Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

IP11 - Equine II > Neuro 1 > Flashcards

Neuro 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the words to use when describing level of consciousness?

A

Alert

Depressed

Stuporous/obtunded

Semicomatose

Comatose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define amaurosis

A

partial or total loss of sight without pathology of the eye - caused by disase of hte optic nerve or brain (central blindness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Central blindness, but intact PLR indicates ____ disease.

A

Cerebral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Seizures are a result of abnormal neuronal activity from the ______ cortex.

A

Cerebral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F: Generalized seizures result in a loss of consciousness

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F: all focal seizures result in loss of consciousness.

A

False - consciousness may or may not be impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Head turning, grimace, urination/defecation are all signs of _______ seizure.

A

Generalized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_____ phase may precede seizures, and _____ phase may procede after seizures.

A

Prodromal; post-ictal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Neurologic exam: gate analysis - describe Grade 0 - Grade 5

A
  • Grade 0 = no deficits noted
  • Grade 1 = mild deficits only under special circumstances
  • Grade 2 = mild, difficult to recognize deficits under normal circumstances, and easily observable under special cericumstances
  • Grade 3 = readily recognizable, consistent, moderate deficits at straight walk
  • Grade 4 = severe deficits at the walk/almost falling down
  • Grade 5 = recumbent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

T/F: Limbs crossed in a horse is normal.

A

False - abnormal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Lesions in the forbrain result in what CS?

A

Abnormal mentation, behavior changes, central blindness, aimless wandering, seizures, mild weakness, and proprioceptive deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lesions of the brainstem result in what CS?

A

Altered consciousness, CN deficits, postural reaction deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lesions of hte cerebellum cause what CS?

A

Hypermetra, ataxia, intention tremors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Lesions of hte spinal cord from C1-C5 CS?

A

UMN signs to forelimbs and pelvic limbs (horners syndrome if damage to vagosympathetic trunk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lesions of the spinal cord from C6-T2 - CS?

A

LMN to forelimbs, UMN to pelvic limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Lesions of the spinal cord from T3-L3 CS?

A

Normal forelimbs, UMN to pelvic limbs, UMN bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lesions of the spinal cord from L4-S2 CS?

A

Normal forelimbs, LMN pelvic limbs, LMN bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lesions in the S2-caudal region of spinal cord CS?

A

LMN bladder, lack of anal tone and tail tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

An “AO” CSF tap is a tap of the ________ cistern.

A

cerebello-medullary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

T/F: “AO” tap requires general anesthesia.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

“AO” tap is more reflected of ____ disease.

A

Intracranial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

“AO” tap is contraindicated in ______

A

Head trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

T/F: AO tap is easy to collect post mortem.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

“LS” CSF tap is a tap from the ______ cistern.

A

Lumbo-sacral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

T/F: LS tap needs to be done under general anesthesia.

A

False - is obtained standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

LS tap is more reflective of _____ disease.

A

Spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

LS tap is taken at the level of the _______

A

cauda equina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CSF is an ultrafiltrate of ______, that bathes the CNS, ventricles and subarachnoid spcaes.

A

plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In a routine CSF analysis - a normal CSF should be ____ in color, the protein concnetration should be between ___ and ____ mg/dL, and the nucleated cell count should be < ___ cells/microliter, and the red cell count should be _____.

The nucleated cell count should also be compromised of mostly _______.

A

Clear; 50-100; <6; zero

small mononuclear cells (NOT neutrophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A yellowish discoloration in a CSF tap is defined as _____ and represents what?

A

Xanthochromia - indicates we have a break down of RBCs within the CSF- can be due to trauma or EHV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Define pleocytosis on routine CSF analysis

A

Elevated nucleated cell count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F: Cerebellar abiotrophy is a progressive cerebellar degeneration that is present at birth.

A

False - it is NOT present at birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Signs of cerebellar abiotrophy are evident between ___ to ____ months of age.

A

1-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Clinical signs of cerebellar abiotrophy:

A

Diffuse, symmetrical cerebellar signs:

Base-wide stance with hypermetric ataxia, head bob/intention tremor, absent menace response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T/F: In occipito-atlantoaxial malformations, ataxia is noted at birth, and is progressive.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Juvenile epilepsy is a ____ epilipsy of ____ foals.

A

benign; Arabian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Horses will outgrow juvenile epilepsy by ____ months of age.

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How do you treat juvenile epilepsy?

A

Phenobarbital for several months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Lavender foal syndrome is known as the “____ syndrome of egyption Arabian foals”

A

Tetany

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

__% of egyptian arabians are carriers of lavender foal syndrome.

A

10%

41
Q

Clinical signs of lavendar foal syndrome

A

Coat color dilution - striking iridescent silver/ale lavender coat color - LETHAL

Recumbent from birth (tetanic episodes of muscle contractions, opisthotonus, paddling limb movements, spontaneous and tactile provoked seizures)

42
Q

Lavendar foal syndrome is an autosomal ____ genetic disorder.

A

recessive

43
Q

Perinatal asphyxia syndrome is also known as:

A

dummy foal syndrome

hypoxic ischemic enphalopathy

44
Q

How does a foal get perinatal asphyxia syndrome (aka dummy foal syndrome)?

A

Compromise of oxygen supply in utero or during delivery coupled with reperfusion injury.

45
Q

Symptoms of perinatal asphyxia (aka dummy foal syndrome)

A

Range from inability to sucke to recumbency and seizures

46
Q

T/F: In perinatal asphyxia syndrome, most foals improve over time with supprotive care.

A

True (however, seizures will worsen prognosis)

47
Q

Flipping injuryes consist of ___% of traumatic brain injuries in horses.

A

44

48
Q

Basisphenoid fractures occur secondarily to flipping over backwards, as a result of avulsion fractures of the rectus capitus muscle, casuing fractures at the insertion of ____ and _____ bones.

A

Basisphenoid and basioccipital

49
Q

In flipping injuries, basilar bone fractures occur due to traction forces from the _____ muscle.

A

rectus capitus ventralis

50
Q

Flipping injuries can lead to unresponsive mydriasis how?

A

Attenuation of the optic vasculature –> peri-papillary degeneration after 2-4 weeks

Prognosis for return of vision is unfavorable

51
Q

Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy is an idiopathic chronic inflammation of hte ____ joint.

A

Temporohyoid (TH)

52
Q

Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy can be secondary to _______ idiopathically, via hematogenous spread, or ascending menigitis.

A

Otitis media/interna

53
Q

Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy can lead to progressive ankylosis and fractures of the ____ and ____ bones, leading to CN ___ and ____ deficits.

A

petrous temporal and stylohyoid bones

CN VII and CN VIII deficits

54
Q

What procedure is recommended in horses with temporohyoid osteoarthropathy to prevent additional fractures and recurrence of clinical signs?

A

Ceratohyoidectomy

55
Q

Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy clinical signs can be asymptomatic, mild, to severe.

What CS are associated with CN VII and VIII deficits?

A

Proximal facial nerve deficits - mild head tilt, CN 7 also controls lacrimal gland secretion - so we might see corneal ulcers

56
Q

What is the best diagnostic test for temprohyoid osteoarthropathy?

A

CT scan

57
Q

Tx of temporohyoid osteoarthropathy:

A

Antibiotics and anti-inflammatories

Surgery - ceratohyoidectomy

58
Q

Llist three arboviral ecephalitises from the family Togaviridae:

A

Easterin equine encephalitis

Western equine ecephalitis

Venezuelan Equine encephalomyelitis

59
Q

List an arboviral encephalitis from the family flavivridae?

A

West nile viral encephalomyelitis (WN)

60
Q

Strangles can cause brain abscesses, from this pathogen.

A

Streptococcus equi ss equi

61
Q

Bacterial meningitis/meningioencephalitis can be caused in neonatal ____ and ____ adults.

A

septicemia; immunocompromised

62
Q

Fungal meningitis can be the result of an ascending infection from the ____ or can occur in _____ adults.

A

Sinuses; immunocompromised

63
Q

Lyme diases is a neuroborreliosis caused by an infection with the spirochete ______.

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

64
Q

Equine protozoal myeloecephalitis (EPM) is most commonly caused by which two organisms:

A
  • Sarcocystis neurona*
  • Neospora hughesi*
65
Q

What is the definitive host for Sarcocystis neurona? How does a horse acquire the infection?

A

Opposum - horse acquire EPM following ingestion of food contaminated with opossum feces

66
Q

Asymmetrical and focal skeleton muscle atrophy (neurogenic atrophy) is a strong sign of ____ involvement in horses affected with EPM.

A

LMN

67
Q

Moldy corn intoxication leads to _____.

A

Leukoencephalomalacia

68
Q

Leukoencephalomalacia from moldy corn disease is the result of _____ toxin, which is a metabolit of the _____ species.

A

Fumonesin B1 toxin; metabolite of Fusarium sp

69
Q

The fumonensin B1 toxin in modly corn disease causes disruption in _____, which is an important lipid for neuronal lipid membranes.

A

Sphingomyelin

70
Q

“blind staggers” is a sign for _____ disease.

A

Moldy corn disease

71
Q

CS of moldy corn disease

A

Lack of coordination, blindness, aimless walking, head pressing

Hyperexcitability, extreme agitation, delerium

72
Q

Yellowstar Thistle and Russian knapweed found in the western US causes ______ encephalomalacia.

A

Nigropallidal

73
Q

Nigropallidal encephalomalacia from yellowstar thistle and russian knapweed cause necrosis of the _____ and ____.

A

Globus pallidus and substantia nigra

74
Q

Nigropallidal encephalomalcia is often reffered to as the “_____ disease”

A

Chewing

75
Q

C/S of nigropallidal encephalomalacia

A

Lack of coordinated prehention, mastication, and deglutination

Able to swallow if food or water is placed in posterior pharynx

76
Q

Locoweed intoxcation leeds to progressive ______ ataxia, causing staggering gait and trembling.

A

cerebellar

77
Q

What is the toxin found in locoweed? And what does it do?

A

Swainsonine alkaloid -

Produced by endophyte fungus, inhibits lysosomal alpha mannosidase enzymes, leading to the formation of lysosome vacuoles wihtin the CNS

78
Q

Fluphenazine is a toxin that is a ______ receptor agonist.

A

domaine (D2)

79
Q

Fluphenazine can be uused as a _____ neuroleptic, and is formulated as a long acting IM sedation in horses.

A

Phenothiazine

80
Q

Phenothiazine neuroleptic - fluphenazine binds to D2 receptors with a very slow _____.

A

Dissociation

81
Q

Using a phenothiazine neuroleptic cuases increased risk of adverse _____ signs.

A

Extrapyramidal

82
Q

Symptoms of toxicity with fluphenazine:

A

Agiation, profuse sweating, hypermetria

Aimless circling, intesne pawing, striking with forelimbs

Rhythmic swinging of head and neck

Alternating with periods of severe stupor

83
Q

T/F: Horses intoxicated with fluphenazine are dangeraouse and are often euthanized as a result.

A

True

84
Q

What are treatments for fluphenazine?

A

Treatment is based on management - can give diphenhydramine to improve symptoms, anti-cholinergic drugs, phenobarbital.

But mainly you have to wait it out - can take up to several weeks to resolve.

85
Q

What is the most common intracranial “tumor” in the equine?

A

Cholesterinic granuloma

86
Q

T/F: Cholesterinic granuola is an infalmmatory lesion, that is a common incidental finding in older horses.

A

True

87
Q

Although less common, Cholesterinic granulomas can enlarge and obstruct the CSF, leading to _____

A

acquired hydrocephalus

88
Q

PPID can result in macro and microadenomas. Which one cuases neurologic deficits?

A

Macroadenomas

89
Q

Narcolepsy is defined as excessive daytime sleepiness and pathologic episodes of ___ sleep.

A

REM

90
Q

Narcolepsy is often triggered by ______.

A

excitement

91
Q

During a narcoleptic event, there is an absence of _____ relfexes, and may last a few hours, but the horse can be aroused.

A

spinal

92
Q

During narcoleptic event, cataplexy is common. What is catapelxy?

A

Loss of muscle tone

93
Q

Narcolepsy can be herediatory or sporadic. In what horses is in familiar?

A

Miniature horse and shetland pony foals

94
Q

It is thought that narcolepsy is linked to low _____ which is produced by the hypothalamus.

A

hypocretin-1

95
Q

T/F: Sleep deprivation is a true narcolepsy.

A

False

96
Q

During sleep deprivation, the horse will fall asleep without falling by ….

A

bucklint at the knees

97
Q

What are reasons for sleep deprivation in the horse:

A

Fear, pain, too compromised (COPD), geriatric horses in the hospital

98
Q
A

IP11 - Equine II (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions