Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Medicine > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

Brainstem role

A
  • Carries ascending sensory and descending motor tracts
  • Breathing, consciousness, HR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cerebellum role

A

Balance, coordination, posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Thalamus role

A

Sensory relay info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hypothalamus role

A

Homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Position and role of hippocampus and fornix

A

In temporal lobe
Learning, memory, spatial navigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What occurs in the lateral ventricles?

A

Production and recycling of CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Role of caudate nucleus

A

Planning/execution of movement
Memory, cognition, emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Role of putamen

A

Cognition and reward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Amygdala role

A

Behaviour (including fear and anxiety)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Role of sub-cortical white matter

A

Connects cortical to sub-cortical regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Role of cortical grey matter

A

Memory, thinking, problem-solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

2nd subdivisions of the brain:
Forebrain (prosencephalon): Telencephalon includes…
Diencephalon includes…

A

Telencephalon - Cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, limbic system

Diencephalon - Thalamus, hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

2nd subdivisions of the brain:
Midbrain (Mesencephalon)

A

Mesencephalon - tegmentum, tectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

2nd/3rd subdivisions of the brain:
Hindbrain:
Metencephalon includes…
Myelencephalon includes…

A

Metencephalon - pons, cerebellum

Myelencephalon - medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Cervical nerve region supplies…

A

Head, neck, diaphragm, arms, hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Thoracic nerve region supplies…

A

Chest muscles, breathing, abdominal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lumbar nerve region supplies…

A

Legs and feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sacral nerve region supplies…

A

Bowel and bladder control
Sexual functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Somatic vs autonomic nervous system

A

Somatic - interacts with environment (afferent- sensory from skin, muscles…, efferent - motor back to skin, muscles…)

Autonomic - regulates internal body (afferent - sensory from internal organs to CNS, efferent - motor from CNS to internal organs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Prefrontal cortex role

A

Generating sophisticated behavioural options that are mindful of consequences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Specific role of inferotemporal cortex within the temporal lobe

A

Recognising faces and objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many layers of nerve cells in cerebral cortex?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ventral stream of occipital lobe

A

Vision for identification- stream travels to temporal lobe (what does this image mean to us?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Dorsal stream of occipital lobe

A

Vision for movement- stream travels to motor areas (where is it in relation to us?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

2 parts of substantia nigra (part of tegmentum)

A

Substantia nigra pars compacta - basal ganglia input

Substantia nigra pars reticulata - basal ganglia output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Medulla role

A

Contains tracts carrying signals between brain and rest of body

Low level sensorimotor control (e.g-balance)
Vital functions (e.g-sleep)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Pons role

A

Relay from cortex and midbrain to cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Cerebellum

A

Contains as many neurons as all rest of CNS

Adjusts synaptic weight to amend area and alter adjust movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Tectum role and subdivisions

A

Visual/spacial and auditory frequency maps

Superior Colliculus - sensitive to sensory change (orientating/defensive movement)

Inferior Colliculus - similar but for auditory events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

3 key structures of the tegmentum

A

The Periaqueductal Gray
Red Nucleus
Substantia Nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Periaqueductal Gray role (tegmentum)

A

Defensive behaviour, pain, repro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Red nucleus role (tegmentum)

A

Target of cortex and cerebellum (projects to spinal cord)

Pre-cortical motor control (in arms and legs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Thalamus (in diencephalon) role

A

Specific nuclei - relay signal to cortex for all sensations (except smell)

Non-specific nuclei - role in regulating sleep/wakefulness

Relays from basal ganglia and cerebellum back to cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Hypothalamus (in diencephalon) role

A

Regulates pituitary gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

2 sub-cortical structures of cerebral cortex

A

Basal ganglia
Limbic system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

6 structures in the limbic system

A

Amygdala
Hippocampus
Cingulate gyrus
Mammillary body
Septum
Fornix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hippocampus role

A

Long-term and spatial memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Amygdala role

A

associating sensory stimuli to emotional impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Fornix role

A

C-shaped
Carries signals from hippocampus to mammillary bodies and septal nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What part of the parietal lobe receives sensation from rest of body?

A

Post-central gyrus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

General role of limbic system

A

Emotion, motivation, emotional association with memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Things affecting loudness and pitch

A

Louder sound = greater amplitude
Higher pitch = greater frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Human range of hearing

A

20Hz - 20Khz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Presbycusis

A

Age related hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pinna

A

Cartilagenous structure
Formed from pharyngeal arches 1 and 2
Directs soundwaves towards ear canal
Picks out high pitch sounds better than low pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When in utero does the pinna form?

A

10th-18th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Ear canal constitution

A

1/3 cartilage
2/3 bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Whats makes up middle ear?

A

Bones: Malleus, incus, stapes
Muscles: Tensor tympani, stapedius
Tubes: Eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Role of middle ear

A

Amplification of airborne sound vibration
Area TM: Stapes = 14:1
Lever action of ossicles- handle of malleus x1.3 longer than long process of incus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Roles of muscles in middle ear

A

Protect inner ear from acoustic trauma
Stiffens ossicular chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Role of Eustachian Tube

A

Ventilating middle air space and drainage of secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Vestibulocochlear apparatus includes…

A

Cochlear, labyrinth, vestibulocochlear nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Cochlea

A

2.5 turns fluid filled bony tube
2 openings: round and oval windows
3 compartments (scala tympani, scala media, scala vestibuli)
2 ionic fluids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Fluid in scala media of the cochlea

A

Endolymph (High K+)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Fluid in scala vestibuli and scale tympani of cochlea

A

Perilymph (Na+ rich)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Role of labyrinth in vestibulocochlear apparatus

A

Responsible for balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Basilar Membrane

A

Narrow at base, wide at apex
Stiff at base, floppy at apex
High frequencies detected at base, low frequencies at apex
(ruler on a table)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Hair cells (stereocilia) role in organ of corti

A

Displacement of basilar membrane is converted to electrical signal
Inner hair cells - mechanical transduction
Outer hair cells - fine tuning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

From sound waves to electric signal

A

Movement of stereocilia
Mechanically gated K+ channels open = depolarization (K+ rich endolymph)
Depolarization results in opening of voltage gated Ca channels
Release of neurotransmitter including glutamate
Repolarization through K+ effluc (into K+ poor perilymph)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

From neuron in the ear to brain

A

Auditory fibre to spiral ganglion
Spiral ganglion to cohlear nerve (VIII)
Central auditory pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Role of brainstem in localising sound

A

Sound may hit R ear before L ear
Resulting in firing of neurons earlier in R ear than L ear so brain knows sound is coming from R side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Defective outer/middle ear =

A

Conductive hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Defective Inner ear =

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Ependymal cells

A

Epithelial-like, line ventricles and central canal of spinal cord

Functions - CSF production, flow and absorption

Ciliated to assist flow

Allow solute exchange between nervous tissue and CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Choroid plexus

A

Projections in ventricles formed from modified ependymal cells
Highly vascularised with large SA
Main site of CSF production by plasma filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Primitive Reflexes

A

Brain stem function only which occurs in babies but is concerning when you’re older
e.g- grasping reflex of palm when something touches it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

4 key elements of blood brain barrier

A

Endothelial cell tight junctions
Lack of BM fenestrations
Astrocytic end feet
Pericytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Main blood supply to brain

A

Vertebral arteries and common carotid arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What connects to the superior and inferior edges of the falx cerebri?

A

Superior sagittal sinus
Inferior sagittal sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What cells line the brain ventricles?

A

Ependymal Cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Feature of ependymal cells

A

Contain cilia to beat moving CSF along

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Interstitial fluid drains into CSF via…

A

Perivascular channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Lots of white matter on top of pons because…

A

Lots of nerve fibres travelling through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Cerebral peduncles

A

2 stalks that attach the cerebrum to the brainstem arising from the ventral pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

3 divisions of cerebellum

A

Archicerebellum
Paleocerebellum
Neo cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

4 roles of limbic system and the Papez circuit

A

Memory
Motivation
Emotion
Fight or flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Loss of hippocampus results in…

A

Inability to form new memories (don’t lose old memories)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

3 main groups of nuclei in thalamus

A

Sensory relays

Cerebella and basal ganglia relay to motor frontal lobe

Connected to associative limbic areas of cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Damage to thalamus =

A

Sensation loss, pain, movement disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Amygdala initiated during…

A

Fight or flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Coverings of spinal cord

A

Dura mater
Deep to that is arachnoid mater
Deep to that is pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Variation in spinal cord travelling inferiorly

A

Amount of white matter decreases as there are less neurons travelling through as you go down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

3 cranial nerves that move the eye

A

III - Oculomotor
IV - Trochlear
VI - Abducens
(moving the eye is their only role)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Diplopia

A

Double vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Muscle that lifts upper eyelid

A

Levator Palpabrae Superiosis (LPS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

4 recti muscles in the eye

A

Medial Rectus
Lateral Rectus
Superior Rectus
Inferior Rectus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

2 oblique muscles in the eye

A

Superior Oblique
Inferior Oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Origin and insertion of extraocular muscles

A

Origin - orbital bones
Insertion - The sclera (except LPS which inserts into upper eyelid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What innervates levator palpabrae superiosis?

A

Oculomotor nerve and sympathetic fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

3rd CN nerve injury results in…

A

Ptosis (drooping eyelid as LPS isn’t working)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What EOMs does the oculomotor nerve innervate?

A

LPS
Medial Rectus
Superior Rectus
Inferior Rectus
Inferior Oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What EOMs does the abducens nerve innervate?

A

Lateral Rectus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What EOMs does the trochlear nerve innervate?

A

Superior Oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Abducens nerve lesion=

A

Eye deviates medially
Patient experiences diplopia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Action of medial and lateral rectus

A

Medial and lateral movement of eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Primary and secondary actions of superior rectus

A

1) elevates the eye
2) adducts and medially rotates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Primary and secondary actions of inferior rectus

A

1) depresses the eye
2) adducts and laterally rotates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Primary and secondary actions of superior oblique

A

1) medially rotates eye
2) depresses and abducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Primary and secondary actions of inferior oblique

A

1) laterally rotates eye
2) elevates and abducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Content of vestibular structure of inner ear

A

Utricle and saccule
3 semicircular canals
(balance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Testing IV nerve function

A

Look medially then down (tests function of SO and therefore the trochlear nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Fluid contained in semicircular ducts

A

Endolymph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Function of semicircular ducts

A

Movement of endolymph causes cupula and hair cells in the ampulla to bend in the opposite direction sending info to brainstem via VIII (vestibulocochlear) nerve

This info reaches medulla and controls posture, balance and conscious awareness of position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Oculocephalic Reflex (and testing it)

A

Maintaining fixed gaze when head is moving as when head rotates, eyes move in opposite direction

Therefore, this reflex can be tested to assess vestibular apparatus and brainstem (absence of reflex could indicate brainstem lesion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Orbitofrontal cortex role

A

Appraisal
Medially - Activates reward
Laterally - Activates punishment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Amygdala role

A

Appraisal
Older brain
Role in appraisal but overshadowed by OFC
Responds to harmful stimuli but slower than OFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Anterior Cingulate cortex role

A

Supracallosal - processes punishment data from lateral OFC

Pregenual - processes reward data from medial OFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Posterior Cingulate cortex role

A

Input from parietal lobes
Output to hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Mid Cingulate cortex role

A

Output to premotor areas (e.g - SMA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Sensation

A

Mental process resulting from immediate external stimulation of a sense organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Perception

A

Ability to become aware of something following sensory stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Factors that determine how you perceive your environment (perceptual set)

A

Context
Culture
Expectations
Mood and Motivation

113
Q

Bottom-up vs top-down processing

A

Bottom-up - Sensation and perception essentially the same
Top-down - Processing sensation and perception are separate (reflex to being jump scared)

114
Q

Illusion

A

Misinterpreted perception of a stimulus

115
Q

Hallucination

A

Experiences involving apparent perception of something not present

116
Q

Sylvian Fissure

A

Same as lateral sulcus

117
Q

2 main sulci of parietal lobe

A

Postcentral sulcus
Intraparietal sulcus

118
Q

What does DTI (diffusion tensor imaging) (form of MRI) show?

A

Images of white matter tracts within CNS

119
Q

3 layers of eye

A

Outer layer - sclera and cornea
Middle layer - uvea
Inner layer - retina

120
Q

Sclera structure

A

Tough fibrous outer coat made of collagen

121
Q

What is the cornea made from?

A

Collagen

122
Q

Neuro-fibre compartment of the eye

A

Retina - extension from the brain

123
Q

2 roles of outer eye layer

A

Transparent for light transmission
Tough - barrier to infection

124
Q

Components of middle eye layer

A

Choroid, Iris, Ciliary body

125
Q

5 layers of outer eye

A

Epithelium
Bowman’s layer
Stroma
Descemet’s layer
Endothelium

126
Q

Ciliary body of eye

A

Glandular epithelium produces aqueous humour ciliary (smooth) muscle controls accommodation

127
Q

Choroid of eye

A

Blood supply to outer 1/3 of retina

128
Q

Components of inner eye layer

A

Retina - Specialised organ for phototransduction (many layer)

129
Q

Structures within retina

A

Macula lutea
Fovea centralis
Cones
Rods

130
Q

Hypermetropia

A

Underpowered to focus near objects on retina
Due to: corneal curvature too shallow, lens not flexible enough, axial length of eyeball too short

131
Q

Myopia

A

Overpowered so can’t focus far objects on retina
Due to: corneal curvature too deep, axial length of eyeball too long

132
Q

Outer eye responsible for ____ refractive power of eye

A

2/3

133
Q

Lens responsible for ___ refractive power of eye

A

1/3

134
Q

4 neuron cell types

A

Multipolar neuron (1 axon, lots of dendrites)
Bipolar neuron (1 axon, 1 dendrite)
Pseudo-unipolar neuron (1 branched axon)
Unipolar neuron (1 neutrite extending from cell body)

135
Q

Permeability of neuron cell membrane

A

Semi-permeable
K+, Cl- cross readily
Na+ crosses with some difficulty
Large protein anions can’t cross

136
Q

2 forces determining ion distribution in neurons

A

Diffusion
Electrostatic pressure

137
Q

Sodium-Potassium pump

A

Pumps 2 K+ in for every 3 Na+ out which maintains the -70mV resting potential

138
Q

Excitatory neurotransmitters

A

They depolarise membrane increasing chance of an AP being generated (= excitatory post synaptic potential (EPSP))

139
Q

Inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

Hyperpolarise the membrane decreasing chance of AP being generated (= inhibitory post synaptic potential (IPSP))

140
Q

Synaptic transmission

A

Neurotransmitters activate receptors on dendrites
Receptors open ion channels
Ions cross membrane changing membrane potential
Potential changes spread through cell
If potential changes felt at axon hillock are large enough, AP generated

141
Q

Threshold value for generation of action potential

A

~-60mV

142
Q

How neurotransmitter enters synapse

A

Ca2+ channels open when AP reach pre-synaptic cleft
Ca2+ cause vesicles to move to release sites, fuse with cell membrane and release their contents

143
Q

Inner 2/3 of retina supplied by…

A

Central retinal artery

144
Q

Outer 1/3 of retina supplied by…

A

Choroid (post ciliary arteries)

145
Q

IASP definition of pain

A

Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with, or resembling that associated with, actual or potential tissue damage

146
Q

Acute pain

A

Pain <12 weeks duration

147
Q

Chronic pain

A

Continuous pain lasting >12 weeks
Pain that persists beyond tissue healing time
Classified as chronic non-cancer and chronic cancer pain

148
Q

Nociceptive pain

A

Pain arising from actual/threatened damage to non-neural tissue and is due to the activation of nociceptors.

149
Q

Neuropathic pain

A

Pain caused by legion/disease of somatosensory nervous system

150
Q

Nociplastic pain

A

Pain arising from altered nociception despite no clear evidence of actual or threatened tissue damage causing the activation of peripheral nociceptors, or evidence for disease or lesion of the somatosensory system causing the pain

151
Q

Allodynia

A

Pain due to a stimulus that doesn’t normally provoke pain

152
Q

Dysesthesia

A

Unpleasant abnormal sensation, whether spontaneous/evoked

153
Q

Hyperalgesia

A

Increased pain from stimulus that normally provokes pain

154
Q

Hypoalgesia

A

Diminished pain in response to a normally painful stimulus

155
Q

Nociceptors

A

Peripheral receptors of pain system turning physical stimulus -> AP

156
Q

Nociceptors are the free nerve endings of primary afferent neurons which are?

A

A-delta fibres
C fibres
Found in any area of body that can sense pain externally or internally
Cell bodies of these neurons found in dorsal root ganglion and trigeminal ganglion

157
Q

Dorsal root ganglion

A

Present in dorsal root
Composed of cell bodies of nerve fibres that are sensory (afferent)
First order neurons
Pseudo-unipolar neurons

158
Q

Nerve fibre type: A-alpha

A

Carry proprioception info
Myelinated

159
Q

Nerve fibre type: A-beta

A

Carry touch info
Myelinated

160
Q

Nerve fibre type: A-delta

A

Pain (mechanical and thermal)
Myelinated

161
Q

Nerve fibre type: C

A

Pain (mechanical, thermal, chemical)
Non-myelinated

162
Q

Purpose of pain

A

Immediately: warning to withdraw from source of tissue damage

Later: encourages us to immobilise injured area giving damaged tissue best chance to heal

163
Q

What is depression?

A

Low mood, anhedonia, low energy
Biological symptoms - poor sleep, poor appetite, reduced libido, poor concentration
Cognitive symptoms - worthlessness, guilt, hopelessness, suicidal thoughts

164
Q

Depression effect on hippocampus

A

Hippocampus function in memory
Reduces size (up to 20%)
More depressive episodes = greater hippocampus size loss
Much of this loss is irreversible

165
Q

Stress effect on neurogenesis

A

Reduces neurogenesis
Stress reduces brain derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) (reversed with antidepressants)
Lowest levels in post-mortems of successful suicide victims

166
Q

Motor unit

A

An alpha motor neuron and ALL the muscle fibres it innervates

167
Q

Less muscle fibres innervated by a motor neuron =

A

Greater variation in movement (fingertips)

168
Q

Alpha motor neurons located laterally control…

A

More distal muscles

169
Q

Alpha motor neurons located medially control…

A

More proximal muscles

170
Q

Muscle tone is…

A

Degree of contraction of a muscle or the proportion of motor units that are activated at one time

171
Q

UMNs are…

A

Neuron whose cell body originates in cerebral cortex / brainstem and terminates within brainstem / spinal cord

172
Q

LMNs are…

A

Multipolar neuron connecting UMN and skeletal muscle it innervates
Cell body in ventral horn of spinal cord or in brainstem motor nuclei

173
Q

2 types of LMN

A

Alpha-motor neurons: cause contraction of muscle fibres

Gamma-motor neurons: regulation of muscle tone and maintaining non-conscious proprioception

174
Q

Neuromuscular junction

A

AP in motor neuron arrives at axon terminal and depolarises plasma membrane

Voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open and Ca2+ diffuse into axon terminal

Ca binds to proteins allowing ACh vesicles to fuse with presynaptic membrane

ACh diffuses to motor end plate binding to cholinergic nicotinic receptors

Opens ion channel in receptor protein resulting in more Na+ moving in than K+ moving out = end-plate potential generated

175
Q

What happens to ACh in the synaptic junction after it has stimulated the motor plate?

A

It’s broken down by acetylcholinesterase and recycled in axon terminals

176
Q

A skeletal muscle comprises several…
A …… is constituted of several …….
…. contain protein filament: …. and …..

A

Muscle fasciculi
Muscle fasciculus
Myofibrils
Myofibrils
Actin and Myosin

177
Q

The Motor Pool

A

All the LMNs that innervate a single muscle (containing alpha and gamma motor neurons)
Motor pools often rod-like shape within ventral horn of spinal column

178
Q

Reflex

A

Operate without engaging brain
Critical for avoidance of injury and effective motor control

179
Q

Homunculus representing the motor cortex

A

Oversimplifies - damage to single finger area doesn’t mean loss of voluntary control of that finger (representations should overlap)
This is because few motor commands require isolated activation of a single motor unit

180
Q

Somatic vs Autonomic Nervous System

A

S: Conscious/voluntary regulation
Fibres don’t synapse after they leave the CNS (single neuron from CNS to effector organ)
Innervates skeletal muscle fibres, always stimulatory
A: Involuntary
Fibres synapse once at a ganglion after they leave CNS
Innervates smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands (either stimulates or inhibits)

181
Q

What are the 2 main output within the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Vagus nerve to thorax and abdomen
Sacral outflow to Pelvic organs

182
Q

Neurotransmitters at autonomic motor neurons

A

ACh at ganglion
ACh or NE at effector

183
Q

Neurotransmitters at somatic motor neuron

A

ACh at effector

184
Q

3 components of ANS

A

-Parasympathetic
-Sympathetic
-Enteric NS

185
Q

Adrenal Medulla (Fight or Flight)

A

Adrenal gland secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline (secretion stimulated by sympathetic trunk) triggering fight or flight (vasoconstriction etc.)

186
Q

Enteric Nervous System

A

Works independently from ANS
Consists of a mesh-like system of neurons that governs the function of the gastrointestinal tract

187
Q

There are sympathetic receptor subtypes (alpha1, alpha 2, beta 1…. etc) which is important because…

A

Different receptors can be targeted to target specific organs (beta 2 receptors found in lungs)

188
Q

Carotid body found…

A

Bifurcation point between Internal and External Carotid Artery

189
Q

ANS Parasympathetic Outflows

A

CN 3,7,9,10
S1, S2

190
Q

ANS Sympathetic Outflows

A

-CNs to eye
-Sympathetic Chain
-Other Ganglia
-Adrenal amplification (fibres in white and grey rami communicantes, splanchnic nerves to large thoraco-abdominal plexi)

191
Q

Non Cardiovascular ANS Measurement (5)

A

Pupillometry
Sweat measurement
Skin blood flow (thermoregulation)
Gastric acid secretion
Sexual function

192
Q

Easiest way to measure ANS

A

HR and BP

193
Q

Associated nuclei of basal ganglia

A

Caudate Nucleus
Putamen
Globus pallidus
Subthalamic nucleus
Substantia nigra
Pedunculopontine nucleus

194
Q

What is within the lenticular nucleus in the basal ganglia?

A

Putamen and globus pallidus

195
Q

What is within the Striatum (Neostriatum) in the basal ganglia?

A

Caudate nucleus and putamen

196
Q

What is within the Corpus striatum in the basal ganglia?

A

Caudate nucleus
Putamen
Globus Pallidus

197
Q

Axons from the primary motor cortex project through what to through the spinal cord?

A

Anterior horn of spinal cord (here it synapses to the LMN which carries the impulse to the muscle)

198
Q

Connection between nerve and muscle is called…

A

The neuromuscular junction

199
Q

In reflexes, what connects sensory and motor neurons in the spinal cord?

A

The interneuron

200
Q

Path of motor neurons from spinal cord

A

Axons project from anterior grey matter of spinal cord -> plexus -> muscle

201
Q

Major events in neuromuscular transmission

A

-Motor neuron depolarises so AP travels down to NMJ
-Depolarisation of axon terminal = Ca2+ channels open = Ca2+ influx = fusion of vesicles and ACh release
-ACh binds to post-synaptic receptor located on muscle fibre at motor-end plate
-Results in cation entry locally depolarising the sarcolemma
-Sarcolemmal depolarisation = opening Na+ channels = Na+ influx = depolarisation of sarcolemma travelling to t-tubules
-Results in release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum (contraction)

202
Q

What inactivates ACh in the synaptic cleft after contraction of muscle?

A

Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

203
Q

Skeletal muscle make up

A

Muscle cell = muscle fibre
Muscle fibres made of myofibrils
Myofibrils made of sarcomeres

204
Q

Basal Ganglia impact on muscle movement

A

-Motor cortex supplies input to both basal ganglia and reticular formation

-Fibres travel from reticular formation to spinal cord for muscle contraction

-Basal ganglia has a damping effect on reticular formation making sure muscle contraction is controlled (this damping effect is absent in patients with Parkinson’s)

205
Q

2 subgroups of the basal ganglia are…

A

The rostral (upper) part
The caudal (lower) part

206
Q

What is contained within the rostral part of the basal ganglia?

A

Striatum - putamen and caudate

Globus pallidus - internal and external segment

207
Q

What is contained within the caudal part of the basal ganglia?

A

Subthalamic nucleus
Substantia nigra

208
Q

3 different circuits in the basal ganglia

A

Motor circuit
Limbic circuit
Oculomotor circuit

209
Q

Simplified Parkinsons

A

Increased muscle tone and reduced movements (not enough dopamine)

210
Q

Simplified Huntington’s

A

Decreased muscle tone and overshooting movements (too much dopamine)

211
Q

Synthesis of dopamine

A

L-Tyrosine -> L-DOPA -> Dopamine (2 enzymatic steps)

212
Q

Where is dopamine stored?

A

Presynaptic cleft

213
Q

Dopamine receptors on postsynaptic membranes

A

D1, D2, D3, D4, D5

214
Q

Where is dopamine produced?
Where does it go from there?

A

Substantia nigra and then it goes up to the striatum

215
Q

Parkinson’s is due to pathology in…
Huntington’s is due to pathology in…

A

Substantia nigra (mainly)

Striatum

216
Q

Cortex vs Basal Ganglia role in movement

A

Cortex - Desire to move is generated along with motor execution

Basal Ganglia - Facilitation and integration of fine tuning movements

217
Q

Motor loop simplified

A

Cortex -> Basal Ganglia -> Cortex -> Movement

218
Q

Agonist and antagonist neurotransmitters of the motor loop

A

Dopamine from the substantia nigra stimulates the motor loop

GABA from the striatum inhibits the motor loop

219
Q

Somatic vs Psychological Stress

A

Somatic - Associated with damage to body tissue (pain/inflammation)

Psychological - Emotional strain/tension often involving anticipation

220
Q

Eustress vs Distress

A

Eustress - beneficial and motivating (striving for a goal within reach)

Distress - negative stress (when a challenge isn’t resolved by coping/adaption)

221
Q

Sympathomedullary pathway response to stress

A

Hypothalamus activates adrenal medulla

Adrenal medulla (controlled by ANS) releases adrenaline and noradrenaline into bloodstream

Which both reinforce sympathetic activation (increased HR and BP) which produces more energy

222
Q

Pituitary-adrenal system response to stress

A

Higher brain centres activate hypothalamus which release corticotrophin (CRF)

Triggers pituitary to release adrenacorticotrophic hormone (ATCH)

Triggers adrenal cortex to release corticosteroids

Corticosteroids trigger liver energy release and immune system suppression

223
Q

When is ACh used in parasympathetics?

A

Pre and post ganglionic neurones

224
Q

When is ACh used in sympathetics?

A

Only pre ganglionic neurones

225
Q

Retinal blood supply

A

Choroid (posterior ciliary arteries) supply outer 1/3 of retina

Central retinal artery supplies inner 2/3

226
Q

Rods (low light) and cones (bright light) of the retina

A

Outer segment contains discs containing light sensitive photopigment

Inner segment made up of cell body, axon, synaptic terminals

Phototransduction - absorb light and send electrical signal

227
Q

Photopigment in cones

A

Opsin - transmembrane proteins containing light sensitive molecule retinal
Different opsin structures mean retinal absorbs different wavelengths of light (different colours)

228
Q

Photopigment in rods

A

Rhodopsin

229
Q

Photon effect on rhodopsin

A

Triggers change in rhodopsin structure triggering a cascade in the cell

230
Q

Which fibres of optic nerve cross at optic chiasm?

A

Nasal retina fibres cross
Temporal retina fibres do not

231
Q

3 subdivision of ANS

A

Sympathetic
Enteric (GI)
Parasympathetic

232
Q

Difference in neuron number between somatic and autonomic

A

2 in autonomic
1 in somatic

233
Q

Parasympathetic bronchoconstriction

A

Vagus nerve neurons terminate in parasympathetic ganglia in airway cell

Short post-synaptic nerve fibres reach muscle releasing ACh which acts on muscarinic

234
Q

Saltatory Conduction

A

Decremental conduction between nodes but very fast along axon
Most CNS neurons are myelinated

235
Q

When AP reaches terminal button…

A

Ca2+ channels open and Ca floods into terminal button causing exocytosis of neurotransmitter containing vesicles into the synaptic space

236
Q

What breaks down ACh in the synaptic space?

A

Acetylcholineesterase (AChE)

237
Q

A collection of several muscle fibres (muscle cells) is called a…

A

Muscle fasciculus

238
Q

A muscle fibre is constituted of several …. which contains…

A

Myofibrils which contain protein filaments: actin and myosin myofilaments

239
Q

Action of ACh in actin-myosin contraction

A

ACh triggers release of Ca from inside the muscle cell causing myosin head to change shape so it can bind to actin (ATP is then required to break the bond between myosin head and actin)

240
Q

What causes greater movement resolution in a motor unit?

A

An alpha motor neuron innervating a smaller number of muscle fibres (like those innervating finger tips)

241
Q

What comprises a motor unit?

A

A single alpha motor neuron (LMN) and all the muscle fibres it innervates

242
Q

How is increased power in contraction of muscle achieved?

A

Increasing the number of alpha motor neurons firing as each 1 innervates a clump of muscle fibres

243
Q

3 muscle fibre types

A

Fast fatigable
Fast fatigue-resistant
Slow

244
Q

Effect on exercise on muscle fibres

A

Increases thickness of muscle fibres
Change in muscle fibre types

245
Q

The Motor Pool

A

All the motor neurons that innervate a particular muscle

246
Q

Arrangement of alpha motor neurons in the spinal cord

A

Cell bodies of neurons innervating more proximal muscles lie more centrally
Cell bodies of neurons innervating more distal muscles lie more laterally

247
Q

What senses tension in muscles?

A

Golgi tendon organs in the tendons (sends ascending sensory info to brain)

248
Q

What detects stretch in muscles?

A

Muscle spindles

249
Q

Extrafusal vs Intrafusal muscle fibres

A

Extrafusal - Provide force (being a muscle)
Intrafusal - Bound to muscle spindle (sensory device to detect stretch/length of muscle)

250
Q

System to detect stretch regardless of the current muscle length

A

If intrafusal fibres are controlled by same motor neurons as extrafusal, when muscle is slack, system won’t be sensitive to slight changes

So, intrafusal are innervated separately by gamma motor neurons which keep intrafusal at a set length that optimise muscle stretch detection

251
Q

2 main motor tracts

A

Dorsolateral tracts (corticospinal and corticorubrospinal)

Ventromedial tracts (corticospinal and cortico-brainstem-spinal)

252
Q

Dorsolateral tracts routes and innervation

A

Has a direct corticospinal route and an indirect route via red nucleus

Innervates contralateral side of 1 segment of spinal cord

Projects to distal muscles (fingers)

253
Q

Ventromedial tracts routes and innervation

A

Has a direct corticospinal route and an indirect route via tectum, vestibular nuclei, reticular formation and CN nuclei

Diffuse innervation projecting to both sides and multiple segments of spinal cord

Projects to proximal muscles (trunk)

254
Q

Cerebellum input to motor cortex

A

Adjusts the amount of excitatory input to motor cortex

Adjusts motor command by accounting for your actual body position and movement

255
Q

Basal ganglia input to motor cortex

A

Adjusts the amount of inhibitory input to motor cortex

Receives excitatory input from motor cortex (motor plans) then stimulates inhibition via the thalamus

256
Q

Inputs and Outputs of Cerebellum

A

Inputs: Spinal Cord, Cerebral Cortex (via Pons), Vestibular System

Outputs: Motor Cortex (via Thalamus)

257
Q

The HPA axis

A

Hypothalamus secretes Corticotropin Releasing Hormone (CRH)

CRH stimulates Anterior Pituitary to releas Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)

ACTH travels in blood to stimulate the Adrenal Cortex to release cortisol (stress hormone for fight or flight)

Cortisol also then provides -ve feedback to Hypothalamus and Anterior Pituitary (binds to receptors)

258
Q

Oxytocin and Vasopressin are synthesised in the… and secreted from the…

A

Hypothalamus
Posterior Pituitary Gland

259
Q

Which nuclei contain neurones that synthesise Oxytocin and ADH?

A

Paraventricular nucleus (primarily oxytocin)
Supraoptic nucleus (primarily ADH)

260
Q

Development of anterior and posterior pituitary

A

Anterior - originates from tissue in roof of mouth - ectoderm

Posterior - formed from floor of IIIrd ventricle (neuro tissue)

261
Q

What regulates ADH release?

A

Osmoreceptors in hypothalamus

Baroreceptors

262
Q

Process of light converging onto optic nerve

A

Photoreceptors stimulated and signal to retina moves through a ganglion cell layer where millions of fibres then converge to become the optic nerve

263
Q

Blood supply and drainage of inner retina

A

Inner 2/3 retina supplied by central retinal artery which branches into superior/inferior/temporal/nasal branches

Drained by branch retinal veins -> central retinal vein -> opthalmic vein -> cavernous sinus –> IJV

264
Q

Phototransduction

A

11-cis-retinal -> all-trans-retinal when hit by photons of light
It is then regenerated

265
Q

Anterior segment of eye contains…

A

Aqueous humour - nutrition to lens and cornea, maintaining intraocular pressure

266
Q

Posterior segment of eye contains…

A

Vitreous humour - Viscoelastic gel (thicker than aq humour)

267
Q

Adnexae of the eye

A

Lids
Conjunctiva (palpebral and bulbar)
Tear film (3 layers - lipid, aq and mucin)

268
Q

Arterial supply of eye

A

Internal carotid artery -> opthalmic artery (branches to supply different regions of the eye)

External carotid artery -> facial artery -> angular artery

269
Q

Blood supply and drainage of outer 1/3 of eye

A

Supplied by choroid (posterior ciliary artery -> choroidal artery -> choriocapillaris)

Vortex veins drain the choroid
Superior drain into superior opthalmic vein (SOV), inferior drain into inferior opthalmic vein (IOV)

270
Q

Superior opthalmic veins drain directly into…

A

Cavernous sinus

271
Q

Inferior opthalmic veins drain into…

A

Pterygoid venous plexus

272
Q

Names of the 3 cerebellum divisions

A

Archicerebellum
Paleocerebellum
Neo cerebellum

273
Q

What is Archicerebellum role?

A

The flocoulonodular lobe:
Balance

274
Q

What is Paleocerebellum role?

A

Muscle tone and posture

275
Q

What is Neo cerebellum role?

A

More fancy movements, coordination, muscle tone

276
Q

What connects corpus callosum and fornix?

A

Septum pellucidum

277
Q

What do the interventricular foramen connect?

A

2 holes connecting the L and R lateral ventricles to the anterior portion of the IIIrd ventricle

278
Q

3 inputs to hypothalamus

A

Amygdala
Hippocampus
Circulating Blood

279
Q

5 hypothalamus outputs

A

Limbic System
Pituitary
ANS
Reticular Formation
Thalamus

Medicine (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions