Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What are two high yield unique characteristics for the optic nerve

A

1) Oligodendrocytes provide myelin for the optic nerve because it is really an extension of the brain, therefore for demyelinating diseases that target oligodendrocytes (multiple sclerosis), one of the first symptoms is visual loss.
2) Again as an extension of the brain, the optic nerve is has meninges, dura, arachnoid, pia. Therefore there is a subarachnoid space and this can be affected by intracranial pressure.

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2
Q

Patient presents with monocular, right nasal hemianopia. What is likely the underlying cause?

A

A medially expanding aneurism of internal carotid artery on the right side.

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3
Q

A 62 yr old woman comes to physician with decreased vision. Over the last 6 weeks she has had progressive difficulty with visualizing objects on her right side. She also has intermittent headaches that are worse in the morning. Her medical history is significant for non-small cell lung carcinoma that was diagnosed 2 years ago and treated surgically. PE shows right homonymous hemianopia. When light is shone in left eye, both pupils constrict. When light is immediately moved to right eye, her pupils appear to dilate. This patients symptoms are indicative of what

A

Left sided lesion of the optic tract.
This patient likely has a lesion involving the left optic tract. The optic tract contains mixed optic nerve fibers from the temporal part of the ipsilateral retina (nasal visual field) and fibers from the nasal part of the contralateral retina (temporal visual fields). Optic tract lesions consequently result in a contralateral homonymous hemianopia. The afferent limb of the pupillary light reflex involves the retina optic nerve, optic chiasm, optic tract fibers, and the pretectal nucleus in the midbrain.

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4
Q

pineal cyst

A

In most cases, a pineal cyst does not cause signs or symptoms. The majority of pineal cysts are small (roughly 80% are less than 10 mm in diameter) and asymptomatic. Symptomatic lesions are often larger (but not always), and occur most often in women in their second decade of life. Larger cysts (with a diameter >15 mm) may lead to various neurologic symptoms. Symptoms may be due to the cyst’s proximity to other structures in the brain, or hydrocephalus from compression of the cerebral aqueduct (a channel connecting the 3rd and 4th ventricles of the brain).[5]

When a pineal cyst does cause symptoms, they may include headaches (the most common symptom), hydrocephalus, disturbances in vision, and Parinaud syndrome. Although rare, people with symptomatic pineal cysts may have other symptoms such as difficulty moving (ataxia), mental and emotional disturbances, vertigo, seizures, sleep (circadian rhythm) troubles, vomiting, hormonal imbalances that may cause precocious puberty, or secondary parkinsonism.[5][6]

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5
Q

A 65-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to acute-onset slurred speech. He also has right-sided weakness but denies any trauma, headache, or loss of consciousness. His medical problems include hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. Neurologic examination shows right-sided lower facial droop with sparing of the forehead muscles. Motor strength is 3/5 on the right and 5/5 on the left with a Babinski response to the right. There is also dysmetria and dysdiadochokinesia involving his right upper and lower extremities. MRI of the brain reveals an acute lacunar infarct in the brainstem, as shown in the image below. (middle cerebellar peduncle)

Which of the following cranial nerve exits the brainstem closest to the level affected by this patient’s stroke?
A.      Facial
B.      Hypoglossal
C.      Oculomotor
D.      Trigeminal
E.       Trochlear
A

Correct answer: Trigeminal
This patient has an acute lacunar ischemic stroke affecting the left medial pons at the level of the middle cerebellar peduncle. The trigeminal nerve (CN V) exits the brainstem at the lateral aspect of the mid-pons at the level of the middle cerebellar peduncles (a key neuroanatomic landmark for locating the nerve). The trigeminal sensory nuclei (eg. Principal sensory, spinal, mesencephalic) run from the midbrain to the upper cervical spine and receive afferent signals for facial sensation via all 3 branches (ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular). The motor nucleus is located in the lateral mid-pons and sends efferent signals to the muscles of mastication (eg temporalis, masseter, pterygoids) via the mandibular branch.
Infarct involving the anterior pons can affect corticospinal tract (contralateral hemiparesis, Babinski sign) and corticobulbar tract (contralateral lower facial palsy, dysarthria). Disruption of the corticopontine fibers that convey motor information from the cortex to ipsilateral pontine gray matter may also result in contralateral dysmetria and dysdiadochokinesia (ataxic hemiparesis). The cerebrallar deficits are contralateral to the lesion as the pontocerebellar fibers arising from the pontine gray matter decussate and enter the cerebellum through the contralateral middle cerebellar peduncle. A: facial nerve exits lower at the pontocerebellar angle; B: facial nerve exits at the medulla level; C: oculomotor nerve exits at the midbrain level ventrally; E: Trochlear nerve exits at the midbrain level dorsally.

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6
Q

Where is broca’s area? (relative to brain structures)

A

Anterior to the central sulcus

Superior to sylvian fissure

Found in inferior frontal gyrus

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7
Q

What is unique about conduction aphasia

A

It is like the opposite of global aphasia. So Wernicke and Broca are both intact so comprehension is fine, fluency is fine.

Language skills that rely on speed are fucked.

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8
Q

GRIEF

5 stages
other symptoms
duration

A

The five stages of grief per the Kübler-Ross model are denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and
acceptance, not necessarily in that order.

Other normal grief symptoms include shock, guilt, sadness, anxiety, yearning, and somatic symptoms. Simple hallucinations of the deceased person are common (eg, hearing the deceased speaking).

Duration varies widely; usually

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9
Q

Major depressive disorder

Diagnostic criteria
Treatment
Sleep characteristics

A

Episodes characterized by at least 5 of the 9 diagnostic symptoms lasting ≥ 2 weeks (symptoms must include patient- reported depressed mood or anhedonia).

Treatment: CBT and SSRIs are first line.
SNRIs, mirtazapine, bupropion can also be considered. Antidepressants are indicated if bipolar disorder is ruled out. Electroconvulsive
therapy (ECT) in select patients.

Patients with depression typically have the
following changes in their sleep stages:
ƒ -decreased slow-wave sleep
ƒ -decreased REM latency
ƒ -increased REM early in sleep cycle
ƒ -increase total REM sleep
ƒ -Repeated nighttime awakenings
ƒ -Early-morning awakening (terminal
insomnia)
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10
Q

Depression, often milder, lasting at least 2 years

A

Dysthymia aka persistent depressive disorder

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11
Q

Depression with atypical features

Characteristics and treatment

A

Characterized by mood reactivity (being able to experience improved mood in response to positive events, albeit briely), “reversed” vegetative symptoms (hypersomnia, hyperphagia), leaden
paralysis (heavy feeling in arms and legs), long-standing interpersonal rejection sensitivity.
Most common subtype of depression.

Treatment: CBT and SSRIs are first line. MAO inhibitors are effective but not first line because of their risk profile.

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12
Q

Bipolar disorder (1 and 2)

treatment too

A
Bipolar disorder (manic depression)
Bipolar I defined by presence of at least 1 manic episode +/− a hypomanic or depressive episode.

Bipolar II defined by presence of a hypomanic and a depressive episode.
Patient’s mood and functioning usually return to normal between episodes. Use of antidepressants
can precipitate mania. *High suicide risk.

Treatment: mood stabilizers (eg, lithium, valproic acid,
carbamazepine, lamotrigine), atypical antipsychotics.

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13
Q

milder form of bipolar disorder lasting at least 2 years, fluctuating between mild depressive and hypomanic symptoms.

A

Cyclothymia

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14
Q

Onset before age 10. Severe and recurrent temper outbursts out of proportion to situation. Child is constantly angry and irritable between outbursts.

Treatment?

A

Disruptive mood
dysregulation
disorder

Treatment: psychostimulants, antipsychotics, CBT

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15
Q

Prader Willi and Angelman

A

Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS) –absent active
paternal gene at 15q11-13 or deletion
n Mild to moderate intellectual disability
n Hyperphagic and obese

o Angelman syndrome (AS) - 15q11q13 deletion of
maternal gene at 15q11-13
n Moderate to severe intellectual disability
n Motor delays, abnormal gait, epilepsy, paroxysmal
laughter
o PWS or AS clinical picture depends on parent
donating deleted chromosome

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16
Q

Fragile X

A

Fragile X syndrome is typically due to an expansion of the CGG triplet repeat within the Fragile X mental retardation 1 (FMR1) gene on the X chromosome.

Fragile X Syndrome (males and females)
2nd most common MR chromosomal abnormality
n Developmental delays, mild-moderate intellectual disability
n Connective tissue dysplasia
n Gaze aversion
n Macroorchidism
n Large appearing ears (not by measurement)

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17
Q

Characterized by poor social interactions, social communication deficits, repetitive/ritualized
behaviors, restricted interests. Must present in early childhood. May be accompanied by
intellectual disability; rarely accompanied by unusual abilities (savants). More common in boys.
Associated with increased head/brain size

A

Autism Spectrum Disorder

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18
Q

FA: Onset before age 12. Limited attention span and poor impulse control. Characterized by
hyperactivity, impulsivity, and/or inattention in multiple settings (school, home, places of worship,
etc). Normal intelligence, but commonly coexists with difficulties in school. Continues into
adulthood in as many as 50% of individuals.
Treatment?

A

ADHD

Treatment: stimulants (eg, methylphenidate and amphetamine) +/–
cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT); alternatives include atomoxetine, guanfacine, clonidine.

ADHD patients are not easily stimulated so they need stimulation..

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19
Q

Separation Anxiety Disorder & Treatment

A

Overwhelming fear of separation from home or attachment figure. Can be normal behavior up to
age 3–4. May lead to factitious physical complaints to avoid school.
Treatment: CBT, play therapy, family therapy

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20
Q

Enduring pattern of hostile, defiant behavior toward authority figures in the absence of serious
violations of social norms.

A

Oppositional defiant disorder

Treatment: psychotherapy such as CBT.

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21
Q

Repetitive and pervasive behavior violating the basic rights of others or societal norms (eg,
aggression to people and animals, destruction of property, theft). <18 yrs old, treatment?

A

After age 18, often reclassified as

antisocial personality disorder. Treatment for both: psychotherapy such as CBT.

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22
Q

What are alcohol withdrawal symptoms

A

Time from last drink: 3-36 hrs: minor symptoms similar to other depressants

6-48: withdrawal seizures

12-48: alcoholic hallucinosis

*peak at 36 hours

48-96 delirium tremens (DTs) in 5% of cases

Treatment: benzodiazepines

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23
Q

What functions are found in each part of the brain?

Frontal 
Parietal 
Temporal
Occipital 
Cerebellum
A

Frontal:

  • rostral: planning, problem solving, short term memory, controlling behavior
  • ventral: smell
  • Broca area: speech formation
  • rostral the motor strip: skilled movement
  • motor strip: voluntary

Parietal:

  • rostral: sensory perception of self and world
  • central: sensory data analyzed

Temporal:

  • memory learning,
  • visual
  • auditory data analyzed
  • Wernicke area: language interpretation

Occipital:

  • vision
  • visual data interpreted

Cerebellum:

  • balance
  • coordination

Limbic: contains the hippocampus and amygdala. Emotional processing and memory consolidation

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24
Q

What are the 12 cranial nerves and their functions?

A
  1. Olfactory: smell
  2. Optic: vision
  3. Oculomotor - all eye muscles except superior oblique muscle and external rectus
  4. Trochlear - superior oblique muscle
  5. Trigeminal - sensory: face, sinuses, teeth
    - motor: muscles of mastication
  6. Abducens - external rectus
  7. Facial - muscles of the face
  8. Vestibulocochlear - sensory inner ear
  9. Glossopharyngeal - pharyngeal musculature
    Sensory: posterior part of tongue, pharynx and tonsils
  10. Vagus - heart, lungs, bronchi, trachea, larynx, pharynx, GI tract, external ear
  11. Accessory - sternocleidomastoid, trapezius
  12. Hypoglossal - muscles of the tongue
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25
Q

What are the functions of astrocytes

A
  1. Form glial membrane (external limiting membrane)
  2. Component of blood-brain barrier
    a. Control K+
    b. Modulate vascular tone in the brain, controlling cerebral blood flow.
  3. Remove
    a. K+ from extracellular fluid at nodes of Ranvier during action potentials.
    b. Neurotransmitters from synaptic clefts (Prevents glutamate excitotoxicity.)
  4. Communicate through gliotransmitters (D-serine, glutamate, ATP) in response to adjacent synaptic activity.
  5. Produce neurotrophic factors.
  6. Produce scar tissue in response to CNS injury
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26
Q

What are satellite cells?

A

Satellite glial cells are the principal glial cells found in the peripheral nervous system, specifically in sensory, sympathetic, and parasympathetic ganglia. They compose the thin cellular sheaths that surround the individual neurons in these ganglia.

SGCs have been found to play a variety of roles, including control over the microenvironment of sympathetic ganglia. They are thought to have a similar role to astrocytes in the central nervous system (CNS). They supply nutrients to the surrounding neurons and also have some structural function. Satellite cells also act as protective, cushioning cells. Additionally, they express a variety of receptors that allow for a range of interactions with neuroactive chemicals.

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27
Q

What are the vertebrae and nerves of the spinal cord?

A

Vertebrae - C1-C7 *

T1-T12

L1-L5

S

Nerves, C1-C7, C8*. So the spinal nerves exit in the intervertebral foramen above the vertebraes. So C8 vertebrae does not exist but the nerve does. All the other nerves exit in a foramen below so T1-T12, L1-L5, S1-S5

The conus medullaris is around L1

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28
Q

Describe the spinothalamic tract

A

A unipolar primary sensory neuron synapses with a secondary sensory neuron in the dorsal horn. The tract neuron crosses the midline (decussation) and travels up to the brain via the anterolateral pathway aka spinothalamic and synapses at the thalamus where an interneuron that takes the signal to the primary somatosensory cortex

A major sensory tract fro the spinal cord to the cortex, crosses in the spinal cord, so the representation is in the opposite brain.

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29
Q

Describe the features of the brain stem

A

The brain stem - features long pathways, and cranial nerves instead of spinal nerves.

They are important for functions the head can do like facial expression, ingestion, respiration

–keep in mind the flexure when taking locations—

from rostral to caudal - midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

Midbrain: cerebral peduncle

  • Cranial, only 3 and 4
  • visual reflexes, visual motor control
  • **has dopamine projections to corticol areas significant for movement and “reward”

Pons - balloon aka “big bridge to cerebellum”
Cranial nerves - 5,6,7,8
Function - balance, sound localization, eye movement coordination

Medulla -pyramid
Cranial nerves - 9,10,11,12
Function:
-regulation of body homeostasis/heart rate, respiration, vasomotor tone, gastric secretions
-vomiting, coughing, sneezing, swallowing, gagging
Damage to medulla is death

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30
Q

Describe the RAS-reticular activating system

A

Major component: reticular formation—

Nuclei and neuronal circuits
• Net-like appearance
• Through the core of the brainstem. • Include projections to the cortex or spinal cord.

RAS - beings in the reticular formation
Rostral projections from the pons and midbrain (pontomesencephalic)
• Projection controls attention, arousal, sleep and wakefulness.
• Includes several neurotransmitters systems

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31
Q

Describe the corticospinal tract:

A

Corticospinal tract: Major motor pathway from the cortex to the spinal cord. Upper motor neuron crosses in the medulla to control contralateral muscles.

Projects to the spinal cord from the primary motor cortex as all do,

  • crosses at the medulla “pyramid decussation
  • travels through the lateral corticospinal tract
  • synapses in the anterior horn with the lower motor neuron which synapses on skeletal muscle
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32
Q

Describe and distinguish between the components of the blood-CSF and blood-brain
barrier.

A

Blood-CSF

  • choroid plexus which produces CSF and is found in all the major ventricles
  • blood vessels entering the choroid plexus
  1. Endothelial wall of the choroidal capillaries: No barrier– are
    fenestrated.
  2. Scattered pial cells.
  3. Choroidal epithelial creates a blood-CSF barrier by tight junctions
    – active transport, ion exchange mechanisms to determine
    flow of molecules (e.g., Na+, K+, Cl-, Mg++, folates)

Blood-brain barrier
-blood vessels in subarachnoid space meeting brain tissue

-is formed by tight junctions between the brain capillary endothelial cell. Astrocyte foot processes surround the capillary but are not part of the barrier. They can control blood flow

Controls ionic environment–neurotransmission

Protects brain from toxins

Prevents drugs from entering brain Contains transporters for some critical molecules (glucose and proteins)

The blood-brain barrier may be disrupted by infections, tumors or trauma, causing
“vasogenic edema”

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33
Q

Explain the flow of CSF beginning from the choroid plexus to the arachnoid villae.

A
  1. Arterial blood crosses the choroid epithelium
  2. Lateral ventricles >
  3. Interventricular foramen of Monroe >
  4. 3rd ventricles >
  5. Cerebral Aqueduct >
  6. 4th ventricle >
  7. Foramen of Magendie (1 medial) and Luschka (2 lateral) >
  8. Subarachnoid space around brain and spinal cord
  9. Arachnoid granulations > venous sinuses END
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34
Q

Describe and give the clinical rationale for the lumbar puncture

A

.Lumbar puncture

L3-L4 in adults

L4-L5 in children.

Contraindicated if there is HIGH Intracranial pressure: you could create a vacuum causing brain herniation

CSF pressure: normal is <20 cm H2O in lying position

  1. Obtaining samples of CSF important for identifying:
    - subarachnoid hemorrhage (detect blood)
    - infections ex. meningitis
    - Guillain Barre - an ascending weakness/paralysis commonly caused by GN Campylobacter Jejuni in which the body’s immune system attacks part of the peripheral nervous system
    - MS
  2. Introduce drugs
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35
Q

Identify and the meningeal layers surrounding the spinal cord and brain.

A

Brain:

—pachymeninges——-
Dura: 2 layers
-periosteal
-meningeal

  • —leptomeninges——-
  • Arachnoid - many arachnoid trabeculae and cisterns
  • Pia

Spinal cord:

  • 1 layer of dura mater
  • Arachnoid- fewer trabeculae and 1 cistern
  • Pia - forms denticulate ligaments (secures to arachnoid), filum terminale internum attaches to arachnoid, externum attaches to coccyx.)
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36
Q

Identify the dural folds and describe, generally, the common areas of brain herniation.

A
Falx cerebri - in	between
cerebral hemispheres	(in longitudinal fissure).

Falx cerebelli - in between two
hemispheres of cerebellum.

Tentorium cerebelli - in
between the posterior
cerebral hemispheres and
the cerebellum. Wraps around the brain stem, forming a roof

Diaphragm sellae - circular
fold beneath the brain that
covers the sella turcica.

Herniation:
1- Temporal transtentorial herniation aka uncal
tentorial notch: the midbrain reticular formation goes right through the notch which is a tight space. If there is increased pressure in the supratentorial space, the brain can herniate right there, go into a coma because RAS is impinged. Tumor in temporal lobe can cause this.

  1. Subfalcine aka Subdural- cingulate gyrus herniates below the falx cerebri - the most common form and does not necessarily mean severe symptoms, present as headache but can progress to contralateral leg weakness.
  2. Central herniation or downward transtentorial: the diencephalon (thalamus and hypothalamus) and medial parts of both temporal lobes are forces through a notch in the tentorioum cerebelli.
  3. Cerebellar tonsillar - is a type of cerebral herniation characterised by the inferior descent of the cerebellar tonsils below the foramen magnum. (seen in chiari I malformation
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37
Q

Describe the locations and causes of subdural, subarachnoid and epidural hematomas.

A

Epidural space: Potential space between the dura and the skull

  • note in the spinal cord this is a real space filled with epidural fat.
  • the middle meningeal artery lies on the dura mater so tearing can cause bleeding into the epidural space.

Subdural space: Potential space between the dura and arachnoid - subdural hematoma: usually venous blood (bridging veins)

Subarachnoid space: Real space where the major arteries of the veins are found

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38
Q

Define fibrillation and fasciculation and explain their clinical
significance.

A

Electromyographic changes: fibrillations, positive sharp waves, fasciculations. These are measures of denervation.

Electromyography is an investigatory tool to assess the source muscle weakness

  1. Needle electrodes inserted into muscle
  2. Study muscle at rest (normal: no activity)
  3. During a contraction

Fibrillation: only detected with EMG. Short-duration, spontaneous biphasic or triphasic potentials produced by single muscle fibers. These are indicative of a denervated muscle.
These are thought to represent an unstable muscle fiber cell membrane. They both occur in peripheral nerve injuries, axonal neuropathies, motor neuron disorders and some myopathies.

Fasciculations: Larger potentials caused by spontaneous activity in a motor unit or several motor units. Caused by lower motor neuron lesions, particularly in anterior horn cell disease such as ALS. Large potentials are suggestive of denervation and reinnervation.

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39
Q

Describe and recognize the post-polio syndrome and its clinical
features.

A

.The polio virus attacks ventral horn motor neurons, causing LMN syndrome

Recovery and stable period is due to sprouting by neighboring motor neurons

So patient has period of years during which she was neurologically stable. (usually ~ 15 years) followed by progressive weakness in the same muscles originally affected.

Post-polio period occurs years later because those new sprouts cannot be sustained.

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40
Q

Describe the lower motor neuron syndrome and explain the

physiological basis for each of the symptoms.

A

The muscles that are innervated by motor neurons

  1. Weakness or paralysis
  2. Atrophy
    - Muscle atrophy: Without motor neuron innervation, muscles cannot contract, so lose mass. They also lose trophic support from the motor neurons.
  3. Hyporeflexia or areflexia
  4. Decreased tone (resistance to passive movement) “flaccid paresis/paralysis”
  5. Fibrillations, positive sharp waves or fasciculations, measured by EMG
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41
Q

Describe the common sites and causes of lower motor neuron

disorders.

A

Cell bodies in CNS (Ventral horn or brainstem nuclei)

Axons in the PNS in ventral root, spinal nerve, peripheral nerve, or cranial nerve

  1. Peripheral nerve, spinal nerve, or cranial nerve lesions
  2. Cauda equina lesions
  3. Strokes or tumors affecting alpha motor neurons in
    ventral horn or brainstem
  4. Polio (viral infection of α-motor neurons)
  5. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis ( “ALS” or “motor neuron
    disease” that also affects upper motor neurons)
  6. Guillain-Barré (demyelinating disease)
  7. Werdnig-Hoffman disease (degeneration of anterior horn)
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42
Q
Describe the innervation of clinically important dermatomes. 
C2
C5
C6
C7
T10
L4
L5
S1
A

C2-back of head

C5-shoulder, lateral arm

C6-digits 1-2, lateral forearm

C7-digit 3

T10-umbilicus (belly butten)

L4-knee, and medial lower leg
(down on ALL 4’s)

L5-dorsal foot, big toe

S1-lateral foot, small toe, So1e

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43
Q

Describe the blood supply to the spinal cord

A

Anterior spinal artery

(1) located in the ventral median fissure
- Supplies anterior 2/3 of spinal cord

Posterior spinal artery
(2) located in the posterolateral sulci Supplies posterior 1/3 of spinal cord

Vasocorona: a series of branches from the anterior and posterior spinal arteries that form a crown (“corona”) around the cord.

Anterior and posterior radicular arteries arise from segmental arteries at each spinal
level to serve their respective roots and ganglia.

• The anterior and posterior spinal medullary arteries arise at intermittent levels to
augment the blood supply.
• The great Artery of Adamkiewicz is unusually large anterior radicular artery arising on
the left from T9-L1. It supplies the majority of the lumbar and sacral SC.

Great radicular artery of adamkiewicz is so important that it is thought to supply the whole bottom of the spinal cord and blockage presents as a lower spinal cord injury

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44
Q

What is the T4-T9 watershed area?

A

T4-T9 watershed area

• Fracture dislocations of
vertebra can interfere
with blood supply. 
• Arterial disease can
obstruct great radicular
artery. 
• Occlusion of aorta
during surgery can
produce ischemic
damage to blood supply.

Its a region between the endpoints of the thoracic radicular artery
& great radicular artery of adamkiewicz

Drop in blood pressure, can lead to this watershed region being necrotic.

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45
Q

Describe spinal cord Lower motor neurons with important functions

A

C3-C5 Motor neurons to the Phrenic nerve controlling diaphragm.

S3-S4 Onuf’s nucleus: Motor neurons innervating urethral and external anal sphincter which enable voluntary control of urination and defecation.

S2-S4 Motor neurons to pelvic floor muscles.

*very low spinal cord lesions (cauda equina) can produce bowel and bladder incontinence

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46
Q

What is an acoustic neuroma?

A

An acoustic neuroma is a noncancerous growth that develops on the eighth cranial nerve. Also known as the vestibulocochlear nerve, it connects the inner ear with the brain and has two different parts. One part is involved in transmitting sound; the other helps send balance information from the inner ear to the brain.

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47
Q

Describe the series of events in an neuron action potential

A
  1. Enough graded potentials activate voltage gated sodium channels (-50mV)
  2. Sodium influxes, the neuron depolarizes significantly.
  3. Then the sodium channels close and potassium channels open, hyperpolarizing until the voltage gated potassium channels close.
  4. inactivated sodium channels are no longer inactive.
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48
Q

With all the exocytosis at the nerve terminal, wouldn’t the membrane be huge?

A

There is a process of endocytosis to remove membrane from the nerve terminal.

Adaptor proteins connect clathrin to vesicular membrane forming clathrin coated pits.

Clathrin assemble into coat, curving membrane.

Dynamin ring comes and pinches off membrane.

Coated vesicle is then moved away from terminal along the actin filament

Hsc70/Auxillin - remove the clathrin. Can start storing NT again

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49
Q

Glutamate

A

The major excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS • Contained in approximately 50% of all neurons, and virtually all
excitatory neurons.

• Post-synaptic receptor type:
Metabotropic: May be excitatory or inhibitory, depending on the state of
the neuron.

• Ionotropic: NMDA (N-methyl-D-aspartate), kainate and AMPA. **All
excitatory

NMDA is both a voltage-gated and ligand-gated Ca2+ ion channel • The receptor is blocked by Mg2+ at resting membrane potential
• Uses the AMPA receptor and influx of Na+ to depolarize the membrane
to remove the Mg2+ block
It is both a voltage-gated and ligand-gated Ca2+ ion channel • The receptor is blocked by Mg2+ at resting membrane potential
• Uses the AMPA receptor and influx of Na+ to depolarize the membrane
to remove the Mg2+ block

NMDA activation in the presence of depolarization, enables
Ca2+ to enter cell.
• Increased intracellular [Ca2+ ] can activate calcium-dependent
signaling cascades.
• Intracellular signals can produce long-term synaptic changes
that are important for
• development of synapses • regulating neural circuits • learning and memory (Long-term potentiation; LTP)
• Long-term changes include changes in dendritic spines and
insertion of AMPA receptors: Increased responsiveness of post-synaptic neurons after repeated stimulation of neurons (e.g., in hippocampus).

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50
Q

Glutamate excitotoxicity:

A

Trauma and disease that impair ATP-generation can cause
increased glutamate release or decreased glutamate reuptake.

• Glutamate NMDA channels allow Ca2+ to leak into cells.
• Increased Ca2+ causes increased water uptake and stimulation of
intracellular enzymes that degrade proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids

• Examples of conditions thought to be associated with
glutamate toxicity: ALS, Alzheimer’s, tumors, oxygen
deficiency, ischemia, trauma, repeated seizures.

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51
Q

GABA

A

Major inhibitory neurotransmitter of the CNS • Contained in about 30% of CNS neurons

  • Post-synaptic receptor type:
  • Ionotropic: GABAa receptor, GABA gated Cl-channel
  • Metabotropic: GABAb functionally linked to potassium or calcium ion channels
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52
Q

Dopamine

3 pathways

A

Mesolimbic pathway: -Reward pathway (addiction)

  • Schizophrenia
  • Depression

Nigrostriatal Pathway: Control of movement
-Parkinson’s disease

Mesocortical pathway:
Working memory
Schizophrenia
ADHD

Involved in reward-motivated
behavior and motor pathways

CNS- Neurons originate in
brainstem regions (ventral
tegmental area and substanstia
nigra) 46

Drugs that influence dopamine transmission: • Anti-psychotics (-) • Nicotine, cocaine,
methamphetamine (+) • Amphetamines (Adderall) (+) • Methylphenidate (Ritalin) (+)

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53
Q

Acetylcholine

A

Main neurotransmitter in the PNS and ANS, but also has
neuromodulator functions in CNS
• PNS- Neuromuscular junctions
• ANS- sympathetic (pre-) & parasympathetic (pre- & post-
ganglionic) neurons
• CNS- Neurons originate in the basal forebrain (nucleus basalis)
and the brainstem (
dorsolateral midbrain-pons) and have
widespread connections to the cortex

  • Involved in arousal, attention, memory and motivation • Nucleus basalis degenerates in Alzheimer’s disease
  • Associated with memory loss, personality change and dementia

Drugs that influence ACh transmission in the CNS: • Nicotine (on nictotinic
receptors) (+) • Atropine (-) • Scopolamine (-)

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54
Q

Describe the general rules for herniated discs and the nerves they impinge

A

So in the cervical vertebrae, because the corresponding nerve exits above the vertebrae, a C5-C6 herniated disc impinges on C6 nerve.

In the lumbar its the same but for a different region. The interventricular foramen is large so the corresponding spinal nerve exits above the disc.

So an L4-L5 herniation will not impinge onf the L4 nerve but rather the L5 as it is traveling in the cauda equina. Impinging the L5 nerve.

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55
Q

Terms for weakness, the 4 P’s

A

Paralysis: weakness so severe that a
muscle cannot be contracted.

• Paresis: weakness, or partial paralysis.

• Plegia: severe weakness or paralysis.
– e.g., Diplegia refers to bilateral lower limb
weakness. Quadriplegia to all 4 limbs. – Hemiplegia refers to one side of the body
weakness (arm and leg)

• Palsy: imprecise term for either weakness
or no movement.

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56
Q

Explain the scoring for muscle strength.

Interpret the scoring for spinal cord stretch reflexes

A

.0/5 No contraction
1/5 Muscle flicker, no movement
2/5 Movement, but not against gravity 3/5 Movement against gravity, but not against resistance
4/5 Movement against some resistance 5/5 Normal

0+ absent 
1+ trace 
2+ normal 
3+ brisk 
4+ non-sustained clonus
5+ sustained clonus 
1-3 can look normal so always refer to opposite side for asymmetry or even with upper and lower
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57
Q

Describe the receptor, circuit and functions of the stretch reflex, golgi-tendon
reflex and flexor withdrawal reflexes.

A

Stretch reflex - 1. Muscle stretch receptor excited (connected to Ia afferent) 2. Ia afferent makes an excitatory synapse onto quadriceps motor neurons,
causing muscle contraction
3. Ia afferent also makes an excitatory synapse onto an inhibitory interneuron,
which inhibits hamstring (flexor) motor neurons
(L3,L4)

Golgi tendon reflex
Stimulus: Muscle tension Circuit: GTO > lb > lb inhibitory interneuron > motor neuron to homonymous muscle
(also excites antagonist muscles)

Flexor withdrawal - stimulated leg flexes to withdraw after cutaneous receptor activated > cutaneous afferent fiber from nociceptor alpha, < activates interneurons which inhibit the extensors and activate flexor in pained foot > for opposite foot the opposite happens, extensor activated, flexor inhibited to stand

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58
Q

What are the stretch reflexes at these levels

L3-L4
C5-C6 (2)
C7-8
S1

A

L3-4 – patella (3,4 kick down the door)

C5-6 – biceps
C5-6 – brachioradialis
(5,6 pick up sticks)

C7-8– triceps
(7-8 keep it straight)

S1 – Achilles
(1,2 buckle my shoe)

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59
Q

What are the muscle spindles and the system?

A

Proprioceptors: providing information about body position/movement.
-Arranged in parallel with skeletal muscles fibers.
• Intrafusal muscle fibers within a
connective tissue capsule.
• Attached to skeletal
muscle fibers.

Muscle spindle contains this lil capsule, which has efferent (gamma) and afferent nerves. It has two types of sensory nerves, group Ia which responds to rapid, dynamic stretch and
group II which responds to sustained, tonic stretch

Gamma motor neuron: γ-motor neurons are motor neurons that only innervate muscle spindle intrafusal fibers. • DO NOT cause skeletal muscle
fibers to contract. • Increase the excitability of the
muscle spindle.

Normally both alpha- and gamma-
motor neurons are CO-activated. • Gamma activity increases during
skilled movements and motor
learning.

So stretch is going to have a greater response with gamma neuron activity and also picks up slack if muscles are contracted
Describe the functions of the corticospinal, corticobulbar and reticulospinal tract pathways.

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60
Q

Describe the functions of the corticospinal, corticobulbar and reticulospinal tract pathways.

A

Corticospinal tract:
The corticospinal tract is the primary pathway for goal-directed movements.
• Only descending pathway to
project directly to α-motor
neurons of distal muscles.
• It is the only pathway that
generates fine movements of
the fingers.
The corticospinal tract originates in the primary motor cortex as well as the premotor and somatosensory cortex.
*Large Betz Cells in motor cortex (layer 5) project directly to motor neurons

Reticulospinal tracts project mainly ipsilaterally (some bilateral) to medial α-motor neurons throughout the length of the spinal cord. They contribute to posture and gait-related movements.
Generate feedforward preparatory muscle activation. •Contribute to muscle tone.

Corticobulbar

The corticobulbar tract is a descending pathway responsible for innervating several cranial nerves, and runs in paralell with the corticospinal tract

Origin

  • Motor cortex (precentral gyrus and anterior part of the paracentral lobule)
    Course / Path
  • The corticobulbar tracts leave the internal capsule and enter the basilar part of the pons as numerous bundles [1] The fibres leave the cerebral crus adjacent to the corticospinal tract.[1] The fibres can take several paths and have several different terminations:
    i) Termine directly on alpha motor neurones or interneurones innervating alpha motorneurons in the brainstem. These control somatic motor acitivity in the head e.g. muscles that control mastication, expression and eye movement.
    ii) Axons that innervate motor nerve cranial nuclei can decussate (cross) before they terminate, resulting in them innervating contralateral muscles. As some decussate and some descend ipsilaterally, it results in bilateral descending control. [2]
    iii) Directly innervate cranial nerves or through interneurones I.E. via the corticospinal tract. [2]

Function

  • Innervates muscles of the face, tongue, jaw, and pharynx, via the cranial nerves.[3]
  • The corticobulbar tract directly innervates the nuclei for cranial nerves:

V - Trigeminal- muscles for mastication

VII- Facial- muscles of the face

XI- Accessory- sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

XII- Hypoglossal- muscles of the tongue [4]
- Cranial nerves motor regions of X (vagus nerve) in the nucleus ambiguus.[4]

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61
Q

Describe the motor deficits that would follow specific upper motor neuron
lesions of the cortex or spinal cord.

  1. Generally, the corticospinal tract
  2. Trauma to lateral primary motor cortex (face and arm)
  3. Trauma to internal capsule
  4. What lesions could cause unilateral leg weakness or paralysis? (3) possibilities
A

Lesions above the spinal cord produce contralateral deficits. Lesions of the spinal cord produce symptoms on the same side of the lesion
Deficits are always below the level of the lesion
________________________________
Corticospinal Tract:
Major deficits with CST lesions: •Voluntary motor weakness (distal > proximal) on one side of the body. •Babinski sign
______________________________
Trauma to lateral primary motor cortex
1. Weakness in right arm and low face 2. UMN (lower face, entire arm).
3. Pathways are CBT and CST
aka. Contralateral Unilateral face and hand hemiparesis.
________________________________
Trauma to internal capsule
Pure motor hemiparesis with lesion in internal capsule- starting with the lower face.
_________________________________
Trauma to motor cortex (contralateral)
•A lesion affecting the ipsilateral spinal cord—UMN signs
•Peripheral nerve–LMN signs

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62
Q

Define the basic morphology and function of the receptors and axons that mediate cutaneous sensation, proprioception, temperature and pain sensation.

A

Cutaneous (AlphaBeta)

-Meissner corpuscle: surface, motion in dermis

-Merkel cell:
detects edges, indentations, slowly adapting

  • Ruffini corpuscle - skin stretch, aligned parallel with stretch lines
  • Pacinian corpuscle: deep and with onion like layers, vibration

Proprioception: (1a, II) - the largest, most myelin, fastest

  • muscle spindle
  • GTO

Temperature (Alphadelta, C)

Pain (Alphadelta, C)

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63
Q

Describe the pathway of peripheral sensitization

A

The interaction of nociceptors with the “inflammatory soup” of substances to decrease threshold of activation for nociceptors

Prostaglandins: •Increase response of nociceptive fibers.

These nociceptors release substance P which causes vasodilation but also mast cell degranulation releasing histamine as a positive feedback cycle since histamine also activates nociceptors.

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (e.g. aspirin and ibuprofen): •Inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX) to prevent synthesis of prostaglandins

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64
Q

Describe the pathway of central sensitization

A

An immediate, activity dependent increase in the excitability of neurons in
the dorsal horn of the spinal cord following high levels of activity in the
nociceptive afferents to increase pain sensitivity.

Mechanisms of central sensitization

  1. Transcription independent (windup) lasts only during stimulation = acute.
  2. Transcription dependent (allodynia) outlast stimulus for hours and can be
    mediated by COX = chronic.
    • Development of or increase in spontaneous activity
    • Reduction in threshold for activation by peripheral stimuli
    • Expansion of receptive field size (conversion of nociceptive-specific
    neurons to wide dynamic neurons that now respond to both innocuous
    and noxious stimuli)
    -the glutamate channel is open, with repeated stimuli you unblock the NMDA receptor which initiaties a signal cascade. With repeated stimulation, with alot of NT, gene expression changes which permanently changes the neuron
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65
Q

Lateral and medial vestibulospinal tracts

elaborate sensory system in the inner ear with specialized receptors that monitor head position, movement and acceleration.

A

Lateral vestibulospinal (balance): projects to the entire spinal cord. It projects **ipsilaterally to medial LMNs to proximal muscles. Especially facilitates extensor muscles in response to deviations from stable balance and upright balance.

Medial vestibulospinal (positioning of head and neck): 
projects on to cervical.Projects BILAterally to control head position in response to acceleration "vestibulocervical reflex

important in reflex excitability

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66
Q

**Tectospinal tract
orienting movements of the head to visual or auditory stimuli. It also helps to coordinate the eyes and head.

“whats that?!”

A

Originates in the superior colliculus and crosses in the MIDBRAIN (not just the one of the only ones to cross in the midbrain but out of the brain stem pathways, the only one to cross at all! ) (tecto and rubro)

Is in the medial motor system.
Generates orienting movements of the head to visual or auditory stimuli. It also helps to coordinate the eyes and head.

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67
Q

Rubrospinal tract

A

Originates in the red nucleus of the midbrain.

Crosses in the midbrain
Travels next to LCST in the spinal cord

Only extends to the *cervical spinal cord
Facilitates FLEXOR muscles>extensors
* this is important because its where a decerebrate - lesion below the midbrain - cause ALL LIMBS to extend vs decorticate which has flexion of the arms.

ONLY pathway that travels and projects lateral!

Lateral: only the LCST and rubrospinal

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68
Q

Which UMN tracts are uncrossed?

A
  1. anterior corticospinal tract
  2. Reticulospinal tract
  3. Lateral vestibulospinal tract
  4. Medial vestibulospinal tract
  5. Corticobulbar
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69
Q

Which UMN tracts terminate bilaterally

A
  1. anterior corticospinal tract
  2. Reticulospinal tract
  3. Medial vestibulospinal tract (cervical only)
  4. Most of corticobulbar
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70
Q

A 70 year-old right-handed person presented with progressive gait instability and some “trouble looking upwards.” He had a tendency to lose his balance when walking. He was an avid birdwatcher and indicated that every day he would go out and “look up into the trees at the birds.”
The patient stated “I had more trouble over the past couple of years because I couldn’t look up without bending my whole neck back.”

A

Diagnosis: upward gaze paresis
Limb ataxia

MRI showed a pineal cyst compressing nerves responsible for eye movement and motor movement.

In most cases, a pineal cyst does not cause signs or symptoms. The majority of pineal cysts are small (roughly 80% are less than 10 mm in diameter) and asymptomatic. Symptomatic lesions are often larger (but not always), and occur most often in women in their second decade of life. Larger cysts (with a diameter >15 mm) may lead to various neurologic symptoms. Symptoms may be due to the cyst’s proximity to other structures in the brain, or hydrocephalus from compression of the cerebral aqueduct (a channel connecting the 3rd and 4th ventricles of the brain).[5]

When a pineal cyst does cause symptoms, they may include headaches (the most common symptom), hydrocephalus, disturbances in vision, and Parinaud syndrome. Although rare, people with symptomatic pineal cysts may have other symptoms such as difficulty moving (ataxia), mental and emotional disturbances, vertigo, seizures, sleep (circadian rhythm) troubles, vomiting, hormonal imbalances that may cause precocious puberty, or secondary parkinsonism.

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71
Q

A 34-year old cardiothoracic surgeon developed left neck and shoulder pain, with numbness and tingling radiating down the ulnar aspect of his arm into the 4th and 5th fingers. On exam, he had some weakness of the intrinsic muscles of the left hand and decreased sensation to pinprick and light touch over the left fourth and fifth digits. The remainder of the exam was normal.

A

You had pain, but also decrease in sensation. Think of dermatome map and that points you to C8. What about ulnar nerve.

The left neck pain lets you know it is up near the vertebral column.

The motor, weakness of intrinsic muscles of hand.

Most likely is herniation between C7 and T1 impinging on C8.

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72
Q

A 24-year old person was drinking heavily with some friends on the 4th of July weekend and fell from a second-story balcony. They struck their back on a hard object on the way down and landed in a seated position, and immediately noticed a complete loss of movement and sensation in the legs. In the emergency room, exam was notable for flaccid tone and loss of all sensory and motor function in both lower extremities.

A

So very different from a spinal nerve impingement, this is a total transection where everything is lost.

Interruption of these long pathways is the reason spinal cord injuries leads to major loss in function BELOW THE LEVEL OF THE LESION.

Descending efferents can’t reach targets,

Ascending sensory output can’t reach the brain.

73
Q

A 43- year old lady was seen in clinic with progressive leg weakness. She reports that at the age of 9 weeks, she had an illness causing weakness of both legs which kept her in hospital until the age of 6. During that time, she had several foot and ankle operations and had used leg braces into young adulthood. Afterwards, she learned to walk well, and excelled at swimming.
At the age of 36, she complained of right arm dysfunction with pain, followed by weakness in her right arm and leg and some falls. This progressed slowly and severely limited her mobility to a few yards with crutches. Over the course of a few years she had progressive left leg weakness and the need for a wheelchair.

A

The foot is dropped (refer the picture) - problem with anterior tibia, some wasting of muscles, \Symptoms

Weakness in the R leg mostly, but also the L leg

  1. Atrophy of the leg muscles
  2. Time course: Progressive, and she had had a similar illness as a baby
  3. Localization: broadly affects limbs (mainly lower)

Cranial nerve testing: normal • Observation: Lower limb wasting. No upper limb wasting.
• Strength test: Lower limbs had global weakness
bilaterally—more in the right.
• Reflexes: No reflexes in the lower limbs.
• Sensory examination: Normal
• MRI of the brain and whole spine normal, with mild scoliosis
and minimal degenerative disease.
• EMG (electromygraphy) studies showed partial denervation
of leg muscles.

Lower motor neuron syndrome

  1. Weakness or paralysis
  2. Atrophy
  3. Hyporeflexia or areflexia
  4. Decreased tone (resistance to passive movement) “flaccid paresis/paralysis”
  5. Fibrillations, positive sharp waves or fasciculations, measured by EMG

Symptoms will be in the muscles that are innervated by the motor neurons!

This patient has post-polio syndrome. She has a history of polio. She also has a broad area of lower motor neurons. She also had a period of years which she was neurologically stable _usually 15 years, followed by progressive weakness in the same muscles originally affected.

74
Q

A 51- year old man was found to be progressively unresponsive the morning after a head injury. The night before, he fell down a flight of cement stars at 12:00AM, following a domestic altercation.
He struck his left temporal area and lost consciousness for about 15 minutes. After that, when the police arrived, he was awake, smelled of alcohol, and refused medical treatment.
In the morning, when the guards came to summon him for a court appearance, he was difficult to arouse, thrashing about incoherently, and had vomited and defecated. An ambulance brought him to the ER.
The neurological exam showed the following: • unresponsive to commands • Agitated • Left pupil fixed—not constricting to light and fixed in dilated position • right arm and leg paralyzed
After a short time, patient was in respiratory distress, so patient was intubated.

A

Epidural hematoma - period of lucidity but things got really bad when the herniation happened

75
Q

73 yr old come to physician because of 2 month history of diffuse weakness and tingling of arms and legs. Neurologic examination shoes weakness of extensor and flexor muscles of lower extremities. Knee and ankle deep tendon reflexes are exaggerated. Sensation to vibration and position is decreased in all extremities but more severe in lower. Patient most likely has what?

A

Vit B deficiency

76
Q

35 yr old contracts something similar to the flu, receives no treatment and is sick for a few days. 25 days later he develops pins and needles in fingers and toes. 3 days after that he has trouble speaking and eating, next day upon waking he difficulty walking. He goes to hospital and is barely able to lift his arms. What does he have

A

Guillain Barre syndrome

77
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma comes to physician because of a 3 week history of progressive numbness in hands and feet, weakness in legs when he stands, he receives a third course of chemo 4 weeks ago, physical examination shows areflexia. What drug can cause this effect?

A

Vincristine- common chemotherapy drug affecting long axons.

78
Q

Motor weakness in right arm, lower face only.

A

So you’re thinking corticobulbar and corticospinal.

But is not including the legs.

So the lesion is in the primary motor cortex where the arm and face are.

79
Q

Debbie is a 16-year-old girl who plays the piano and violin and has an active social life. Over the last four years, she has complained on-and-off to her parents that her arms and shoulder hurt and sometimes feel numb. At first, at about age 12, it was in her right shoulder (lateral aspect), but then moved to both sides.
Her parents were concerned and recommended that she take breaks from her music (mainly the violin) for several weeks to relieve her symptoms. Recently, however, it has gotten worse, and her pediatrician referred her to a pediatric neurologist because of progressive arm and shoulder pain and numbness.

When she arrived at the neurologist, she said that her major problem was that she had pain in both shoulders and lateral arms, and both hands felt “numb.” She did not have any gait problems, bladder incontinence, or other symptoms. The neurological exam was notable for decreased pinprick sensation on the lateral aspect of both arms and forearms, and in a cape distribution in her shoulder areas and superior-anterior chest area. The remainder of the exam was normal.

What dermatome levels are affected, what two things are abnormal, what would the lesion likely be?

A

Debbie is a 16-year-old girl who plays the piano and violin and has an active social life. Over the last four years, she has complained on-and-off to her parents that her arms and shoulder hurt and sometimes feel numb. At first, at about age 12, it was in her right shoulder (lateral aspect), but then moved to both sides.
Her parents were concerned and recommended that she take breaks from her music (mainly the violin) for several weeks to relieve her symptoms. Recently, however, it has gotten worse, and her pediatrician referred her to a pediatric neurologist because of progressive arm and shoulder pain and numbness.

When she arrived at the neurologist, she said that her major problem was that she had pain in both shoulders and lateral arms, and both hands felt “numb.” She did not have any gait problems, bladder incontinence, or other symptoms. The neurological exam was notable for decreased pinprick sensation on the lateral aspect of both arms and forearms, and in a cape distribution in her shoulder areas and superior-anterior chest area. The remainder of the exam was normal.

What dermatome levels are affected, what two things are abnormal, what would the lesion likely be?

80
Q

Guillain-Barre

A

-acute inflammatory demyelination polyneuropathy (another name)

  • mostly rapidly progressing and potentially fatal form of neuropathy
  • most of the time, GB begins 1-3 weeks after infection or vaccination, ex: campylobacter jejuni, herpesvirus. -Infection causes an autoimmune/inflammatory attack on peripheral myelin.

This time, MOSTLY MOTOR> ascending Symmetrical paralysis

May begin with paresthesias in toes and fingers with aching in thighs and back. Ascending paralysis that can (if severe) affect breathing and require respiratory support.

Diagnosis: Nerve conduction velocity is decreased
-Albuminocytologic dissociation - increased protein in CSF with normal cell count

81
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A
Multiple sclerosis: 
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a potentially disabling disease of the brain and spinal cord (central nervous system).

In MS, the immune system attacks the protective sheath (myelin) that covers nerve fibers and causes communication problems between your brain and the rest of your body. Eventually, the disease can cause the nerves themselves to deteriorate or become permanently damaged.

Signs and symptoms of MS vary widely and depend on the amount of nerve damage and which nerves are affected. Some people with severe MS may lose the ability to walk independently or at all, while others may experience long periods of remission without any new symptoms.

There’s no cure for multiple sclerosis. However, treatments can help speed recovery from attacks, modify the course of the disease and manage symptoms.

This damage disrupts the ability of parts of the nervous system to communicate, resulting in a range of signs and symptoms, including physical, mental, and sometimes psychiatric problems.[5][8][9] Specific symptoms can include double vision, blindness in one eye, muscle weakness, trouble with sensation, or trouble with coordination.[1] MS takes several forms, with new symptoms either occurring in isolated attacks (relapsing forms) or building up over time (progressive forms).[10] Between attacks, symptoms may disappear completely; however, permanent neurological problems often remain, especially as the disease advances.[10]

82
Q

What is Cushing’s triad

A

Cushing’s triad:

  1. hypertension,
  2. bradycardia,
  3. irregular respirations (brainstem)

Caused by increased intracranial pressure

83
Q

Spinal Muscle Atrophy (SMA I-IV)

Describe the clinical features and pathophysiology of Werdnig-
Hoffman disease

A

A group of diseases caused by degeneration of the anterior horns.

These are progressive and begin in infancy.

Due to abnormalities in chromosome 5
Motor neurons are affected in the spinal cord and cranial nerve motor nuclei
_________________________________
Most common (and severe) type of spinal muscle atrophy is SMA I Werdnig-Hoffmann disease
“acute infantile spinal muscle atrophy”
__________ _________
autosomal-recessive inheritance pattern “floppy-baby” median age of death is 6-7 months. affects 1/10,000 lives births
Symptoms:
Weakness and muscle wasting in
-limbs
-respiratory
-bulbar muscles:
sucking, swallowing, breathing
Pathological changes that occur with sustained lower motor neuron disease: e.g., polio, peripheral neuropathies.

84
Q

Uncal herniation

A

Results in: oculomotor paresis ipsilateral, dilated pupil), contralateral hemiparesis:
 Contralateral hemiparesis occurs with compression of the ipsilateral cerebral peduncle of the midbrain -  Since the corticospinal tracts decussate below the midbrain, the hemiparesis is contrateral

 In addition to pupillary dilatation, a second key feature of uncal herniation is a decreasing level of consciousness (LOC) due to distortion of the ascending arousal systems as they pass through the midbrain]

 A dilated pupil from in the absence of a LOC is not due to uncal herniation

85
Q

Describe the major symptoms that characterize bleeding in the subdural, epidural and
subarachnoid spaces.

A

Epidural hematoma:

From trauma to the skull: usually from middle meningeal artery.
• May also be from sinuses (~15%).
•“Lens shaped” structure on MRI
• Often has period of lucidity before severe symptoms (from a brain herniation).

Subdural Hematoma:
Horizontal (axial) MRI showing crescent-shaped subdural hematoma due to tearing of bridging veins, which often occurs during rapid accelerations. Symptoms may progress over longer periods.
-common in elderly

Subarachnoid hemorrhage: bleeding into the subarachnoid space usually secondary to head trauma.
• Usually traumatic
-[“Non-traumatic” from bleeding from an A-V malformation or ruptured aneurysm.

A	burst	aneurysm	is	responsible	for	 80%	of	non-traumatic	subarachnoid	 hemorrhages. • Aneurysms	form	when	the	vessel wall	is	weakened,	and	can	burst	
under	conditions	of	increased	
pressure.		 
• Most	aneurysms	occur	in	the	
“anterior circulation” supplied by	
the	internal	carotid	artery.

The classic presentation is sudden-onset, severe headache (from blood irritating meninges) “worst headache of my life”

Subarachnoid is diagnosed by bloody CSF

86
Q

Define hydrocephalus and the types of hydrocephalus and potential causes.

A

Hydrocephalus:

Condition of excess CSF

1- excess production (choroid plexus tumors)

2- obstructed flow anywhere in ventricles or subarachnoid space (tumors, malformations, hemorrhage)

3- decreased reabsorption via arachnoid granulations.

“Communicating hydrocephalus”: lateral ventricles communicate with subarachnoid space.

“non-communicating hydrocephalus”: flow obstructed within
the ventricular system.

Symptoms: 
Children and Adults: 
-Headache	(especially	in	the	morning)* 
Decreased cognitive function 
Neck pain 
Vomiting (especially	in the morning)* Blurred	vision (papilledema) Drowsiness 
Failure of upward gaze

*CSF is less reabsorbed when lying down.

87
Q

Chiari I

A

-the most common
Congenital hindbrain anatomic anomalies associated with the downward displacement of the cerebellum,
brainstem or craniocervical junction.
-produce hydrocephalus

Cerebellar tonsils
below the foramen
magnum

  1. Syringomyelia (Chiari is most common cause) Syringomyelia is the development of a fluid-filled cyst (syrinx) within your spinal cord. Over time, the cyst may enlarge, damaging your spinal cord and causing pain, weakness and stiffness, among other symptoms.
  2. Compression of brainstem
Most common symptoms are 
• Headache	(increased intracranial	
pressure),	 
• Ataxia	(cerebellar dysfunction),	
and 
• Impaired movement (brainstem	
compression)
88
Q

Chiari II (Arnold Chiari malformation)

A

Less common

Significant herniation through foramen magnum
cerebellar tonsils and vermis lower brainstem
• Causes aqueductal stenosis
and Hydrocephalus.
• Usually with
meningomyocele - Meningomyelocele is a type of spina bifida. Spina bifida is a birth defect in which the spinal canal and the backbone don’t close before the baby is born. This type of birth defect is also called a neural tube defect.

The spinal cord and the meninges (the tissue that covers the spinal cord) may actually protrude through the child’s back. In some cases that skin covers the spinal cord and meninges, it may also stick through the skin. - syrinx in base of spinal cord

89
Q

Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

His grave is dug

A

-occurs in the elderly

Classic triad of symptoms

  1. Dementia (of varying degrees)
  2. Urinary incontinence: May present as urgency, frequency, or a diminished awareness of the need
    to urinate
  3. Gait disturbance: Usually the first symptom; magnetic gait. :

***NOTE NO HEADACHE

May be related to impaired reabsoprtion from meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage

90
Q

Define radiculopathy and causes

A

.damage to a spinal nerve
The most common pathology to spinal nerves are herniated discs.
-Osteophytes can also cause radiculopathy
-spinal stenosis - hypertrophy of ligamentum flavum
-Foramen stenosis-hypertrophy of facet

Typical Symptoms related to radiculopathy
1. Burning, tingling pain that radiates from the back along
dermatome
a. “lancinating” or stabbing pain
b. Location, location, location 2. Numbness (anesthesia, analgesia)
a. possible, but there is overlap in dermatomes.
b. analgesia, tested with a pinprick may be more sensitive 3. Worsening of symptoms with coughing, sneezing, straining.
Flexing the head in the case of cervical radiculopathy.
4. Muscle weakness
***5. T1 radiculopathy can cause a Horner’s syndrome, because it
interrupts the sympathetic pathway to the eye.
a. constricted pupil (miosis)
b. anhidrosis (decreased sweating) of the skin of the face
c. ptosis (drooping) of the eyelid

91
Q

Horner’s syndrome

A

T1 radiculopathy can cause a Horner’s syndrome, because it
interrupts the sympathetic pathway to the eye.

a. constricted pupil (miosis)
b. anhidrosis (decreased sweating) of the skin of the face
c. ptosis (drooping) of the eyelid

92
Q

Chiari 1 vs Chiari 2

A

Chiari 1:
Findings typically asymptomatic in children
abnormally shaped cerebellar tonsils are downwardly displaced through the foramen magnum
Associated condition: syringomyelia

Chiari 2:
Findings typically symptomatic
cerebellar vermis and tonsil are
downwardly displaced through the foramen magnum
Associated condition
spinal meningomyelocele
93
Q

Dandy-Walker syndrome

A

In individuals with the rare Dandy-Walker syndrome, there is congenital malformation of the cerebellum, which may result from cystic enlargement of the 4th ventricle and leads to developmental delays, defective muscle tone, poor coordination and balance (ataxia), and sometimes hydrocephalus.

94
Q

Compare the upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron syndromes.

Weakness
Atrophy
Fasciculations
Reflexes
Tone
A

Weakness: Yes in both (only similarity)

Atrophy: Only in LMN, mild from disuse in UMN.

Fasciculations: Only in LMN

Reflexes: Increased in UMN, decreased in LMN

Tone: Increased in UMN, decreased in LMN

95
Q

Differentiate between the symptoms of Bell’s palsy and a corticobulbar tract
lesion

A

Corticobulbar tract lesion:
Exceptions to compensation:
1- lower nucleus of VII. These go to the lower face.
2- mostly contralateral to CN XII (motor neurons to the tongue.)
Lesions to one corticobulbar tract produce the following deficit:
1- Paralysis to contralateral lower face. 2- Some paralysis to the opposite tongue, and difficulty swallowing (dysphagia).

Bell’s palsy:
-Right Cranial nerve VII lesion (Bell’s palsy) causes lower motor neuron paralysis of ½ the face.
Both upper and lower face affected on right or left

-corticobulbar is only contralateral lower face

96
Q

Recognize decorticate and decerebrate rigidity.

A

Decorticate - lesion ABOVE midbrain

  • upper limb: flexed - elbow, finger
  • lower limb: extended: knee

DEcErEbratE - lesion BELOW midbrain All limbs Extend

97
Q

What are the *unique signs of upper motor neuron lesions?

A
  • hyperreflexia - thought to be because the muscle becomes super sensitive without period stimulation from UMN so you get a really strong sensory response at the level
  • Clonus - rhythmic contractions of antagonist muscles- lets say you flex at the ankle joint, pt with UMN injury will be sent into involuntary movements of up and down.
  • Hypertonia - when a doctor moves the leg around, there is more resistance, instead of relaxed like LMN
  • Extensor Plantar response aka Babinski sign : if you take a hard object, scrape up along bottom foot, normal plantar response is flexor.
98
Q

Distinguish between pathology of myelin sheaths
or axons.

3 types

A
  1. Wallerian degeneration: axonal damage leads to “dying forward”.
    - distal axon degeneration
    - Chromatolysis of cell body, nucleolus expands and moves to cell membrane, Nissil substance disintegrates
    - Recruit macrophages distal to lesion
  2. Axonal degeneration:
    Conditions that affect the health of neurons such as metabolic disease leads to “dying back” of axons. Loss of myelin CAN accompany this process.
    **LONGER axons are affected FIRST, resulting in distal extremities being affected first - (diabetic neuropathy)
  3. Segmental demyelination: occurs when sheaths are damaged by trauma or disease. Myelin may be affected secondarily to axonal death
    - Symptoms are detected by nerve conduction tests - conduction block or slow
    - Myelin and conduction can return in days to weeks

*Only 1 and 2 result in muscle atrophy

99
Q

• Distinguish between different types of neuropathy.

Radiculopathy
Mononeuropathy 
Mononeuropathy multiplex 
Plexopathy 
Polyneuropathy
A

When symptoms follow a nerve root pattern, (dermatome OR myotome) it is referred to as a radiculopathy. Often caused by compression of nerve roots from protruding discs.
ex. A herpes zoster infection arising in the sensory neurons of the dorsal root ganglion of T1
spinal nerves, may produce just sensory symptoms
(pain) at the T1 dermatome (usually unilateral).

When symptoms follow a peripheral nerve it is referred to as a mononeuropathy, often caused by injuries - ex carpal tunnel , sensory, motor and autonomic components distal to wrist

Mononeuropathy multiplex: Mononeuritis multiplex is a painful, asymmetrical, asynchronous sensory and motor peripheral neuropathy involving isolated damage to at least 2 separate nerve areas. Multiple nerves in random areas of the body can be affected. As the condition worsens, it becomes less multifocal and more symmetrical. Mononeuropathy multiplex syndromes can be distributed bilaterally, distally, and proximally throughout the body

Plexopathy: unlike mononeuropathy, this is lesion of a network of nerves. The region of nerves it affects are at the brachial or lumbosacral plexus. Symptoms include pain, loss of motor control, and sensory deficits.

Polyneuropathy: is damage or disease affecting multiple peripheral nerves (peripheral neuropathy) in roughly the same areas on both sides of the body, featuring weakness, numbness, and burning pain.
-show a distal and symmetric sensorimotor (maybe autonomic) distribution. Sometimes called glove and stocking pattern. Most common causes are diabetes, alcohol, hypothyroidism, vit B12 deficiency.

100
Q

Diabetic neuropathy
1.9% of population,

30% of diabetics
16% have chronic neuropathic pain
-greatest source of morbidity and mortality in diabetes patients - implicated in 50-75% of all amputations.

A

-Length dependent diabetic polyneuropathy accounts for >80% of patients with diabetic neuropathy.
Symptoms begin in the feet, then move to more proximal legs and distal upper limbs. (most nutritional, metabolic and toxic diseases produce this pattern of distal neuropathy)

Patho: Axonal dying back, degeneration and demyelination occurs

  • includes effects related to ischemia, oxidative stress and inflammatory processes
  • SENSORY (as with all distal neuropathies) are MORE affected than motor. The sensory deficits involve most small UNmyelinated and myelinated fibers (“small fiber polyneuropathy”)

Symptoms: paresthesias (tingling or prickling sensation), dysesthesias (impairment of sensitivity especially to touch).
Can lead to trophic changes like calluses and plantar ulcers.

Histo: decreased number of myelinated and unmyelinated axons
-thickening of walls of blood vessels

101
Q

Vit B12 deficiency

-most common metabolic neuropathy

A

Symptoms: distal limbs - beginning more commonly in the upper limb instead of the feet like diabetics.

  • *Loss of vibration sense is most common feature.
  • also pain numbness and tingling in hands or feet, sensory loss and motor weakness

Subacute combined degeneration:
May primarily or secondarily affect lateral and dorsal columns of the spinal cord. Therefore ataxia and spasticity can occur together with symptoms of peripheral neuropathy.

Without B12 myelin production is abnormal
Diagnosis: *NCV will decrease

102
Q

Charcot-Marie-Tooth Disease

“hereditary motor and sensory neuropathy”

A

Group of several hereditary diseases that either affect myelin (CMT1) or axons (CMT2) directly.

CMT1 is most common, produces a motor sensory neuropathy.

  • primarily affects distal muscle, particularly the peroneal nerve
  • because of demyelination, small fiber types carrying pain and temperature are not affected
  • frequently occurs with pes cavus and hammertoes *true for all CMT

-typical onset is late childhood, identifiable by slowly progressive nature and reduced conduction velocity in all nerves

103
Q

What would each of these lesions feel like?
1. Parietal lobe/primary sensory cortex

  1. Thalamus
  2. DCMLS
  3. STT
  4. Nerve root
A

Lesion of parietal lobe or primary sensory cortex: -Contralateral numb tingling or pain

Lesion of thalamus:
-Contralateral burning pain = Dejerine-Roussy (Thalamic/Central) Syndrome

Lesion of dorsal column medial lemniscus (DCMLS):

  • Tingling, numb sensation
  • Tight band-like sensation around the trunk or limbs
  • Feeling of having gauze on fingers
  • Electricity sensation down back and extremities upon neck flexion = Lhermitte ’s sign (if lesion is cervical)

Lesions of anterolateral (spinothalamic STT) pathways
Sharp, burning or searing pain

Lesion of nerve roots
-Radicular pain with numbness and tingling in dermatomal distribution = radiculopathy

104
Q

What would be the presentation of complete cord

A

Loss of sensory, motor, reflex and autonomic function below lesion. Acute onset causes spinal shock
syndrome

Causes:
1. fracture/dislocation trauma by MVA, dive in pool, fall off horse, etc, usually in the cervical region, or bullet/knife wound
2. demyelinating disease- MS, post-infectious transverse myelitis
3. compression by tumor or inflammatory mass
Rate: Helps identify etiology; acute versus slowly evolving
An acute syndrome elicits spinal shock, which can last several weeks, and consists of loss of all sensation, flaccid paralysis, loss of reflexes, and no bowel/bladder function.

Chronically, there will emerge 
-hyper-active reflexes (clonus) 
- increased tone
-Babinski sign
which together we term spasticity. Over time there will be flexor spasms, set off by simple cutaneous stimulation, and later automatic bladder emptying that occurs after it fills. If the lesion is sacral, the bladder will distend and overflow causing emptying with chronic infection.
105
Q

Presentation of Brown Sequard syndrome.

A

Ipsilateral to lesion: weakness, increased tone, and hyperreflexia, paresthesia, proprioceptive loss, root pain.

Contralateral to lesion: loss of pain and thermal sense

*Dissociated sensory loss
Spinal hemisection- example, C4 level

Ipsilateral corticospinal tract- UMN syndrome

  • weakness of arm and leg mild atrophy -hyper-reflexia (clonus of ankle),
  • Babinski sign loss of abdominal and anal wink

Ipsilateral posterior (dorsal) column- position and vibration

Contralateral loss of pain (pin), temperature

Autonomics- Horner’s syndrome (miosis, ptosis, anhydrosis)

C4 level exhibits complete loss of motor and sensory root functions-
including sensation in dermatomal pattern if 2 roots, reduced C4 muscle (LMN) innervation (function).

106
Q

Central cord lesion presentation

A

Syringomyelia/Central Cord Syndrome

Cavitation near the central canal of the spinal cord
Causes- developmental, vascular (AVM), trauma, infections, astrocytic tumor, congenital malformations.

Most commonly occur from C3 to T4.
Example: C4-C8
1. Initially experience a cape (shawl) distribution of lost spinothalamic fibers crossing at the ventral commissure, giving rise to reduced pin and temperature over lateral arms, forearms and fingers.
2. As it expands, will include shoulders, back and anterior thorax, but preservation of dorsal columns.
3. Further expansion into the ventral horn compromises ventral motoneurons, yielding LMN flaccid weakness of shoulders, arms, forearms and hands.
4. Finally, expansion into lateral funiculus interrupts descending corticospinal tracts, with UMN syndrome. Thus early on there is a segmental loss of sensory and motor pathways, whereas later, all functions below the lesion are effected except those most peripherally localized, giving rise to *sacral sparing.

107
Q

ALS presentation

A
  • Atrophic weakness of hands/forearms;
  • spasticity of legs;
  • generalized hyperreflexia;
  • a mixed UMN and LMN disorder progressive spread both rostrally and caudally until fatal
  • LMN signs with loss of strength, reduced tone, atrophy and loss of reflexes, all due to muscle denervation.

Some of these signs are apparently reversed by appearance of hyper-reflexia from loss of UMN innervation.

Most common initial symptoms: stiffness/weakness and muscle wasting of hands/fingers, hand cramping, and later twitching of forearms (fasciculations)
Only upper and lower motor neurons affected, no sensory involvement

108
Q

Co-deletion of 1p and 19q

A

Oligodendroglioma
WHO grade 2 or 3.
Usually cerebral hemispheres and often hemorrhagic.

109
Q

Symptoms of pituitary adenoma

A

*bitemporal hemianopsia

Hormone overproduction

  1. Prolactin: amenorrhea, galactorrhea: milky nipple discharge unrelated to the normal milk production of breast-feeding.
  2. Growth hormone - acromegaly
  3. ACTH- Cushing’s Disease
110
Q

Squamous epithelium, “wet keratin”, cholesterol clefts. What kind of brain tumor.

A

Craniopharyngioma - in very young kids think this not adenoma.

111
Q

Bilateral vestibular schwannoma, what is the underlying genetic condition?

A

Neurofibromatosis type 2

-additionally meningioma 50% of cases and ependymoma

Encodes for Merlin which links proproliferation signals with underlying actin cytoskeleton.

112
Q

Antoni A, B and Verocay bodies

A

Schwannoma

113
Q

Whorls, psammatous calcifications

A

meningeoma

114
Q

Foamy stromal cells and dense capillary network.

Brain tumor?

A

Hemangioblastoma - Von Hippel Lindau mutation leading to constitutive activation of HIF, leading to overproduction of angiogenic growth factors .

115
Q

Grade 4, synaptophysin positive. True rosette

A

medulloblastoma,

normal neurons are synaptophysin negative.

116
Q

Keywords Glioblastoma

A
  • palisading necrosis
  • butterfly lesion
  • microvascular proliferation
  • EGFR
  • tenzolomide
  • MGMT methylation
  • gadolinium, ring enhancing lesion.
117
Q

Which tumors are associated with NF2 mutation

A
  1. Schwannoma 100%
  2. Meningioma 50%
  3. Ependymoma
118
Q

Which pathways are typically effected in the following

Tabes dorsalis: tertiary syphilis

Multiple sclerosis

Anterior spinal artery

Subacute Combined degeneration (B12)

ALS

Central cord

Extramedullary compression

A

Multiple sclerosis:

  1. Dorsal column,
  2. CST
  3. Cerebellar tracts (ataxia, dysmetria: inability to judge distance or scale of movements, nystagmus: rapid involuntary movements of eyes, dysarthria: slurred speech)

Anterior spinal artery:

  1. no dorsal column
  2. CST (anterior and lateral)
  3. Cerebellar tracts
B12 deficiency: 
1. dorsal columns MOST affected
2. CST 
3. Cerebellar tracts
4. Peripheral nerve 
(UMN > LMN, in this order) 

ALS: motor only! (compare to B12)

  1. Peripheral nerves
  2. CST
  3. no sensory involvement
Central cord: (cervical usually) 
Early: 
1. spinothalamic (shawl) 
Expanded: 
1. Spinothalamic (shawl) 
2. Ventral horns (LMN) 
3. CST (with sacral sparing) 
4. Can include dorsal column

Extramedullary Compression:

  1. Dorsal root (reduced triceps reflex)
  2. Dorsal column compression
  3. CST
  4. Ventral horn compression
119
Q

Explain general processes of neural tube formation in initiation of nervous system development

A

Neural tube formation (neurulation) occurs with induction of ectoderm by secretion of factors from the underlying notochord (a midline rod of mesoderm) so that developing neuroectoderm cells organize in the midline as a thickening called the neural plate. (Recall that notochord eventually
forms the nucleus pulposus of intervertebral discs in the adult.)

The neural tube wall is made up of neuroepithelial cells that proliferate and differentiate to form the neurons and neuroglia of the CNS.

The main signal that triggers the development of the ventral part of the neural tube is the production of sonic hedgehog (SHH) by the notochord and subsequent differentiate of ventral cells of the neural tube. Signals responsible for development of the dorsal part of the neural tube are produced by surface ectoderm (developing skin epidermis) include many of the TGF-beta family. The sulcus limitans separates the developing neural tube into dorsal and ventral halves throughout the developing brainstem and spinal cord.

Proliferation of neuroectoderm cells in the neural plate results in “buckling”/folding of tissue to form a depression called the neural groove
with raised bilateral neural folds. With further proliferation (and more buckling of a deepening neural
groove), the edges of the neural folds approximate and fuse in the dorsal midline to form the neural
tube, which detaches from the epidermis-forming surface ectoderm. The caudal end of the neural
plate and tube, which is narrower than the cranial end, will become the spinal cord, whereas the wider, cranial end will become the brain.
- Fusion to form the neural tube begins in the cervical region and occurs as a bi-directional “zipper” that
proceeds cranially and caudally. The open (unfused) ends of the neural tube are called neuropores. The final step of primary neurulation is neuropore closure, which occurs by the end of week 4. Note that the cranial (anterior) neuropore closes by day 25 and the caudal (posterior) neuropore closes by day 28. The brain and most of the spinal cord (up to L1-L2) forms from the neural plate-derived neural tube through primary neurulation. The remaining caudal component of the spinal cord forms from local tissues through secondary neurulation.

*

120
Q

Identify structures formed from the rhombencephalon/hindbrain, including the cerebellum, pons,
medulla and associations with CNs V, VI, VII, VIII, IX, X, XI, XII and the 4th ventricle.

A

The rhombencephalon divides into the metencephalon (forms pons and cerebellum; associated CNs V, VI, VII, VIII) and myelencephalon (forms medulla; associated with CN IX, X, XI, XII).
______________________________________
The pontine flexure does not persist as a bend in the future brainstem. The alar and basal plates in the rhombencephalon wall near the developing
pontine flexure spread apart along the rhombencephalon’s neural canal/lumen, known as the 4th
ventricle.

Thus, the basal plates and alar plates end up lying along the floor of the 4th
ventricle and the roof of the 4th ventricle is a thin membrane. In contrast to the dorsal sensory alar
plates and the ventral motor basal plates of the spinal cord, this region of the rhombencephalon (future pons and medulla) forms sensory nuclei that are located lateral (rather than dorsal/posterior) to motor nuclei.

121
Q

Identify structures formed from the mesencephalon/midbrain, including the adult midbrain
structures and associations with CNs III, IV and the cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius.

A

.The mesencephalon is the midbrain (associated with CNs III, IV).

The mesencephalon is cranial to the spinal cord and rhombencephalon and forms the midbrain component of the brainstem. The mesencephalon contains basal and alar plates. The nuclei of the basal plates are made of two groups of efferent/motor neurons in the mesencephalon whose axons course in cranial nerves III, IV to supply almost all extrinsic skeletal muscles of the eye (for eyeball movement).

Neuron cell bodies that make up the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain send axons fibers through CN III to the innervate pupillary sphincter/constrictor muscle and ciliary muscle

The dorsally-located alar components of the midbrain are colliculi that serve as sensory synaptic relays for visual and auditory information. The colliculi are formed by neuroblasts migrating to the overlying marginal zone.
The cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) forms from the lumen of the mesencephalon.

122
Q

Identify structures formed from the prosencephalon/forebrain, including cerebral hemispheres,
thalamus, hypothalamus, optic vesicles, anterior pituitary, pineal gland and associations with CNs I, II
and the lateral-3rd ventricles.

A

Prosencephalon - divides into the telencephalon (forms cerebral hemispheres; associated with CN1) and diencephalon (forms optic cup, pineal gland, thalamus, hypothalamus posterior pituitary; associated with CN II)

Diencephalon
- Optic vesicles evaginate from the diencephalon and are associated with CN II/optic nerve-tract-chiasma. Optic vesicles induce the overlying surface ectodermal lens placode to form the lens.
- The diencephalon consists of a roof plate, two alar plates, no (or very little) floor or basal plates.
The most caudal part of the roof
plate develops into the pineal body/epiphysis for light-darkness behavioral rhythms.
- The alar plates form the lateral walls of the diencephalon. Neuroblast in the alar plates of the
diencephalon walls proliferate to form `the hypothalamus and thalamus. The thalamus proliferates
and bulges into the lumen of the diencephalon. The hypothalamus differentiates into a number of
nuclear areas that regulate visceral functions, including sleep, digestion, body temperature, emotional
behavior.

  • The hypophysis/pituitary gland, develops form two completely different parts:

The posterior pituitary/neurophypophysis forms from the infundibulum, a ventral extension of the
diencephalon.
• The anterior pituitary forms from the adenohypophyseal placode that buds off the primitive oral cavity immediately anterior to oropharyngeal membrane as Rathke’s pouch. The developing anterior pituitary grows towards the infundibulum and loses its connection with the oral cavity
_____________________________________

Telencephalon
- Development of the brain is dominated by dramatic growth of bilateral outpocketings/projections/
evaginations/swellings of the telencephalon to form cerebral hemispheres. The cerebral
hemispheres grow to cover other brain regions (diencephalon, midbrain, hindbrain) and meet/flatten
medially in the midline.
Growth of the cerebral cortex (outer gray matter) forms lobes (frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital) and increases surface area through foldings that form sulci, fissures, gyri.
- In the cerebrum, the lamina terminalis is an early bridge between two cerebral hemispheres where
tracts (fiber bundles) interconnect the two cerebral hemispheres.
Continued tract formation for cross
communication between the cerebral hemispheres forms commissures. The anterior commissure
and corpus callosum (two prominent commissures in the adult brain) maintain attachments to the
lamina terminalis.
- The basal part of the telencephalon, adjacent to the diencephalon, thickens to form the gray masses
called the basal nuclei. The hippocampus and cranial nerve I (olfactory bulb and tract/nerve) are
also derived from the telencephalon.
- The neural canal/lumen of the telencephalon become the cavities of the hemispheres, the lateral
ventricles, which communicate with the lumen diencephalon through interventricular foramina of
Monro,

  • By birth, the cerebral cortex in the outer gray matter is made up of six layers that form as multiple
    waves of neuroblast migration from the ventricular layer of proliferating neuroepithelial cells. Layer
    formation occurs as each neuroblast wave migrates superficially to the subpial position and
    differentiates into fully mature neurons. When the next wave of neuroblasts arrives, neuroblasts
    migrate through the earlier formed layers of cells until they reach the subpial position. Thus, the early
    formed neuroblasts are deep position in the cortex (layer VI), whereas those formed later obtain a
    more superficial position (layer I).
123
Q

What are neural tube defects

A

Neural Tube Defects (NTDs) are severe congenital defects (birth defects) of the CNS that usually result from failure of neuropores to close during week 4.
If neuropores remain open, abnormalities in skin,
skull, vertebrae, meninges, muscles, neural tissues may be seen and there is a connection between the amniotic cavity and vertebral canal.
- In 1/5000 live births, defective closure of the cranial neuropore results in anencephaly and the failure
to form the cranial vault around cerebral hemispheres. Anencephaly is lethal (usually) because the
malformed brain is exposed to amniotic fluid, which leads to its degeneration and necrosis. Because
anencephalic fetuses lack swallowing reflex, the last trimester of pregnancy is characterized by
polyhydramnios (excess amniotic fluid in sac) and is a risk factor is maternal type 1 diabetes.
- Defective closure of the caudal neuropore results in spina bifida, in which there is at least a defective
fusion of vertebral arches (commonly at L4-S1).
- Defective closure of the entire neural tube CNS is seen as an open furrow on the dorsal surface of the
head and body and results in a fatal deformity called craniorachischisis (“cleft skull and spine”).
Spina bifida occulta does not cause disability and is usually an incidental finding during back x-ray. It
is present in 10% of otherwise normal people as a defect in the fusion of vertebral arches (usually S1-S2) without herniation of underlying neural tissue and is covered by skin which may or may not grow an
abnormal tuft of hair in the region over the defect.

-Spina bifida cystica is a severe defect in the fusion of vertebral arches in which neural tissue and/or meninges protrude through the defect in the vertebral
arches and skin. It is a severe defect in the fusion of vertebral arches with involvement of underlying
neural tissue that appears as a cyst-like sac and results in neurological deficits (but not usually
associated with intellectual disability). Spina bifida cystica includes the following types:
- spina bifida cystica with meningocele in which only fluid-filled meninges protrude through defect
- spina bifida cystica with meningomyelocele in which fluid-filled meninges and neural tissue protrude
through defect; Hydrocephaly often develops in children with severe NTDs. For example, in some
infants with spina bifida with meningomylocele, there is also Arnold-Chiari malformation (type II) in
which the spinal cord is abnormally tethered to the growing and lengthening vertebral column that
pulls the cerebellum inferiorly to herniate into the foramen magnum and obstructs CSF flow. There
may also be paralysis and sensory loss at and below the level of the lesion. (Hydrocephalus can be
treated by inserting a ventriculoperitoneal shunt, which allows drainage of CSF from one of cerebral
ventricles into peritoneal cavity.)
- spina bifida cystica with rachischisis/myeloschisis in which neural folds do not elevate and fuse

Defects in skull formation, frequently in the occipital region, can also result in
- meningoceles in which only meninges bulge through a small opening in the skull
- meningoencephaloceles in which meninges and brain bulges through a large opening in the skull
- meningohydroencephaloceles in which meninges, brain tissue, and ventricles bulge through a larger
opening in the skull

124
Q

How are severe NTDs screened?

A

Detecting AFP levels:
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is an abundant plasma protein of fetal serum that is produced by fetal yolk sac and liver. AFP passes through fetal urine into amniotic fluid and reaches maternal blood. AFP can also directly pass into amniotic fluid if there is a NTD (or abdominal wall defect) and result in elevated AFP
levels in amniotic fluid and maternal blood. Screening for severe NTDs that involve herniation of neural tissues is accomplished by measuring for elevated AFP levels in maternal blood at 15-20 weeks gestation.

Acetylcholinesterase (AChE) is primarily active in the CNS and normal amniotic fluid does not contain AChE, unless contributed by the fetus as a result of an open NTD. Elevated AFP and acetylcholinesterase are indicators for fetal ultrasonography. The most common cause of elevated AFP levels is underestimation of gestational age/dating error. Prenatal ultrasound is used to confirm
gestational age and for detection/diagnosis of NTDs or abdominal wall defects. Surgery can be
performed in utero at ~22 weeks to repair the defect.

125
Q

What is Rathke’s pouch

A

In embryogenesis, Rathke’s pouch is an evagination at the roof of the developing mouth in front of the buccopharyngeal membrane. It gives rise to the anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis), a part of the endocrine system.

126
Q

A 51 yr old was brought to the emergency room by her husband. She was vomiting and confused. According to her husband she returned from taking a run and said she had suddenly experience the “worst headache of my life”. She reported feeling sick. What caused this?

A

A ruptured berry aneurysm- sudden onset severe headache is a classic sign of subarachnoid hemorrhage. A rupture berry aneurysm is the most common cause of a nontraumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage. `

127
Q

39yr old complains of sharp pain in neck and right arm. She has sensory loss in her right shoulder. During reflex testing, she is found to have a weaker reflex response to a tendon tap to both the biceps and brachioradialis muscle tendons on the right compared to left. Which of the following spinal nerves is most likely to be involved.

A

right C5 - the brachioradialis and biceps stretch reflexes are mediated by C5-C6 afferents and efferents so these would be weakened by a C5 lesion. The sensory pattern suggests a C5 lesion.

128
Q

23 yr old girl has headaches and later presented with cerebellar ataxia and paralysis. These progressed over a period of 1 year. An MRI of her brain and spinal cord revealed an abnormality in the posterior fossa with cerebellar tonsils herniating through the foramen magnum. There is also a cyst in the cervical spinal cord. She is most likely to be diagnosed with which of the following conditions.

A

Chiari type 1malformation. Most common symptoms are a syrinx, headache, cerebellar dysfunciton and impaired movement from brain stem compression. Meningomyelocele which was not present in this case is associated with chiari malformation type 2.

129
Q

A 65 yr old man suddenly collapses in home. He has flaccid paralysis on the right side of his body. After several days the flaccid paralysis becomes spastic. He has a Babinski sign, hypertonia of all the limbs on the right and exaggerated stretch reflexes in the upper extremity and lower extremity. What lesion could produce all these symptoms

A

The symptoms are upper motor neuron syndrome. So you should remember the course of the corticospinal tract. With symptoms on the right the affected tract would begin in the left motor cortex, descend through the internal capsule and cerebral crus, cross over in the pyramidal decussion.

A: left internal capsule.

130
Q

An MRI performed on a 19 year old girl reveals an intracranial, dural based mass. A dural tial is seen. In addition to the mass, masses are seen on both vestibular nerves. Hearing testing shows mild hearing loss on the right. What predisposition syndrome does she have.

A

Verocay bodies, Schwannoma, NF2.

NF1 would have more PNS presentation like cutaneous neurofibromas.

131
Q

What are major differences between warmth sensitive thermoreceptors and temperature sensitive nociceptors.

A
  • nociceptors require higher temperatures to be activated
  • within the range of painful temperatures, thermoreceptors fire at a constant right
  • over a range of increasingly painful temperatures, nociceptors fire at an increasing rate
132
Q

Patient has left shoulder pain and numbness that occasionally radiated down the left arm into the thumb and was increased by neck extension. Exam is normal except for 4/5 deltoid power on the left and decreased pinprick sensation in the left shoulder

A

Bony osteophytes at C4-C5 causing left C5 radiculopathy.

Left shoulder pain and decreased sensation, left deltoid weakness.

133
Q

weakness of left gastrocnemius and hamstrings, with absent left achilles tendon reflex.

Paresthesias and decreased sensation in the left lateral calf, lateral foot, including the small toe and sole.

A

L5-S1 posterolateral disc herniation causing left S1 radiculopathy.

134
Q

What is the benefit to adding epinephrine to a solution of lidocaine for a peripheral nerve block.

A

It will increase the duration of anesthetic action (useful if short or medium duration). Vasoconstriction that prolongs duration also means less local anesthetic is needed so risk of toxicity (seizure) is reduced.

135
Q

Which drug blocks the effects of injected heroin for up to 48 hrs and is proposed as a maintenence drug for treatment programs of opiod addicts.

A

naltrexone - has a much longer half life than naloxone.

136
Q

{Patient said he had a fix. He exhibits dilated pupils, muscle aches, vomiting, hyperthermia, chills and hyperventilation. What is going on?

A

Opioid abstinence syndrome aka withdrawal. Usually starting 6-10 hours after last dose. Rhinorrhea, lacrimation, piloerection, muscle jerks and yawning.

137
Q
  • low back pain two days ago
  • numberness and tingling in feet, gradually seem to worsen
  • noon, difficulty walking
  • no bowel or bladder incontinence
  • strength of 5/5 in upper extremities
  • 4/5 proximally in lower
  • 3/5 distally
  • mild decrease in pinprick and light touch in mid-calf.

Reflexes in lower extremities are trace at the knees and absent at achilles

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome: acute onset of bilateral lower extremity weakness and sensory deficits.

Stroke would not be bilateral.

138
Q

25 year old male is transported by ambulance to the emergency room after a head on collision with another car. The patient was found by paramedics in the car and he was found with a large laceration to the forehead on the left. Which imaging study is the best to assess for intracranial hemorrhage

A

A noncontrast head CT is the standard for evaluation of acute blood which would be hyperdense. Subtle areas of acute blood may not be seen on MRI. Cather angiography would be appropriate for evaluation of intracranial vasculature.

139
Q

An 11 year old boy is brought to the family physician because she has been complaining that her hands feel funny. His mother states that the boy cut his little finger but did not realize it until he saw blood. The examination reveals a bilateral loss of pain and thermal sensations on the upper extremities and shoulder. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this deficit.

A

Syringomyelia - pain and temperature are affected without any other sensory or motor functions. Syringomyelia affects a dermatomal distribution so a long pathway is not involved. Although peripheral neuropathies like those due to diabetes, it can selectively affect pain and temperature, the pattern of sensory loss usually affects the distal limb rather than an entire dermatome.

140
Q

56 year old man comes to ER. He reports feeling dizzy and also feeling moody and irritable. Patient has a positive Romberg test and reduced vibration sense. Syphilis test was normal. What is the underlying condition

A

Decreased blood B12 levels
- can produce dorsal column lesions and can also affect the central nervous system.
Diabetes does into affect CNS neurons. A subdural hematoma would not be likely to produce the vibration and proprioceptive losses.

141
Q

85 year old male presents for an irrigation and debridement of gangrenous ankle. The surgeon request that the anesthetic onset be as quick as possible. Which LA would be the best suited for this scenario

A

In this case Mepivacaine was good. pKa 7.8, minimally lipophilic.

The LOWER the pKa and lower the lipophilicity, the faster the onset of blockade. Benzocaine has a very low pKA but it is used only as topical anesthetic. Quick onset also think ester.

142
Q

What is buprenorphine used for?

A

Like methadone it is used in opiate detoxification and could precipitate withdrawal. *the only partial agonist

143
Q

a 71 yr old woman notices she has red marks in a few areas on her back and has excruciating pain in those regions especially where her bra rub along her back. The paresthesias induced by her condition are most likely the result of firing in primary afferents

A

Case is most likely herpes zoster. Reactivation of latent varicella-zoster virus in dorsal root ganglia results in a decrease in the threshold of activation for sensory neurons so there is spontaneous firing and persistent pain. The dermatomal region innervated by that DRG>

144
Q

61 yr old was seen by a neurologist after ongoing complaints of pain in the right hand which seemed to be getting worse. Patient described pain as being in palm of hand in the right thumb and forefinger. He had numbness in the same region also. To distinguish between a carpal tunnel and spinal nerve problem, the neurologist would most likely perform which of the following tests on the right side.

A

The thumb and forefinger are both innervated by C6 and the median nerve. One way to distinguish between the two is to determine whether the sensory loss is also in the C6 dermatome above the wrist. The tricpes reflex would not be helpful because it tests C7! and the C5 dermatome is not part of the differential because C5 does not innervate the palmar hand. Grip strenght could be decreased in all conditions and would not be useful.

145
Q

A 48 yr old firefighter suffered closed head injury when the floor of burning building collapsed. MRI revealed near symmetric lesions confined to the ventral aspects of the occipital and temporal lobes. Which visual deficit is this patient most likely to experience

A

Prosopagnosia and achromatopsia (commonly together). The damage confined to the ventral aspects of the occipital and temporal fields and is bilateral .These regions house the fusiform face area and bilateral damage leads to prosopagnosia. V4 primarily concerned with color processing also resides in this area and damage can lead to ahcromatopsia. Akinetopsia is usually associated with damage to V5 which is on the lateral surface of the brain.

146
Q

Patient has damage to left temporal lobe and the radiations housed there. What is the visual field deficit

A

Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia and is produced by interruption of Meyer’s loop passing anteriorly through the temporal lobe. This part of the optic radiation contains information from the contralateral upper portion of the visual field as seen by both eyes.

147
Q

Patient with calcified neoplasm compressing the superior aspect of the optic chiasm. Which VF will be most evident.

A

Inferior bitemporal quadrantanopsia.

148
Q

A lesion to the left optic tract would most likely lead to which of the following visual field effects

A

right contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

149
Q

your patient has low intraocular pressure, what would you prescribe to increase production of aqueous humor

A

A beta 2 agonist

150
Q

Patient has sudden onset of severe headaches and nausea. Examination of her retinas shows an enlarged optic disc. You suspect an increase in intracranial pressure. What is the condition called and the likely mechanism?

A

Increases CSF pressure due to space occupying lesions (tumor and ruptured cerebral artery) can compress the central retinal vein in the optic nerve reducing venous return and causing papilledema. The central retinal artery is not affected due to its higher pressure and thicker wall.

151
Q

What do each of these drugs do?

Tropicamide
Atropine
Phenylephrine
Timolol (beta blocker)
Brinzolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)
A

Tropicamide: muscarinic antagonist to induce mydriasis

Atropine: a muscarinic antagonist user to induce cycloplegia. (No accomodation)

Phenylephrine: alpha agonist used to contract dilator muscle to induce mydriasis

Timolol (beta blocker): decreases production of aqueous humor

Brinzolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor): decreases production of aqueous humor.

152
Q

65-year-old white male complains of “seeing wavy lines” or “window blinds” when looking at the doorway with his right eye. He has no pain or other ocular symptoms. His past medical history is significant for hypertension. He has a 40-pack-year smoking history. On examination, his visual acuity is 20/400 in the right eye. He has no RAPD and slit-lamp examination reveals that his anterior segment is normal. Examination of his right fundus reveals a subretinal hemorrhage involving his fovea.
What caused the patient’s vision loss?

A

Age-related macular degeneration (AMD)

Dry AMD is the non-neovascular form of AMD. It is characterized by drusen (yellow-
white lesions in the outer retinal layers of the macula) or atrophy within the macula.
Dry AMD may lead to wet (neovascular) AMD, which is associated with a choroidal neovascular membrane (CNVM). The CNVM is an abnormal growth of subretinal blood vessels, which grows in the macula or fovea and affects vision due to fluid
leakage.

153
Q

40-year-old white female presents to your ED complaining of seeing “little floating black spots” in her vision in the left eye. She also notes little sparks of light in the temporal periphery of the left eye. On examination, there is no RAPD (she has normal direct and consensual pupillary reflexes). Confrontation visual fields demonstrate peripheral vision loss in the left eye. Dilated peripheral retinal examination reveals billowing gray folds. The macula appears normal, and her vision is 20/20 in that eye. What is she experiencing?

A

This patient is presenting with urgent ophthalmologic disease. She has classic symptoms of retinal detachment—flashing lights, visual
field disruption, and floaters. Also, the majority of her vision is still intact. In her
current state, she has a high likelihood of retaining good vision. None of the other
treatments offered do anything for retinal detachment

154
Q

Diagnosed with a left L5/S1 posterateral herniated disc. careful motor exam reveals?

A

Left plantarflexion weakness when asked to stand on toes

155
Q

What does it mean if a lesion somewhere along the visual system has abnormal pupillary reflex or normal pupillary reflex.

A

abnormal: before the LGN

Normal: after the LGN, optic radiation, visual cortex, because axons reaching pretectum will leave before synapsing

156
Q

what is a likely cause of a left contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopia?

A

Right temporal lobe tumor, compressing the right Meyer loop

157
Q

Describe the autonomic control of the eye

A

Ciliary muscle: Contraction (M3)
for near vision or relaxation (β2) for distant vision

• Sphincter pupillae muscle: Contraction (M3) to decrease the diameter of the iris to reduce the amount of light
entering the eye.

• Dilator pupillae muscle: Contraction (alpha1) to increase the diameter of the pupil to allow more light to enter
the eye.

• Ciliary epithelium. ↑ production (β2) of aqueous humor- decrease (alpha2)

158
Q

How do beta blockers, and muscarinic agonists/cholinesterase inhibitors affect intraocular pressure

A

Beta blockers reduce production of aqueous humor to lower intraocular pressure. (beta receptors - ciliary body)

Muscarinic agonists or cholinesterase inhibitors facilitate outflow to reduce IOP.
(muscarinic receptors on ciliary body causes tension of trabecular meshwork to increase outflow of Canal of Schlemn)

159
Q

What are classes of drugs to treat glaucoma?

A
  1. Prostaglandin analogs - increase outflow
  2. Beta blocker - decrease aqueous humor production
  3. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors: decrease aqueous humor production
  4. Alpha2-agonists - do both, decrease aqueous humor production, increase outflow
  5. Cholinergic agonist/ cholinesterase inhibitors: contract muscle fibers in ciliary body, increase in AH outflow
  6. Osmotic agents, increase the osmotic agents leading to fluid going into blood.
160
Q

What are the three muscarinic receptor antagonists and how may they be used

A
  1. tropicamide - duration of effect - 4 hours
    - this short duration is important for mydriasis on optic exam
    - (muscarinic activation cause contraction of pupillary constrictor muscle)
  2. Scopolamine - 3-7 days
    - formulated as a patch for motion sickness,
  3. Atropine - 7-10 days
    - target is the ciliary muscle because half life is too long, control accommodation.
    - effect is cycloplegia (blocking of accommodation important for the treatment of lazy eye amblyopia
161
Q

Antimuscarinic excess effect (too little acetylcholine effect, opposite of cholinergic excess.

A

Dry as a bone, blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, hot as hell, red as a beet, full as a flask.

  • decrease secretion and salivation because exocrine glands feature M3 muscarinic receptors
  • cycloplegia - ciliary muscle paralysis, can’t focus on close objects
  • CNS excitation, restlessness, irritability
  • decreased ability to sweat
  • cutaneous vasodilation
  • urinary retention
162
Q
  • painless vision loss
  • hemmorrhages in all 4 quadrants
  • dilated tortuous veins
  • optic nerve head swelling
  • cotton wool spots
  • macular edema
  • optociliary shunt vessels
A

Central Retinal Branch Occlusion.

*if found in a young person - prompt inflammatory/hypercoaguability workup.

163
Q
inflammation of:
iris  (iritis)
ciliary body (cyclitis)
choroid (choroiditis)
Encompasses a large group of  diverse diseases
This has many potential causes:
infectious
traumatic
neoplastic
*AUTOIMMUNE

Symptoms Treatments?

A

Uveitis:
Redness • Pain • Photophobia - it hurts when the iris moves back and forth so they get photophobia.

Treatments:
Medications
• Topical steroids - Durezol, prednisolone

Mydriatic and
Cycloplegic Agents
• Atropine Sulfate 1%
-the thought process is to keep the pupils dilated so as to keep the iris away from the lens capsule which inflammatory mediators can get the two stuck.

Oral prednisone • Quick onset of action. Less risk of
increase IOP and cataract.
Systemic side effects.

Immunomodulators • Humira, MTX, cyclosporin

Regional depot triamcinolone (4mg) • Periocular • Intraocular

164
Q

Optic nerve damage
• Ocular hypertension
• Visual field loss (peripheral>central)

Condition, diagnostics and treatment

A

Glaucoma.

Hypertension arises from the ciliary body and the Canal of Schlemn.

Most people with glaucoma are managed by topical
anti-hypertensive drops
• Beta blockers - decrease production of aqueous humor.

Put a valve connected to the anterior chamber which is equalized to a pressure. When pressure rises in the eye, the fluid will leave into the valve and take residence under the conjunctiva.

165
Q

The corneal blink reflex

A

Touch the side of the cornea > afferent (opthalmic division of trigeminal) > spinal trigeminal nucleus >efferent limb - orbital part squinting, palpebral part (blinking) - facial nerve.

166
Q

Papilledema

A

Papilledema is swelling of the optic disk (papilla) due to
increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and is almost always
bilateral.

It may develop acutely (ruptured cerebral aneurysm)
or over the course of several weeks or months (tumor).
Patients may have symptoms of increased intracranial
pressure, such as headache or nausea and vomiting.
Papilledema requires an immediate search for the cause.
Diagnosis is by ophthalmoscopy with further tests, usually
brain imaging and sometimes subsequent lumbar puncture,
to determine cause. Treatment is directed at the underlying
condition.

167
Q

How would each of these look (VF)

occlusion of the right opthalmic artery

aneurysm of right internal carotid

left middle cerebral artery

left parietal lobe lesion

A

Monocular inferior scotoma

Right nasal hemianopia.

Contralateral homonymous superior quadrantanopsia.

Contralateral homonymous inferior quadrantanopsia

168
Q

How would optic tract lesion differ from a right PCA infarct?

A

They would both be contralateral homonymous hemianopia but the one in the primary visual cortex would have macular sparing.

Because macular representation is very large in primary visual cortex Also can receive blood supply from PCA and MCA

169
Q

Left homonymous superior quadrantanopia with macular sparing

A

Infarct of posterior cerebral artery branches supplying lingual gyri causing lesion to right occipital lobe and preserving the right occipital pole.

170
Q

Understand densities on head CT (HU)

A
Air: -1000 
Fat: -100 
Water: 0 
Brain: 30-40 
Acute Blood	: 60-100 
Calcification: 1000

so anything brighter than brain is hyperdense (bone), anything darker is hypodense (fluid or fat)

171
Q

Diffusion Tensor imaging

A

Allows assessment of
white matter tracts
based on water diffusion characteristics along
these tracts of axons

• Diffusion	sequence used	
to form	3D	image 
• Evaluation	of neurodegenerative	
disease, epilepsy,	
traumatic brain injury, multiple	sclerosis 

• Role in preoperative
evaluation – brain tumors

172
Q

Allows assessment of
white matter tracts
based on water diffusion characteristics along
these tracts of axons

• Diffusion	sequence used	
to form	3D	image 
• Evaluation	of neurodegenerative	
disease, epilepsy,	
traumatic brain injury, multiple	sclerosis 

• Role in preoperative
evaluation – brain tumors

A
Functional	MRI	(fMRI) 
• Assess brain metabolic activity	(indirect measure of neuronal	discharge) and	
therefore specific areas	of function 

• Uses BOLD (blood oxygen level dependent) imaging.

• Patient performs a repetitive task, i.e finger tapping
• When brain is activated by a task, increase of blood flow leads to signal
• Used to localize region of sensory function,
motor function, and language

• Role in preoperative evaluation

173
Q

Amyloidosis and

AL primary subtype

A

[Amyloidosis]
Abnormal aggregation of proteins (or their fragments) into β-pleated linear sheets > insoluble fibrils > cellular damage and apoptosis. Amyloid deposits visualized by Congo red stain polarized light (apple green birefringence)
and H&E stain (shows deposits in glomerular mesangial
areas [white arrows], tubular basement membranes [black arrows]).

AL (primary subtype)
Due to deposition of proteins from Ig Light chains.
Can occur as a plasma cell disorder or
associated with multiple myeloma. Often affects multiple organ systems, including renal
(nephrotic syndrome), cardiac (restrictive cardiomyopathy, arrhythmia), hematologic (easy
bruising, splenomegaly), GI (hepatomegaly), and neurologic (neuropathy).

174
Q

AA (secondary amyloidosis

A

Seen with chronic inlammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, IBD,
spondyloarthropathy, familial Mediterranean fever, protracted infection.
Fibrils composed of
serum Amyloid A. Often multisystem like AL amyloidosis.

175
Q

Dialysis related
Heritable
Age-related (senile systemic)

Amyloidosis

A

Dialysis related:
Fibrils composed of β2-microglobulin in patients with ESRD and/or on long-term dialysis. May present as carpal tunnel syndrome.

Heritable:
Heterogeneous group of disorders, including familial amyloid polyneuropathies due to transthyretin
gene mutation.

Age related (senile systemic): 
Due to deposition of normal (wild-type) transthyretin (TTR) predominantly in cardiac ventricles.
Slower progression of cardiac dysfunction relative to AL amyloidosis.
176
Q

Organ specific amyloidosis

A

Amyloid deposition localized to a single organ. Most important form is amyloidosis in Alzheimer
disease due to deposition of β-amyloid protein cleaved from amyloid precursor protein (APP). Islet amyloid polypeptide (IAPP) is commonly seen in diabetes mellitus type 2 and is caused by
deposition of amylin in pancreatic islets.
Isolated atrial amyloidosis due to atrial natriuretic peptide is common in normal aging and can
predispose to increasedrisk of atrial fibrillation.
Amyloid deposition to ventricular endomyocardium in restrictive cardiomyopathy.
Calcitonin deposition in tumor cells in medullary carcinoma of the thyroid.

177
Q

Common causes of meningitis

Newborn 0-6 months
Children (6 months - 6 yr)
6-60 yr
60+ yrs

Treatment?
in HIV patients

A
Common causes of meningitis
NEWBORN (0–6 MO)
1. Group B streptococci
2. E coli
3. Listeria

CHILDREN (6 MO–6 YR)

  1. S pneumoniae
  2. N meningitidis
  3. H influenzae type B
  4. Enteroviruses

6-60 yr

  1. S pneumoniae
  2. N meningitidis #1 in teens
  3. Enterovirus
  4. HSV-2

60+ years

  1. S pneumoniae
  2. Gram negative rods
  3. Listeria

Give ceftriaxone and vancomycin empirically (add ampicillin if Listeria is suspected). Viral causes of meningitis: enteroviruses (especially coxsackievirus), HSV-2 (HSV-1 = encephalitis), HIV, West Nile virus (also
causes encephalitis), VZV. In HIV: Cryptococcus spp. Note: Incidence of H inluenzae meningitis has reduced greatly due to conjugate H inluenzae vaccinations. Today, cases are usually
seen in unimmunized children.

178
Q

CSF findings in meningitis in

Bacterial
Fungal/Tb
Viral

for 
opening pressure
cell type
protein
glucose
A
Bacterial: 
opening pressure: high
cell type: PMNs (general term for WBCs)
protein: high
glucose: low 
Fungal/Tb: 
opening pressure: high
cell type: lymphocyte
protein: high 
glucose: low 
Viral: 
opening pressure: normal or high 
cell type: lymphocyte
protein: normal/high
glucose: normal