Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Phase 3a > Neuro > Flashcards

Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What microorganism most commonly causes Guillain-Barre?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is leading cause of death Guillain-Barre?

A

VTE (so need prophylaxis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Charcot’s triad?(neuro)

A

Nystagmus, intention tremor and dysarthria (linked to MS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Mc Donald criteria?

A

Two or more lesion demspeminated in time & space (MS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is first line in MND to slow progression?

A

Rituzole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the first line treatment for Trigeminal Neuralgia?

A

Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the acute management of cluster headaches?

A

Sumatriptan and high flow 100% O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the prophylaxis for cluster headaches?

A

Verapamil (Ca channel blocker)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How will third nerve palsy present?

A

Ptosis, “down & out” pupil, dilated pupil with absent light reflex but intact consensual constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the secondary prevention after someone has had a stroke?

A

2-week high dose aspirin (300mg) then clopidogrel (75mg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the second line of secondary prevention after someone has had a stroke?

A

Aspirin + modified release dipyramidole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the possible causes of cerebellar disease?

A

PASTRIES - posterior fossa tumour, alcohol, MS, trauma, rarer causes, inherited, epilepsy treatment and stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What tremor is seen in Parkinson’s?

A

Unilateral tremor that improves with voluntary movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do you manage IIH?

A

Prescribe acetazolamide and advise weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the prophylactic treatment for migraines?

A

Propanolol (not in asthmatics) or Topiramate (not in women of childbearing age)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What causes an intention tremor?

A

Cerebellar dysfunction - MS or alcohol or stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the triad for normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Gait apraxia, incontinence and dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the triad of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Miosis, Ptosis and Anhydrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the causes of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Damage to sympathetic innervation eye - stroke or tumour eg pancoast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the first line treatment for focal seizures?

A

Lamotrigine or levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the first line treatment for generalised seizures?

A

Lamotrigine (or sodium valproate but not in women)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the first line treatment for absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide (or sodium valproate but not in women)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What blood test differentiates seizure from pseudo-seizures?

A

Prolactin is raised in true seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the first-line treatment for spasticity in MS?

A

Baclofen and gabapentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the classic presentation of pituitary apoplexy?

A

Sudden onset headache, visual field defects and evidence of pituitary insufficiency (hypotension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does a PCA stroke present?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia, Oculomotor palsy & contralateral weakness of upper & lower limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How do subdural and epidural haemorrhages appear on CT?

A

Epidural - egg or concave
Subdural - sickle or crescent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What causes a subdural haemorrhage?

A

Damage to bridging veins between cortex & venous sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What nerve root innervates the ankle reflex?

A

S1-S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What nerve root innervates the knee reflex?

A

L3-L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What nerve root innervates the biceps reflex?

A

C5-C6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What nerve root innervates the triceps reflex?

A

C7-C8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the key features of Wernicke’s encephalopathy?

A

Nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, confusion, peripheral sensory neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the key features of Korsakoff syndrome?

A

Confabulation antro/retrograde amnesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What causes Ramsay-Hunt syndrome?

A

Herpes zoster virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the treatment for Ramsay-Hunt syndrome?

A

Aciclovir & prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the features of Ramsay-Hunt syndrome?

A

Facial nerve palsy, auricular pain, vesicular rash around ear, tinnitus and vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What causes Charcot Marie Tooth syndrome?

A

(Most common) Inherited peripheral neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the features of Charcot Marie Tooth syndrome?

A

Foot drop, hammer toes, stork leg deformity, high arch feet, distal muscle weakness & atrophy, repeated ankle sprains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the features of Shy-Drager (type of multiple system atrophy)?

A

Parkinsonism, autonomic disturbance (eg hypotension, erectile dysfunction) and cerebellar signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the features of Bengin paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

Vertigo by head movement, nausea, lasts 10-20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How do you test for Bengin paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

Hallpike maneuver - patient experiences vertigo and/or rotatory nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How do you treat Bengin paroxysmal positional vertigo?

A

Epley manoeuvre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do you treat normal pressure hydrocephalus?

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the features of Bell’s palsy?

A

Facial nerve palsy with forehead involvement, post auricular pain, hyperacusis, dry eyes, altered taste

46
Q

How do you treat the symptoms of Myasthenia Gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine (acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)

47
Q

What is used to investigate narcolepsy?

A

Multiple sleep latency EEG

48
Q

How does CN VI palsy present?

A

Defective eye abduction & horizontal diplopia

49
Q

How does a posterior inferior cerebellar stroke present?

A

Lateral medullary syndrome:
Ipsilateral dysphagia, ataxia, nystagmus, cranial nerve palsies
contralateral limb sensory loss

50
Q

When is a Carotid endarterectomy considered?

A

Patient with TIA with > 70% occlusion

51
Q

What are the causes of Lambert-Eaton syndrome?

A

Autonomic dysorder or paraneoplastic syndrome (small cell lung cancer)

52
Q

What are the features of Lambert-Eaton syndrome?

A

Proximal muscle weakness (lower limb first), improves with repeated movement (post excersise faciliation), hyporeflexia, ptosis, opthalmoplegia, autonomic dysfunction

53
Q

What are the features of a common peroneal nerve injury and how is it usually injured?

A

Fibula neck injury. Foot drop, weak dorsiflexion and eversion.

54
Q

What are the features of Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A

Typically LMN signs in arms and UMN signs in legs

55
Q

What are the features of Primary lateral sclerosis?

A

UMN signs only

56
Q

What are the features of Progressive muscular atrophy?

A

LMN signs only & affects distal muscles before proximal

57
Q

What are the features of Progressive bulbar palsy?

A

Palsy of the tongue, muscles of chewing/swallowing and facial muscles due to loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei

58
Q

What is the best way to provide nutrition in MND?

A

Percutaneous gastrostomy tube (PEG)

59
Q

What are the features of a Axillary nerve injury and how is it usually injured?

A

Surgical neck fracture. Unable to abduct the arm & loss sensation in armband region.

60
Q

What are the features of a Radial nerve injury and how is it usually injured?

A

Saturday night or crutch palsy or midshaft humeral fracture. Wrist drop & unable to extend fingers

61
Q

What are the features of a Ulnar nerve injury and how is it usually injured?

A

Outstretch fall or medial epicondyle fracture. Claw hand, unable to adduct fingers, sensory loss medial 1½ fingers & hypothenar wasting.

62
Q

What are the features of a Median nerve injury and how is it usually injured?

A

Carpal tunnel or fracture at elbow. Ape hand (thenar wasting/paralysis) and sensory loss to palmar aspect of lateral 2 ½ fingers.

63
Q

How do you treat Horner’s syndrome?

A

Prednisolone within 72 hours of onset & eye care

64
Q

What are the features of Wernicke’s dysphasia?

A

Is receptive aphasia: Speech fluent, comprehension abnormal, repetition impaired, sentences that make no sense, word substitution and neologisms (word salad)

65
Q

What are the features of Broca’s dysphasia?

A

Is expressive aphasia: Speech non-fluent, halting, laboured, repetition is impaired, comprehension is normal

66
Q

What area of the brain is affected in Wernicke’s dysphasia?

A

Superior temporal gyrus supplied by inferior brnach MCA

67
Q

What area of the brain is affected in Wernicke’s dysphasia?

A

Inferior frontal gyrus supplied by superior branch MCA

68
Q

When should you intubate a patient?

A

GCS <8

69
Q

How do you treat Wernicke-Korskoff syndrome?

A

IV thiamine then glucose (don’t give glucose first)

70
Q

Why can’t you give glucose first in Wernicke-Korskoff syndrome?

A

Glucose → pyruvate but cannot be converted into energy because no B1 so is converted to lactic acid causing metabolic acidosis

71
Q

What are the features of Multiple system atrophy?

A

Autonomic failure involving urinary incontinence, erectile dysfunction in males or orthostatic hypotension
AND Parkinsonism that is poorly responsive to levodopa
OR a cerebellar syndrome

72
Q

What are the features of progressive supranuclear palsy?

A

Impairment of vertical gaze, falls/postural instability, parkinsonism, slurring speech, cognitive impairment and poor response to levadopa

73
Q

What are the features of Charcot-Marie-Tooth syndrome?

A

A hereditary condition. Patients can present with lower motor neurone signs in all limbs and reduced sensation (more pronounced distally). UMN signs are not present in these patients.

74
Q

How does Syringomyelia classically present?

A

Cape-like loss of pain and temperature sensation due to compression of the spinothalamic tract

75
Q

What are the features of Lambert-Eaton syndrome?

A

Autonomic symptoms, limb-girdle weakness (manifesting as a waddling gait), and hyporeflexia

76
Q

Which drugs are associated with Steven-Johnson syndrome?

A

Carbamazepine, lamotrigine, allopurinol, sulfonamide, phenobarbital, phenytoin

77
Q

What are the signs of Cushing’s reflex?

A

Hypertension, bradycardia, wide pulse pressure and irregular resp rate

78
Q

What are the signs of Cushing’s reflex?

A

Hypertension, bradycardia, wide pulse pressure and irregular resp rate

79
Q

What are the features of an acoustic neuroma?

A

Unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, unilateral tinnitus, dizziness, fullness in the ear, facial palsy or abscent corneal reflex

80
Q

How long until someone can drive after a first unprovoked or isolated seizure if brain imaging and EEG are normal?

A

6 months

81
Q

What conditions are associated with MND?

A

Frontotemporal dementia

82
Q

What are the features of Creutzfeldt-Jakob’s disease?

A

Rapid onset dementia and myoclonus

83
Q

What are the features of a posterior communicating artery aneurysm?

A

Painful CN III palsy (pain on eye movements, dilated down and out pupil and ptosis)

84
Q

What is used to treat cerebral oedema in patients with brain tumours?

A

Dexamethasone

85
Q

How do you treat encephalitis?

A

IV Acyclovir

86
Q

How do you treat suspected meningitis?

A

IV ceftriaxone

87
Q

Which of the following muscles are typically spared in MND?

A

Ocular muscles

88
Q

What area of the brain is affected in Wernicke’s dysphasia?

A

Superior temporal gyrus supplied by MCA

89
Q

What is Amaurosis fugax?

A

A form of stroke that affects the retinal/ophthalmic artery

90
Q

Which Parkinson’s medication is associated with disinhibition?

A

Dopamine receptor agonists

91
Q

What is the first-line drug for myasthenia gravis?

A

Pyridostigmine

92
Q

What imaging should be used in suspected TIA’s?

A

MRI brain with diffusion-weighted imaging

93
Q

What imaging is used for suspected venous sinus thrombosis?

A

MR Venogram

94
Q

Which imaging is best for acoustic neuromas?

A

MRI of the cerebellopontine angle

95
Q

How does a total anterior stroke differ from a partial anterior stroke circulation?

A
  1. unilateral hemiparesis or hemisensory loss of face, arm & leg
  2. homonymous hemianopia
  3. higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphasia
    All 3 = total anterior circulation
    2 = partial anterior circulation
96
Q

How does a Lacunar infarct present?

A

Presents with 1 of the following:
1. unilateral weakness (or sensory deficit) of face and arm, arm and leg or all three.
2. pure sensory stroke.
3. ataxic hemiparesis

97
Q

What are the common causes of a myasthenic crisis?

A

Beta blockers, lithium, antibiotics, phenytoin, penicillamine

98
Q

How might a haemorrhagic stroke appear on CT?

A

Hyperdense region

99
Q

What is the treatment for myoclonic seizures?

A

Levetiracetam or sodium valproate (in men)

100
Q

How may a pontine stroke present?

A

Reduced Glasgow coma score, quadriplegia, miosis, and absent horizontal eye movements.

101
Q

Which cranial nerves are most commonly affected by a vestibular schwannoma?

A

cranial nerves V, VII, VIII

102
Q

What are the requirements to diagnose a lacunar infarct by the Bamford classification?

A

One of the following:
Pure sensory stroke
Pure motor stroke
Sensori-motor stroke
Ataxic hemiparesis

103
Q

What are the requirements to diagnose a posterior circulation infarct by the Bamford classification?

A

One of the following:
Cranial nerve palsy & a contralateral motor/sensory deficit
Bilateral motor/sensory deficit
Conjugate eye movement disorder
Cerebellar dysfunction (e.g. vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia)
Isolated homonymous hemianopia

104
Q

What is the C5 myotome?

A

Elbow flexors and the biceps reflex

105
Q

What is the C6 myotome?

A

wrist extension and the brachioradialis reflex

106
Q

What is the C7 myotome?

A

elbow extension and the triceps reflex

107
Q

What is the C8 myotome?

A

finger flexion and the finger jerk reflex

108
Q

What is the T1 myotome?

A

finger abduction

109
Q

How do you treat a brain abscess?

A

IV ceftriaxone + metronidazole

110
Q

What drugs should be prescribed for Parkinson’s if it affects their quality of life?

A

Levadopa

111
Q

What drugs should be prescribed for Parkinson’s if it is not affecting their quality of life or is in the early stages?

A

Dopamine agonists - Bromocriptine
Levodopa
Monoamine oxidase B (MAO‑B) inhibitors - rasagiline, selegiline

Phase 3a (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions