Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Basic Med-Surg > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Neuro diagnostic studies and labs?

A

x-ray, CT scan, MRI, MRA.

Blood, CMP, CBC, serology, drug levels and screening, CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Paroxysmal transient disturbances of the brain resulting from a discharge of abnormal electrical activity.

A

Seizure disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A group of syndromes characterized by unprovoked, recurring seizures.

A

Epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Seizure pathophysiology?

A

Electrical disturbance in nerve cells in the brain emits abnormal, recurring, uncontrolled electrical discharges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What things might a patient experience during a procedure?

A

Loss of consciousness, excess movement or loss of muscle tone or movement, disturbances of behavior, mood, sensation, and/or perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Causes/triggers of seizure activity?

A

Hypoxemia, photosensitivity, sounds, fever, dehydration, head injury, hypertension, missed meds, stress, anxiety, drug interactions, hormonal changes, lack of sleep/fatigue, CNS infections, metabolic and toxic conditions, brain tumors, drugs/alcohol, allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Phase of a grand mal seizure that includes periods of muscle rigidity. Stiffening, muscle contractions.

A

Tonic
Extension of extremities; body arched. Epileptic cry. Jaw closes, cyanosis, pupils dilate, no light response, cyanosis, incontinence, may bite tongue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Phase of a grand mal seizure in which there is synchronous muscle jerking.

A

Clonic

Alternating rigidity and relaxation. Hyperventilation, excessive salivation, diaphoresis, eye rolling, cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What might a patient experience before a seizure?

A

An aura sensation (as of a cold breeze or bight light) that precedes the onset of certain disorders such as a migraine or epileptic seizure. Hallucinations, strange tastes and sounds, an urgency to get to safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Medical management of seizure disorders

A

History, physical exam, observation, EEG, CT and MRI, labs, anticonvulsants, follow-ups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Things to remember and watch for during a seizure?

A

Safety, circumstances, aura, type of movement, area of the body, pupils/eyes, position of the head, automatisms, duration, LOC, paralysis/weakness, speech, movements at the end of the seizure, does the patent sleep, cognitive status, incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

General seizure precautions?

A

Airway/oxygen. Suction equipment, IV access, bed in low position, side rails padded, no tongue blades, communication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Nursing interventions for a seizure?

A

Continuous monitoring, stay with the pt, anticonvulsants, turn head to side, reassure pt, privacy, loosen tight-fitting clothing, protect form injury, avoid forcing anything in to the mouth, avoid anything PO, including meds, until they’re awake and alert.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A series of generalized seizures without full recovery of consciousness between attacks. Is a medical emergency.

A

Status epilepticus. Continuous clinical/electrical seizure of at least a 30 minute duration. May result in brain damage and episodes of hypoxia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Causes of status epileptics?

A

Sudden withdrawal from meds. Brain lesions/trauma. Cerebral edema. Metabolic disorders. Alcohol or drug withdrawal. Infections. Profound unresolved hypoglycemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the drug of choice to stop seizures in status epileptics?

A

Lorazepam, which works better and more quickly with only one dose. Diazepam is the second option, needing more doses and often not working as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Things in common for all seizure meds?

A

Assess for the med’s control of seizures, Blood levels on occasion. Precaution with infusion rates. Drowsiness. Tapering off the med. Medic alert bracelet. Driving is restricted. Alcohol/drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When is surgical management of seizures needed?

A

When seizures are due to a tumor or other physical abnormality. If the patient doesn’t respond to meds and have frequent seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Goals for those with degenerative disease?

A

Maintain quality of life, manage symptoms, help patient to be independent as long as possible, support families as roles change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Etiology and pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis?

A

Unknown. Inflammation leads to demyelination of myelin sheath in the CNS. Results in nerve impulses being either blocked or slowed. Peak onset is between ages 25-35, affecting females more often

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

S/s of MS?

A

Varies. Relapsing-remitting. Visual, diplopia, nystagmus, spots before eyes, blindness. Pain, depression, weakness, fatigue, numbness, tingling, spasticity, tremors, ataxia, UTI, bowel/bladder, cognitive deficits, difficulty swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Diagnostic tests for MS?

A

MRI shows presence of multiple areas of plaque in CNS. Presence of IgG in CSF. Visual poked potentials, define extent of disease process and monitor changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Drug therapy for MS?

A

Treats acute attack, decreases frequency of relapses. Disease modifying therapies. S/s management. IV methylprednisolone. Antispasmodics baclofen, diazepam, dantrolene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Patient education for MS?

A

Exercise, spasticity and contractors, activity and rest, nutrition, avoid immobility. Prevention of injury, bladder and bowel control, communication and swallowing difficulties. Cognitive function, coping, home management, sexual functioning, ongoing support

25
Q

S/s of myasthenia gravis?

A

Motor disorder. Diplopia, ptosis. Muscle weakness of the face, throat, and facial muscles. Blank, vacant facial expression. Dysphonia, dysphagia, generalized weakness. No cognitive impairment.

26
Q

Management of myasthenia gravis (MG)?

A

Medications. Immunosuppressive therapy, steroids. Plasmapheresis. Thymectomy, a surgical removal of the thymus gland.

27
Q

Explain the Tensilon test? Ice?

A

For myasthenia gravis. Short-acting anticholinesterase drug Tensilon is given. Test positive if there is an increase in strength in muscle group, ptosis should improve for about five minutes. Given via IV push.
Ice is placed on eyes for five minutes. Should improve if positive.

28
Q

What drugs should be avoided with MG?

A

Drugs that cause muscle relaxation, barbiturates, tranquilizers, morphine.

29
Q

What does anticholinesterase do for MG?

A

Relieves s/s, does not cure the disease. Given to increase the response of the muscles and improve muscle strength. Provides the acetylcholine that allows the impulses to travel to the muscles.

30
Q

Acute exacerbation of MG were severe generalized muscle weakness that may become life-threatening occurs.

A

Myasthenia crisis. Due to inadequate med dosing to help transmit nerve impulses. May be precipitated by infection, pregnancy, stressors. Neuromuscular/respiratory failure. Dysphagia, dysarthria, eyelid ptosis, diplopia.

31
Q

Rare toxic response to med where respiratory failure may develop due to overdosing of meds used to treat MG.

A

Cholingeric crisis. May require ventilator assistance.

32
Q

Autoimmune disease that attacks the peripheral nerve myelin. Rapid segmental demyelination of peripheral nerves and some cranial nerves.

A

Guillian-Barre syndrome (GBS). Considered to be a med emergency due to rapid progression and neuromuscular respiratory failure. Infections, vaccinations.

33
Q

What do most people who have GBR syndrome die due to?

A

Respiratory failure. Most patients do make it to a full recovery, although it may take up to six months.

34
Q

May progress rapidly. Decreased reflexes in lower extremities, paresthesia of hands and feet.

A

GBS. Pain. No cognitive impairment. Starts in the feet and moves up bilaterally and progressively. Respiration, swallowing, bladder function. May need ventilator if it affects the diaphragm.

35
Q

Interventions for GBS?

A

Maintain respiratory function, prevent complications of immobility. Plasmapheresis and IV immunoglobulin therapy. No particular drug.

36
Q

Depletion of dopamine, the neurotransmitter required to control posture and voluntary movement.

A

Parkinson’s disease. Loss of dopamine causes loss of control of voluntary movement.Impaired judgement, emotional instability, fatigue, difficulty swallowing. Gradual and slow onset. Mental deterioration happens over time. S/s increase with stress.

37
Q

Cardinal signs of Parkinson’s disease (PD)?

A

Tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, postural instability.

38
Q

S/s of PD?

A

Dyskinesia, dysphonia, micrographia, depression, anxiety, personality changes, dementia, freezing phenomenon.

39
Q

Diagnosis and interventions for PD?

A

Diagnosis is made based on history and s/s. No cure for PD but s/s can be controlled by meds. Very individualized. Deep brain stimulation surgery.

40
Q

Complications of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Respiratory/urinary tract infection. Skin breakdown. Injury from falls because they’re so posturally unstable. Death due to pulmonary or renal disease.

41
Q

Interventions for PD?

A

Ambulatory devices, ADL’s especially eating, elimination, nutrition, swallowing, communication, coping, home care

42
Q

Etiology of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A

ALS/Lou Gehrig’s disease. Motor neurons die; muscle fibers undergo atrophic changes. They do not regenerate. Myelin sheath destroyed and replaced with scar tissue resulting in nerve impulses that are distorted or blocked.

43
Q

What is the effect of ALS?

A

Sensation and mental status pathways are not affected. Cognitive status and feelings are in tact, they just can’t perform motor functions.

44
Q

S/s of ALS?

A

Fatigue, decreased fine finger control, fasciculation, spasticity, cramps, lack of coordination, difficulty talking, dysphagia, progressive muscle weakness/atrophy, respiratory paralysis, end up being ventilator-dependent

45
Q

Diagnostic tests and interventions for ALS?

A

DX made based on clinical manifestations. No sure. Supportive, living will. Make the pt as comfortable as possible.

46
Q

Severed spinal cord. Paralysis below injury.

A

Complete transection.
Paraplegia, below the level of the injury.
Tetraplegia, involves all four extremities

47
Q

Spinal cord injury in which there is some function below injury.

A

Incomplete.
Hypoesthesia, just a decrease in sensation
Hyperesthesia, an increase in tingling and sensation

48
Q

The two categories of spinal cord injury?

A

Primary injury, the result of initial injury or trauma, usually permanent.
Secondary injury, caused by swelling and disintegration of nerve fibers due to an injury. May be reversible within the first 4-6 hours.

49
Q

S/s of spinal cord injuries?

A

Depends on the level of the injury. Pain. Pt may express fear that beck or back is broken. Respiratory dysfunction.

50
Q

Initial assessment emergency care of a spinal cord injury?

A

Airway. Immobilization, especially of neck injuries. IV fluids. Urinary catheter if they’ve lost innervation to the bladder. NG tube because they may develop a paralytic ileus if loss of innervation to the bowel.

51
Q

Acute phase care of a spinal cord injury?

A

Prevent secondary injuries. Observe for progression of deficits. Prevent complications. Pharmacologic therapy. Respiratory therapy. Skeletal fracture reduction and traction.

52
Q

Occurs due to the sudden depression of reflex activity below the level of the injury.

A

Spinal shock. Lack of sensation, paralyzed, flaccid, with absent reflexes. Particularly bowel and neurogenic bladder. Paralytic ileum.

53
Q

Occurs due to the loss of autonomic NS function below the level of the spinal cord injury.

A

Neurogenic shock. Affects vital organs. Leads to hypotension, bradycardia, cardiac output, peripheral vasodilation, venous pooling, absence of perspiration. Orthostatic hypotension.

54
Q

What respiratory challenges are those who have had a spinal cord injury prone to?

A

Pneumonia, atelectasis, pulmonary embolism, respiratory failure.

55
Q

Caused by uncontrolled sympathetic nervous system stimulation from noxious stimulus. Seen with injuries above T6 and after spinal shock resolved.

A

Autonomic dysreflexia. Is a life-threatening emergency because it can cause a hypertensive crisis.

56
Q

S/s of autonomic dysreflexia?

A

Sudden, severe, pounding headache. Severe hypertension and profuse diaphoresis. Bradycardia, nasal congestion, blurred vision, nausea

57
Q

Goal of care for autonomic dysreflexia?

A

To remove the triggering stimulus. Raise the bed to high fowler’s. Assessment to find cause: palpate bladder, asses for fecal impaction, check skin, check room temp.

58
Q

Nursing interventions for autonomic dysrefelxia?

A

Aimed at prevention complications. Adequate breathing/airway clearance. Mobility. Preventing injury. Skin integrity. Elimination. Home care.

Basic Med-Surg (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions