Neural pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

how does epinephrine treat glaucoma

A

decreases aqueous humor production via vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

name an alpha 2 agonist that treats glaucoma

A

brimonidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the side effects of using epinephrine to treat glaucoma

A

mydriasis (so do not use in close-angle glaucoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the side effects of brimonidine

A

ocular allergic reactions and blurry vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what beta blockers are used to treat glaucoma

A

timolol, betaxolol, and carteolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how does acetazolamide treat glaucoma

A

decreases aqueous humor by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

which direct cholinomimetics treat glaucoma and what are their side effects

A

pilocarpine and carbachol;

side effects= miosis and cyclospasm (from contraction of the ciliary muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how do direct cholinomimetics treat glaucoma

A

increase aqueous humor outflow by contracting ciliary muscle and opening of trabecular meshwork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

name two indirect cholinomimetics that treat glaucoma

A

physostigmine and echotiophate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how do indirect cholinomimetics treat glaucoma

A

open trabecular meshwork to absorb aqueous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what prostaglandin is used to treat glaucoma and how does it work

A

latanoprost (PGF-2alpha); works by increasing outflow of aqueous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the side effect of latanoprost

A

darkening of the iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

list as many opioid analgesics as you can

A

morphine, fetanyl, codeine, loperamide, methadone, meperidine, dextromethorphan, diphenoxylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

by what mechanism do opioid analgesics work

A

they bind and stimulate opioid receptors (mu, delta and kappa) in order to open K+ channels and close Ca2+ channels —> decreased synaptic transmission —> inhibits release of ACh, serotonin, NE, glutamate and substance P (a neuromodulator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are opioid analgesics used for

A

pain, cough suppression (dextromethorphan), diarrhea (loperamide and diphenoxylate), acute pulmonary edema, maintenance programs for heroin addicts (methadone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the side effects of opioid analgesics

A

addiction, respiratory depression, constipation, miosis, additive CNS depression with other drugs;

Note: tolerance does not develop to miosis and constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the antidote for opioid analgesics

A

naloxone or naltrexone (opioid receptor antagonists)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

name the three opioid receptors and what they respond to

A
mu-opioid = morphine
delta= enkephalin (regulates nociception by inhibiting pain)
kappa= dynorphin (another pain modulator)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what two receptors does butorphanol act on and with what relative efficacy

A

butorphanol is a kappa full agonist and mu partial agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is butorphanol used for and what makes it better than the alternative choices

A
severe pain (headaches, labor)
less respiratory depression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the toxicities of butorphanol

A

withdrawl if taken with a full opioid agonist; not easily reversed with naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what does tramadol treat and how does it work

A

tramadol treats chronic pain;

works as a weak opioid agonist and also as a reuptake inhibitor for 5-HT and NE.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the toxicities of tramadol

A

decreases seizure threshold and can cause serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

list all the epilepsy drugs

A

“ECG TTVV LLPP Benzos”:
ethosuximide, carbamazepine, gabapentin, topiramate, tiagabine, valproic acid, vigabatrin, lamotrigine, levetiracetam, phenytoin, phenobarbitol, benzodiazepines (diazepam and lorazepam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what kind of seizure is ethosuximide used for and how does it work

A

absence; ethosuximide blocks thalamic T-type Calcium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the side effects of ethosuximide

A

EFGHIJ: Ethosuximide causes Fatigue, Gastrointestinal upset, Headache, Itching (urticaria), and steven-Johnson syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what kind of seizure are benzodiazepines used for and how do they work

A

status epilepticus; they work by increasing GABA-A action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the side effects of benzodiazepines

A

sedation, dependence, tolerance, respiratory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is first line treatment for ecclampsia seizure? second line treatment?

A

1st line= MgSO4

2nd line= benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what kinds of seizure does phenytoin treat

A

simple and complex
1st line for tonic-clonic
prophylaxis for status epilepticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how does phenytoin work

A

sodium channel inactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what ind of kinetics does phenytoin exhibit

A

zero-order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the side effects of phenytoin

A

face: nystagmus, ataxia, diplopia, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia
systemic: megaloblastic anemia, teratogenesis (fetal hydantoin syndrome), SLE-like syndrome, induction of CYP-450, LAD
skin/bone: osteopenia, Steven-Johnson syndrome

34
Q

how is phenytoin given parenterally

A

fosphenytoin

35
Q

for what 3 kinds of seizures is carbamazepine 1st line therapy

A

simple partial, complex partial, and tonic-clonic

36
Q

how does carbamazepine work

A

sodium channel inactivation

37
Q

what are the side effects of carbamazepine

A

diplopia, ataxia, blood dyscrasias (such as agranulocytosis and aplastic anemia), hepatotoxicity, teratogenesis, induction of CYP-450, SIADH, Stevens-Johnson syndrome

38
Q

what is valproic acid used for

A

1st line for simple partial, complex partial and absence

1st line acute treatment for: tonic-clonic seizures

39
Q

what 3 drugs are used as 1st line acute therapy for tonic-clonic seizures

A

phenytoin, carbamazepine and valproic acid

40
Q

what drug is 1st line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

41
Q

how does valproic acid work

A

sodium channel inactivation;

inhibiting GABA transaminase in order to increase GABA concentration

42
Q

what are the toxicities of valproic acid

A

GI upset, hepatotoxicity, spina bifida in fetus (contraindicated in pregnancy), tremor, weight gain

43
Q

what are the other uses of valproic acid

A

myoclonic seizures and bipolar disorder

44
Q

what kinds of seizures does gabapentin treat

A

simple, complex and tonic-clonic

45
Q

how does gabapentin work

A

inhibits high-voltage Ca2+ channels; GABA analog

46
Q

what are the non-epileptic conditions that gabapentin is used for

A

peripheral neuropathy, postherpetic neuralgia, migraine prophylaxis, bipolar disorder

47
Q

what kind of seizure does phenobarbitol treat

A

simple, complex and tonic-clonic

48
Q

how do barbituates work

A

facilitate GABA-A action by increasing duration that Cl- channel is open, thereby decreasing neuron firing

49
Q

how do lamotrigine and topiramate work

A

block Na+ channels

50
Q

what drugs treat simple, complex and tonic-clonic seizures

A
phenytoin (1st line tonic-clonic)
carbamazepine (1st line for all three)
gabapentin
phenobarbital
topiramate
levetiracetam
lamotrigine (plus absence)
51
Q

what drugs treat only simple and complex seizures and how do they work

A

tiagabine and vigabatrin;

they work by increasing GABA levels

52
Q

what is Steven Johnson syndrome

A

prodrome of malaise and fever followed by erythematous, purpuric macules (oral, ocular and genital) that become necrotic and slough off

53
Q

for what condition are barbituates contraindicated

A

porphyria

54
Q

what are barbituates used for

A

sedative for anxiety, seizures, insomnia, induction of anesthesia (thiopental)

55
Q

what are the side effects of barbituates

A

cardiac and respiratory depression, CNS depression, dependence, drug interactions (induces CYP-450)

56
Q

name as many benzodiazepines as possible

A

lorazepam, diazepam, triazolam, temazepam, oxazepam, midazolam, chlordiazepoxide, alprazolam

57
Q

how do benzodiazepines work

A

they increase the frequency of Cl- channel opening

58
Q

what are benzodiazepines used for

A

anxiety, spasticity, status epilepticus, alcohol detox, night terrors, sleepwalking, general anesthesia, insomnia

59
Q

which is safer for your airway: barbituates or benzodiazepines

A

benzodiazepines

60
Q

what are the side effects of benzodiazepine

A

dependence, additive CNS depression with alcohol

61
Q

what drug is used to treat benzo overdose

A

flumazenil (competitive antagonist at GABA benzodiazepine receptor)

62
Q

name three nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics

A

zolpidem (ambien), zaleplon, eszopiclone

63
Q

how do nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics work and how are they reversed

A

act on the BZ1 subtype GABA receptor;

reversed by flumazenil

64
Q

what is minimal alveolar concentration

A

concentration at which 50% of patients will move in response to noxious stimuli

65
Q

name as many inhales anesthetics as you can

A

halothane, isoflurane, enflurane, sevoflurane, methoxyflurane, nitrous oxide

66
Q

what are the effects of inhaled anesthetics

A

myocardial and respiratory depression, N/V, decreased cerebral metabolic demand

67
Q

list all of the intravenous anesthetics

A

barbituates, benzodiazepines, arylcyclohexamines (ketamine), opioids, propofol, etomidate

68
Q

what’s the mechanism of action of ketamine

A

NMDA receptor blocker

69
Q

what are the side effects of ketamine

A

cardiovascular stimulant, causes disorientation, hallucination and bad dreams as well as increased cerebral blood flow

70
Q

name the ester and amine local anesthetics

A

ester- procaine, cocaine, tetracaine

amines- lidocane, mepivacane, bupivacane

71
Q

how do local anesthetics work

A

bind and inhibit activated Na+ channels

72
Q

what’s the order of sensory loss with local anesthetics

A

(1) pain, (2) temperature, (3) touch, (4) pressure

73
Q

how does dantrolene work and what is it used for

A

blocks Ca2+ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum;

used for malignant hyperthermia

74
Q

name the depolarizing and non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers

A

depolarizing (strong AChR agonist)= succinylcholine

non-depolarizing (AChR antagonist)= tubocurarine, atracurium, mivacurium, pancuronium, vecuronium, rocuronium

75
Q

name the five kinds of drugs that treat Parkinson’s

A
BALSA:
bromocriptine (not really used in practice anymore)
amantadine
l-dopa with carbidopa
selegiline
antimuscarinic (benztropine)
76
Q

how does selegiline work

A

inhibits MAO-B

77
Q

what drugs are used to treat Alzheimer’s disease

A

memantine (NMDA receptor antagonist)

donepezil, rivastigmine, galantamine (AChE inhibitors)

78
Q

what drugs are used to treat Huntington’s disease

A

tetrabenazine and reserpine (VMAT inhibitors)

haloperidol (dopamine receptor antagonist)

79
Q

how does sumatriptan work and what is it used for

A

5HT agonist; blocks vasoactive peptide release in order to vasoconstrict

used for cluster headaches and acute migranes

80
Q

what toxicity is associated with sumatriptan

A

coronary vasospasm, mild tingling