular dystrophy

234
Q

muscular dystrophy detected at birth with anterior horn cell loss; stable, progressive, and mild with weakness, deformities, and contractures; includes congenital heart defects, spinal defects, torticollis, and diaphragm involvement

A

arthogryposis multiplex congenita

235
Q

muscular dystrophy that develops between 10 and 30 and affects the proximal pelvis and shoulder muscles initially with slow progress

A

limb-girdle muscular dystrophy

236
Q

muscular dystrophy that appears early in adolesence and affects the face, UEs, and scapula with slow progress

A

fascioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy

237
Q

type of spinal muscular dystrophy that develops in birth/infancy also called Werdnig Hoffman disease with a life expectancy of 2 years

A

type I

238
Q

type of spinal muscular dystrophy that develops in children with a life expectancy into early childhood

A

type II

239
Q

type of spinal muscular dystrophy that develops in older children with the later the onset being less severe

A

type III

240
Q

type of spinal muscular dystrophy that develops in adolescents and adults and is less severe

A

type IV

241
Q

A weakness and rapid fatigue of muscles under voluntary control innervated by the CNs

A

myasthenia gravis

242
Q

a disorder of peripheral nerves that results in progressive weakness in peroneal and distal legs with onset in the teenage years or earlier

A

Charcot-Marie Tooth disease

243
Q

disorder with loss of voluntary but preservation of reflexive eye movement, bradykinesia, rigidity, axial dystonia, pseudobulbar palsy, and dementia

A

progressive supranuclear palsy

244
Q

type of spinocerebellar degeneration that develops in early childhood/adolescence that is characterized by unsteady gait, UE ataxia, dysarthria, tremor, areflexia, and potentially scoliosis and cardiomyopathy

A

Frederick’s ataxia

245
Q

type of spinocerebellar degeneration that results in cerebellum/inferior olive pathology with cerebellar symptoms

A

cerebellar cortex degeneration

246
Q

type of spinocerebellar degeneration that develops in young to middle life characterize by spasticity, sensory loss, and autonomic dysfunction

A

multiple systems degeneration

247
Q

paralysis of the brachial plexus and the 5th and 6th cranial nerves (sometimes includes C7) with rotator cuff muscles and deltoid and biceps paralyzed and presents in a waiters tip position; contractures develop

A

Erb’s palsy

248
Q

paralysis of lower brachial plexus (CN7 and CN9 and sometimes T1) with paralysis of the hand and wrist with ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome

A

Klumpke’s palsy

249
Q

disorder characterized by excessive pupil constriction (miosis), drooped eye lid (ptosis), and facial anhidrosis (inability to sweat normally)

A

Horner Syndrome; Klumpke’s palsy

250
Q

Guillan-Barre presents with more ________ than _________ dysfunction

A

weakness than sensory

251
Q

disorder of recovered motor neurons breaking down and causing new muscle weakness with onset 15 years post-recovery

A

post-polio syndrome

252
Q

chronic muscle lengthening and shortening causing muscle misalignment and stress to soft tissues

A

postural stress syndrome (PSS)

253
Q

habituated movement dysfunction

A

movement adaptation syndrome (MAS)

254
Q

poor _________ processing is characterized by impaired body scheme, somatodyspraxia, awkward motor control, manipulation, and coordination

A

tactile

255
Q

poor __________ processing is characterized by poor awareness, clumsiness, awkwardness, distractibility, motor planning, the need for visual cues, poor force modulation, and seeks resistance/presure

A

proprioceptive

256
Q

poor __________ processing is characterized by low muscle tone, postural-ocular deficits, poor balance/equilibrium reactions, impaired bilateral coordination, low endurance, and deficient motor planning

A

vestibular

257
Q

sensory based motor disorder involves the ________ and ________ systems and is characterized by _________ and __________

A

proprioceptive
vestibular
dyspraxia
postural disorders

258
Q

seizures that involve widespread involvement of both sides of the brain

A

primary generalized

259
Q

seizures that involve a small local area and can quickly spread (secondary generalized)

A

partial seizures

260
Q

type of primary seizure common in children that begins with a brief warning and includes a tonic phase, clonic phase, and postical state

A

tonic-clonic/grand mal

261
Q

type of primary seizure that is difficult to control that involves involuntary jerking and loss of tone

A

myoclonic-akinetic seizure

262
Q

type of partial seizure that involves an abnormal impulse loop typically in the motor cortex of the frontal lobe and involves involuntary repetetive jerking of the hand/arm; can become generalized and lead to LOC

A

simple seizure

263
Q

type of partial seizure where symptoms vary and include an alteration in consciousness and responsiveness; person may appear confused, dazed, smack their lips, chew, and have visual/auditory sensations prior to the seizure

A

complex/psychomotor seizure

264
Q

seizure that includes dropping of the head and flexion of the arms; can occur up to 100 times a day; poor prognosis and may eventually be replaced by other seizures

A

infantile spasms/West syndrome/jackknife epilepsy

265
Q

seizures that occur in children that are severe and related to intellectual disability; seizures vary throughout life and are hard to control; may lead to brain disorders and regression

A

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

266
Q

progressive encephalopathy that involves loss of language skills, auditory agnosia, and behavioral disturbances

A

Landau-Kleffner syndrome

acquired epileptic aphasia

267
Q

most common type of seizure in children that last for 10 minutes with LOC, generalized jerking, grand mal seizure, and no damage

A

simple ferbile seizure

268
Q

prolonged seizure or seizures in rapid progression that can be triggered when medication is stopped abruptly and can be life threatening; typically occurs with tonic-clonic seizures that are not well controlled

A

status epilpeticus

269
Q

recovery position for seizures

A

side-lying

270
Q

deficit in organizing and assembling parts into a whole.

A

constructional disorder

271
Q

inability to perceive depth in relation to self and others

A

stereopsis

272
Q

when a motion in one extremity is copied in the opposite extremity

A

associated reaction

273
Q

when does spasticity limit ROM

A

when velocity is a factor in movement

274
Q

with a hemiparetic are, activities should encourage

A

external rotation
shoulder flexion within 90°
scapular protraction

275
Q

should overhead pulleys be used with a hemiparetic arm

A

no

276
Q

what is best evidence for fall prevention for individuals with dementia

A

engagement in daily structured activity