Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Challenge Bowl > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

MCC of SAH

A

rupture of berry aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

MC location for berry aneurysm

A

Middle Cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give this stroke location:

Major deficit is in the LLE w/ minimal LUE involvement and no involvement of the face

A

R anterior cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the location for this stroke:

Pt presents with diplopia, CNS dysfxn, ataxia, vertigo, & BL motor & sensory changes

A

Vertebrobasilar artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give this stroke location:
Pure motor stroke on the CONTRALATERAL side of the lesion, pure sensory stroke CONTRALATERAL to the lesion, & clumsy-hand dysarthria

A

Lacunar stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Patient cannot identify friends and family around them

A

agnosia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

patient loses the ability to perform basic math fxns

A

Acalcula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of memory loss is most pronounced in a pt w/ Alzheimer’s dz?

A

recent memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of protein deposits occur in the brain of a pt w/ Alzheimer’s dz?

A

beta amyloid deposits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MC ophthalmologic problem that is seen w/ MS

A

optic neuritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the underlying infxn in a pt w/ Ramsay Hunt Syndrome?

A

Herpes zoster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Paralysis or weakness of the muscles supplied by the FACIAL N., typically occurs UNILATERALLY, & is due to inflammation & swelling of the facial n.

A

Bell’s palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What autoimmune dz has a destruction of myelin & or axons by anti-ganglioside Abs?

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the most frequent cause of peripheral neuropathy in the developed world?

A

DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Dz assoc. w/ ptosis, diplopia, dysphonia, PROXIMAL LIMB WEAKNESS, DYSPHAGIA, & respiratory weakness

A

Myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What reflex is initially affected by the polyneuropathy in DM?

A

Achilles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

This is a demyelinating dz of PERIPHERAL NERVES that causes an acute progressive weakens, usu as an ASCENDING PARALYSIS

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This is a disorder of NEUROMUSCULAR JXN resulting in pure motor sx w/ WEAKNESS & FATIGUE

A

Myasthenia Gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What condition does the following medications tx: Zomig, Amerge, Maxalt, Frova, & Relpax?

A

Migraine HA (these are ALL triptans)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Type of HA that is severe, UNILATERAL, & located in the periorbital area & temple that is assoc. w/ IPSILATERAL LACRIMATION, rhinorrhea, ptosis, miosis, & nasal congestion

A

Cluster HA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

W/o medication, the MC way a migraine HA’s pain is terminated…

A

sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

3 hormones that are thought to result in migraine HAs

A
  1. serotonin (biggest role)
  2. dopamine
  3. NE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

2 foods known to cause migraine HA

A
  1. Aged cheese

2. wine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This type of HA is MCly described as dull, pressing, or BAND-LIKE that occurs upon arising or shortly thereafter

A

Tension HA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Category of medication that triptans occur

A

5HT-1 agonists (serotonin agonists)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This HA has pain in the OCCIPITO-FRONTAL areas of the heal along w/ tenderness of the neck & scalp muscles

A

Tension HA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What psychiatric condition is commonly present in those w/ daily HA or tension HA?

A

depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

MCC of endemic encephalitis that is related to a virus

A

HSV 1 & 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

MC enterovirus causing encephalitis

A

Coxsackie B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Medication of choice for treating HSV encephalitis

A

Acyclovir IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

2 MCCs of neonatal bacterial meningitis

A
  1. Grp B & D strep

2. E coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

2 MCCs of adult onset bacteral meningitis

A
  1. Strep. pneumoniae

2. H. influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the ONLY neurodegenerative dz that is treatable long-term?

A

Parkinson’s dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Abx TOC for bacterial meningitis in those 0-4 wks of age

A

Ampicillin + 3rd gen cephalosporin (ex. Rocephin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

This condition involves an involuntary repetitive contraction of agonist & antagonist muscles producing rhythmic oscillation around a joint at a regular frequency

A

Tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

MC condition resulting in a resting tremor

A

Parkinson’s dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

TOC for MS

A

Immunomodulating meds such as INTERFERON

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What MAO B inhibitor is MCly used in the mgmt of Parkinson’s Dz?

A

Selegine (Eldeprel)

-reversible w/ d/c of tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The medication Tolcapone use in the mgmt of Parkinson’s dz belongs to what class?

A 
COMT inhibitor (catechol-o-methyl transferase)
- it reduces peripheral metabolism of levodopa permitting increased brain concentration of levodopa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The agents Pramipexole & Ropinirole use in the tx of Parkinson’s dz & RLS belong to what classification?

A

Dopamine agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Sinemet is a combination of:

A

levodopa & carbidopa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Anticholinergics used in the tx of Parkinson’s dz have their best activity against what Parkinson’s sxs?

A

tremor & rigidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

This is an inherited dz characterized by DEMENTIA & CHOREA that has a gradual onset & SLOW PROGRESSION

A

Huntington’s dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Medication of choice used for dyskinesia &/or behavioral problems due to Huntington’s dz?

A

Haloperidol (Haldol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

This is a recurrent, inflammatory progressive DEMYELINATION OF WHITE MATTER of the brain & spinal cord resulting in multiple & varied neurologic s/sx

A

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What imaging technique is considered to the the gold standard for identifying MS?

A

Gadolineum enhanced MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Radiofrequency rhizotomy is used for what condition?

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Drug TOC for relapsing MS

A

Beta interferon, Copolymer (Copaxone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

TRANSIENT DISTURBANCE of cerebral fxn due to PAROXYSMAL DISCHARGE in the brain

A

seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

3 types of generalized seizures

A
  1. Absence (petit mal)
  2. Myoclonic
  3. Tonic-clonic (grand mal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

2 types of partial seizures

A
  1. simple

2. complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Type of seizure that is MCly assoc. w/ automatisms

A

Complex partial seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Name this seizure:
Pt. has impaired consciousness, sometimes w/ mild, clonic, tonic, or atonic components such as reduction or loss of postural tone

A

Absence (petit mal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Abrupt onset of HA assoc. w/ STIFF NECK & PHOTOPHOBIA & may have the development of focal neurologic deficits is usu due to

A

Cerebral aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Gold standard diagnostic study for evaluation of a cerebral aneurysm

A

cerebral angiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Imaging modality of choice used in the evaluation of a cerebral aneurysm

A

non-contrast CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the biggest risk factor for TIAs affecting the small, deep vessels of the brain (lacunar strokes)?

A

HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Name the 3 most important PE findings that are most specific to stroke syndromes

A
  1. Facial paralysis
  2. Arm drift
  3. AMS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What biochemical markers may be found in a pt who has an intracranial hemorrhage?

A 
Matrix metalloproteinases (MMP) & cellular fibronectin 
- both are elevated in hemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

3 MCCs of death in the US

A
  1. CAD
  2. cancer
  3. stroke
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Name the condition with the following assoc. sx:
sudden weakness or numbness one one side of the face or body; sudden confusion, trouble speaking or understanding; sudden trouble seeing in one eye; sudden trouble w/ walking, dizziness, loss of balance or coordination; & sudden severe HA w/o cause

A

stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

DOC for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Oxycarbazepine (Trileptal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

2 main causes of hemorrhagic stroke

A
  1. intracerebral hemorrhage

2. subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Imaging study of choice in the initial evaluation of a pt suspected of having a stroke

A

non-contrast CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Time frame in which thrombolytics can be given to a pt w/ an ischemic stroke

A

w/in 3 hrs of sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What medication is considered to be the first-line agent to reduce stroke recurrence in pts who have prvious cardiac dz

A

Aggrenox (combination of dypridamole & Aspirin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

preferred agent of choice for stroke prevention in a pt who is at high risk for a stroke & who has a-fib

A

warfarin (coumadin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

2 non-antiplatelet medication classes that have been used as modifying risk factors for stroke

A

statins & ACE inhibitors combined w/ diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

sudden loss of muscle strength/tone w/ sudden LOC, immediate recovery after lasting only a few seconds

A

Atonic seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

spike & wave pattern on EEG at 3 per second is classically seen w/ what type of seizure?

A

Absence seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Gold standard tx for pts w/ myoclonic seizures

A

Valproic acid (Depakote)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Type of seizure that is MCly assoc. w/ automatisms

A

complex partial seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

part of the brain that is MCly assoc. w/ atonic seizures

A

Corpus callosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

MCC of status epilepticus

A

abrupt stoppage of antiepileptic medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

1st line antiepileptic medication (after the use of the fast-acting benzodiazepines) for pts with status epilepticus

A

Fosphenytoin (Cerebyx)

76
Q

Muscular complication from status epilepticus

A

Rhabdomyolysis

77
Q

coordinated, involuntary movements during a period of altered awareness that occurs during a seizure

A

automatism

78
Q

What is the name of the condition in which there is temporary paralysis following a general seizure?

A

Todd’s paralysis

79
Q

What type of seizure disorder is MCly assoc w/ aura?

A

complex partial seizures

80
Q

What type of seizure is assoc. w/ an ABRUPT ONSET, abrupt termination, lasts several seconds, & DOES NOT have a post-ictal state?

A

Absence seizures

81
Q

Name 2 1st-line therapies for partial seizures

A

Carbamazepine (Tegretol) * Valproic acid (Depakote)

Phenobarbital used in kids

82
Q

What organ is MCly damaged in pts taking carbamazepine (Tegretol) & valproate (Depakote)?

83
Q

What SE is typically seen w/ topiramate (Topamax) that is not seen w/ other anti-seizure medications?

A

weight loss

84
Q

Pt has nocturnal seizure, with UNILATERAL paresthesias of the tongue, lips, & cheeks, w/ UNILATERAL clonic or tonic activity of the face, lips or tongue & there is speech arrest & salivation. Name the condition.

A

Benign Rolandic Epilepsy

85
Q

What anesthetic agent is MCly used in the mgmt of status epilepticus?

A

Midazolam (Versed)

86
Q

What is the MC neurobehavioral disorder of childhood?

87
Q

2 hormones assoc. w/ the development of ADHD

A
  1. dopamine

2. NE

88
Q

What is the MC type of ADHD?

A

Combined (inattentive & hyperactive/impulse control)

89
Q

Familial hemiplegic migraine has a genetic abnormality in what part of the brain?

A

Calcium channel

90
Q

What category of medications does methylphenidate (Ritalin) belong?

91
Q

What is the MCC of episodic, disabling HA?

92
Q

What is the ONLY FDA-approved medication for Adult ADHD?

A

strattera (atomoxetine)

93
Q

Category of medication for atomoxetine (Strattera)

A

NE reuptake inhibitor

94
Q

What is the typical presentation for an Arnold-Chiari lesion?

95
Q

What neurologic motor problem may get worse w/ the use of stimulants in order to tx ADHD?

96
Q

This type of HA presents acutely and the pt claims this is the worst HA of their life:

A

SAH due to ruptured aneurysm

97
Q

phenomena seen w/ migraine HA that presents as sensitivity of the scalp when touched

A

cutaneous allodynia

98
Q

What antiseizure medication is FDA approved for migraine prophylaxis?

A

Topamax (topiramate)

99
Q

desire to move the legs that may abe assoc. w/ paresthesias w/ these sxs becoming overwhelming. These sensations occur when pt is inactive and this is relieved w/ moving the legs. These sxs are worse at night or in the evening. What is this condition?

A

Restless Leg Syndrome (RLS)

100
Q

What hormone is used in the tx of RLS?

A

dopamine agonists (Sinemet MC used)
- Requip (Ropinirole), Mirapex (pramipexole) are also
used

101
Q

What part of the trigeminal nerve is MCly involved w/ trigeminal neuralgia?

A

V2 - Maxillary Segment

102
Q

What neurological condition is MCly seen w/ trigeminal neuralgia?

103
Q

MCC of dementia

A

Alzheimer’s dz

104
Q

Pt presents with mental status changes, ataxia, and urinary incontinence, name the condition

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

pt’s are “wacky, wet, & wobbly”

105
Q

What class of meds is considered 1st-line therapy for Alzheimer’s dz?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (ex. donepezil [Aricept])

106
Q

What type of dementia is helped by performing ventriculoperitoneal shunts?

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

107
Q

What type of IRREVERSIBLE dementia is typified by having ht pt maintain a fluent speech but there is NO comprehension of written or verbal language?

A

Wernicke’s aphasia

108
Q

What is the most effective therapy for pain & spasm in an MS pt?

A

Baclofen or Tizanidine (Zanaflex)

109
Q

Name this condition: pts have a non-progressive disorder of movement or posture that is a result of CNS abnormality that could have occurred prenatally, perinatally, or during the 1st 3 yrs of life

A

cerebral palsy

110
Q

MCC of floppy baby syndrome

A

Cerebral palsy

111
Q

Injury to the long thoracic nerve presents as

A

winged scapula

112
Q

What never innervates the serratus anterior muscle

A

long thoracic nerve

113
Q

What is the clinical manifestation of an injury to the radial nerve?

A

wrist drop

114
Q

MC form of idiopathic facial paralysis?

A

Bell’s palsy

115
Q

A pt has a FLAT nasolabial fold, CANNOT close the eye, & CANNOT WRINKLE the FOREHEAD or raise the eyebrows. There are VESICLES IN THE EAR CANAL. What is this condition?

A

Ramsey Hunt Syndrome

116
Q

MCC of Ramsey Hunt Syndrome

A

herpes virus infxn

117
Q

What condition has hemisection of the spinal cord that causes loss of joint position sense & vibraiton sense on the same side as the lesion & pain & temperature on the opposite side a few levels below the lesion?

A

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

118
Q

What is the typical pattern of sensory loss for a pt w/ a posterior column loss?

A

loss of joint position sense & vibration sense

119
Q

Pt is able to recognize all sensation but localizes them poorly, has loss of 2-point discrimination, astereognosis, and sensory inattention. What area of the brain is damaged?

A

parietal lobe

120
Q

MCC of acute flaccid paralysis in the world

121
Q

MCC of acute GBS

A

Campylobacter jejuni

122
Q

2 MCly utilized tx for GBS

A
  1. plasmapheresis

2. infusions of high doses of human immunoglobulin

123
Q

What disorder is assoc. w/ autoAbs to ACETYLCHOLINE receptor?

A

Myasthenia gravis

124
Q

TOC for acute cluster HAs

A

high flow 100% O2 along w/ ergotamine or sumatriptan

125
Q

What prophylactic regimen can be given for the prevention of cluster HAs?

126
Q

Young obese premonpausal woman presents with HA, diplopia, & peripheral visual field defect. Name the condition

A

Pseudotumor cerebri

127
Q

What rheumatic condition may be associated w/ temporal arteritis?

A

polymyalgia rheumatica

128
Q

What is the confirmatory test for temporal arteritis?

A

temporal artery bx

129
Q

What clinical condition is classically described as having a wing-beating tremor?

A

Wilson’s dz

130
Q

What condition has loss of dopamine-producing neurons in the substantia nigra portion of the brain?

A

Parkinson’s dz

131
Q

phenomena by which MS sxs get worse w/ an increase in temperature

A

Uhthoff’s phenomenon

132
Q

MC subtype of MS

A

relapsing remitting MS

133
Q

stroke that affects the CONTRALATERAL ARM & FACE more than leg weakness, have CONTRALATERAL hemisensory dysfxn, & have paresis of CONTRALATERAL conjugate voluntary gaze & speech is typically NOT affected; which artery is involved?

A

Middle cerebral artery

134
Q

stroke that has deficits on the CONTRALATERAL leg, incontinence, & difficulty w/ stereognosis; which artery is involved?

A

Anterior cerebral artery

135
Q

TOC for a pt who surives his/her first SAH?

A

surgical clipping of the involved blood vessel

136
Q

MCC of epilepsy

A

idiopathic

137
Q

What is the best neuroimaging test to perform in a pt who just had a seizure?

A

MRI of the brain

138
Q

What medications are typically used in the mgmt of absence seizures?

A

ethosuximide (Zarontin) & valproic acid

139
Q

Medication of choice for myoclonic seizures

A

Valproic acid

140
Q

TOC for partial seizures

A

carbamazepine & phenytoin

141
Q

What is the primary drug of 1st choice used in the mgmt of generalized tonic-clonic seizures?

A

valproic acid

142
Q

What antiepileptic medication MCly causes gingival hyperplasia?

A

phenytoin (Dilantin)

143
Q

How long must seizures last in order to be classified as status epilepticus?

A

at least 30 min

144
Q

What is considered to be the medication of choice for status epilepticus?

145
Q

What are the various dermatome levels and the sensory nerves that innervate them?

A 
C2 - neck 
T4 - nipples
T10 - umbilicus 
L2 - lateral thigh
L3 - medial thigh/knee
L4 - medial calf
L5 - lateral calf down over big toe
S1 - lateral foot, heal, & back of calf
146
Q

What sensory nerves supply the various reflexes?

A 
C5 - biceps 
C6 - brachioradialis
C7 - triceps 
L2-4 - patellar 
S1 - Achilles
147
Q

What is the key to making the clinical diagnosis of Alzheimer’s dz?

A

mental status exam

148
Q

What is the primary dx for an infant who is slow to reach developmental milestones such as learning to walk, roll over, sit, & crawl?

A

cerebral palsy

149
Q

patient presents with intermittent paresthesias in the palmar aspect of the thumb, middle, & index fingers, diminished grip strength & diminished sharp-dull discrimination in the affected digits. Name the condition.

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

150
Q

What nerve is involved w/ Carpal Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Median nerve

151
Q

What is the classic triad of meningitis?

A
  1. fever
  2. HA
  3. nuchal rigidity
152
Q

intention tremors that occur only during movement

A

cerebellar tremor

153
Q

action tremors that primarily affect the upper arms & may also involve the face & vocal cords. The tremor persists throughout the active ROM & increases w/ fine motor activity and stress.

A

essential tremor

154
Q

What is the tx of essential tremor?

A

propranolol (Inderal)

- can also be suppressed by alcohol

155
Q

Pt presents with a resting tremor that does not affect the head along w/ bradykinesia. When walking, these pts will have a shuffling gait & loss of arm movements w/ postural instability

A

Parkinson’s dz

156
Q

MC precipitant of cluster HAs

A

alcohol use

157
Q

Type of HA that is assoc w/ sentinel bleed

A

Subarachnoid bleed

158
Q

HA type that is MCly assoc w/ jaw claudication

A

temporal arteritis

159
Q

Procedure that must be done if subarachnoid HA is suspected & CT scan is negative for bleed

A

Lumbar puncture - will see gross bleeding or xanthrochromia

160
Q

TOC for temporal arteritis

A

high dose, long-term corticosteroids

161
Q

A 32-yo female pt presents w/ diplopia & ptosis, which are both worse by the end of the day. She also notes dysarthria if she has been talking a lot. What dx test is indicated for the evaluation of this pt?

A

edrophonium or Tensilon test

162
Q

A 32-yo female pt presents w/ diplopia & ptosis, which are both worse by the end of the day. She also notes dysarthria if she has been talking a lot. What dx test is indicated for the evaluation of this pt?

A

edrophonium or Tensilon test

163
Q

What is the TOC for myasthenia gravis?

A

pyridostigmine (Mestinon)

164
Q

A 56-yo man presents w/ a mild-mod. dull HA that has steadily progressed over the past mth. The HA is worse when he gets up in the morning or w/ coughing & sneezing. He also notes the recent onset of N/V. Dx?

A

intracranial tumor

165
Q

A 56-yo man presents w/ a mild-mod. dull HA that has steadily progressed over the past mth. The HA is worse when he gets up in the morning or w/ coughing & sneezing. He also notes the recent onset of N/V. Dx?

A

intracranial tumor

166
Q

67-yo F complains of intermittent episodes of pain in her cheek & jaw that feel like a “lightning bolt hit her face”. The pain is triggered by eating or touching her face. Her PE is negative. What is the dx?

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

167
Q

MCC of meningitis in pts w/ AIDs?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

168
Q

MCC of meningitis in pts w/ AIDs?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

169
Q

Which pathogen assoc. w/ bacterial meningitis presents w/ a petechial & purpuric rash?

A

Neisseria meningitidis

170
Q

What are the CSF findings in bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Elevated WBC (>1000 cells/mm3)

- Decreased CSF glucose (200 mg/dL)

171
Q

What is the recommended Abx tx for an 18 yo pt w/ bacterial meningitis?

A

3rd gen. cephalosporin & vancomycin

172
Q

What is the recommended Abx tx for a 60-yo adult w/ bacterial meningitis?

A

Ampillicin + 3rd gen. cephalosporin + vanc.

173
Q

What is the recommended Abx tx for a 60-yo adult w/ bacterial meningitis?

A

Ampillicin + 3rd gen. cephalosporin + vanc.

174
Q

Chronic & often lifelong syndrome consisting of motor &/or verbal tics

A

Tourette syndrome

175
Q

1st line tx for severe Tourette syndrome?

176
Q

The inability to perform rapid alternating movements

A

dysdiadochokinesias

177
Q

A pt w/ MS describes an electric shocklike sensation that runs down her back to her legs when she flexes her neck fwd. What is this phenomenon called?

A

Lhermitte sign

178
Q

A pt w/ MS describes an electric shocklike sensation that runs down her back to her legs when she flexes her neck fwd. What is this phenomenon called?

A

Lhermitte sign

179
Q

What are the findings on exam of the CSF for a pt w/ MS?

A

Mild pleocytosis & the presence of oligoclonal bands

180
Q

What is the TOC for an acute exacerbation of MS?

A

corticosteroids

181
Q

What is the MCC of seizures in infants & children?

A

Febrile seizures

182
Q

MCC of seizures in adults older than 65 yrs:

A

Cerebrovascular dz

183
Q

A pt initially experience clonic movements of the hand, which then spread to involve the forearm & upper arm. What is this phenomenon called?

A

Jacksonian march

184
Q

A pt initially experience clonic movements of the hand, which then spread to involve the forearm & upper arm. What is this phenomenon called?

A

Jacksonian march

185
Q

A pt presents w/ the loss of vision in the L eye, which he describes as “someone pulling a shade down over his eye”. The episode resolved spontaneously w/in 30 min. What is this neurological sx called?

A

Amaurosis fugax

186
Q

A pt presents w/ the acute onset of quadriplegia. He is able to communicate only by blinking or moving his eyes up & down. What is the most likely dx?

A

Locked-in syndrome

-consistent w/ a pontine stroke

Challenge Bowl (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions