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Neurology- First Aid > Neural anatomy > Flashcards

Neural anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

what process does an injured neuron undergo

A

Wallerian degeneration: the axon portion distal to the injury degenerates and the proximal portion contracts in order to regenerate (in PNS neurons)

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2
Q

what six functions do astrocytes accomplish

A

provide structure, repair, K+ metabolism, recycling of neurotransmitters, component of BBB, glycogen stores buffer

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3
Q

what is the molecular marker for glial cells

A

GFAP

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4
Q

what is reactive gliosis

A

proliferation of astrocytes in response to neural injury

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5
Q

which glial cell cannot be stained by Nissl

A

microglia

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6
Q

what does myelin do to the space constant (length constant) and conduction velocity

A

increases space constant and conduction velocity

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7
Q

which cell myelinates many neurons and which can only myelinate one neuron per cell

A

one oligodendrocyte myelinate many neurons (~30) while one Schwanna cell only myelinates one neuron

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8
Q

name three diseases in which oligodendrocytes are damaged/ dysfunctional

A

multiple sclerosis, PML (progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy), leukodystrophies

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9
Q

in what autoimmune disease are Schwann cells destroyed

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

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10
Q

what’s the most common type of schwannoma

A

accoustic neuroma, located in internal accoustic meatus (CN 8) –> tinnitus and hearing loss

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11
Q

what condition is bilateral accoustic neuroma associated with

A

neurofibromatosis type 2

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12
Q

name the two kinds of free nerve endings and their characteristics

A

C- slow, unmyelinated

A delta- fast, myelinated

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13
Q

what do free nerve endings sense

A

pain and temperature

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14
Q

what do Meissner’s corpuscles sense and where are they found

A

dynamic touch, fine/ light touch, position sense

found in glabrous (hairless) skin

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15
Q

where are Paccinian corpuscles found and what do they sense

A

found in the deep skin layers, ligaments and joints

sense vibration and pressure

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16
Q

where are Merkel discs found and what do they sense

A

basal epidermis layer of skin and in hair follicles;

they sense deep static touch (sharp edges), pressure, and position sense

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17
Q

what do the endoneurium, epineurium and perineurium surround, respectively

A

endoneurium- surrounds a single nerve fiber
perineurium- surrounds a fascicle of nerve fibers
epineurium- surrounds an entire nerve along with its vasculature

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18
Q

which nerve sheath has to be rejoined when reattaching a limb

A

perineurium

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19
Q

where is norepinephrine produced

A

locus ceruleus of the pons

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20
Q

where is serotonin (5-HT) produced

A

Raphe nucleus

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21
Q

where is dopamine produced

A

ventral tegmentum and substantia nigra pars compacta

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22
Q

where is acetylcholine produced

A

basal nucleus of Meynert

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23
Q

where is GABA produced

A

nucleus accumbens

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24
Q

what is the neurotransmitter profile for Huntington’s

A

decreased acetylcholine and decreased GABA

increased dopamine

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25
Q

what is the neurotransmitter profile for Parkinson’s

A

decreased dopamine

increased serotonin and increased ACh

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26
Q

what is the neurotransmitter profile for depression

A

decreased norepinephrine, decreased dopamine, decreased serotonin

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27
Q

what is the neurotransmitter profile for anxiety

A

increased norepinephrine, decreased serotonin, decreased GABA

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28
Q

what neurotransmitter is deficient in Alzheimer’s disease

A

acetylcholine

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29
Q

what three structures / layers form the blood brain barrier

A

non-fenestrated endothelium, basement membrane, astrocyte foot processes

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30
Q

name the two regions of the brain that are accessible by blood and what they do

A

OVLT (organum vasculosum of the lamina terminalis)= senses osmolarity
area postrema= senses emetic stimuli

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31
Q

what part of the hypothalamus produces ADH

A

supraoptic nucleus

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32
Q

what part of the hypothalmus produces oxytocin

A

paraventricular nucleus

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33
Q

what part of the hypothalamus causes hunger and what is it inhibited by

A

lateral hypothalamus; inhibited by leptin

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34
Q

what part of the hypothalamus produces parasympathetic stimulation and causes cooling

A

anterior hypothalamus

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35
Q

what part of the hypothalamus produces heating and sympathetic stimulation

A

posterior hypothalamus

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36
Q

what part of the hypothalamus controls circadian rhythms

A

suprachiasmatic

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37
Q

what part of the hypothalamus causes satiety and what hormone is it mediated by

A

ventromedial nucleus; stimulated by leptin

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38
Q

name the functions of the hypothalamus

A

TAN CHATS: thirst/ adenohypophysis control / neurohypophysis control / circadian rhythms / hunger / autonomic regulation / temperature / sex urges

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39
Q

what brain tumor can destroy the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus leading to weight gain and hyperphagia

A

craniopharyngioma

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40
Q

the suprachiasmatic nucleus controls nocturnal release of what hormones?

A

ACTH, melatonin, norepinephrine and prolactin

41
Q

what triggers release of melatonin from the pineal gland

A

norepinephrine

42
Q

how is the suprachiasmatic nucleus regulated

A

environment (e.g. light)

43
Q

what causes rapid eye movements during REM sleep

A

activity of PPRF (paramedian pontine reticular formation/ conjugate gaze center)

44
Q

how often does REM sleep occur

A

every 90 minutes, but the duration of REM sleep increases through the night

45
Q

what causes decreased REM sleep

A

alcohol, barbituates, benzodiazepines and norepinephrine

46
Q

what’s the medical term for bedwetting and how do you treat it

A

enuresis; treat with DDAVP (preferred over imipramine)

47
Q

what is used for night terrors and sleepwalking

A

benzodiazepines

48
Q

what kind of EEG wave form is seen when a person is awake with eyes open

A

beta (highest frequency, lowest amplitude)

49
Q

what kind of EEG wave form is seen when a person is awake with eyes closed

A

alpha

50
Q

what kind of EEG wave form is seen when a person is in light sleep (non-REM stage N1)

A

theta

51
Q

what kind of EEG wave form is seen when a person is in deeper sleep (non-REM stage N2)

A

sleep spindles and K complexes

52
Q

what kind of EEG wave form is seen when a person is in deepest non-REM sleep (stage N3)

A

delta (lowest frequency, highest amplitude)

53
Q

what kind of EEG wave form is seen when a person is in REM sleep and what bodily functions occur

A

beta; loss of motor tone, increased brain oxygen use, increased and variable pulse and BP, penile and clitoral tumescence can occur, memories are consolidated

54
Q

what information is relayed through the VPL and from what tracts to where

A

pain and temperature (from spinothalamic tract), proprioception (from DCML) to primary somatosensory cortex

55
Q

what information is relayed through the VPM and from where and to where

A

taste and facial sensation (from the trigeminal and gustatory pathways) to primary somatosensory cortex

56
Q

what information is relayed through the VL and from where and to where

A

motor information is relayed from the basal ganglia and cerebellum to motor cortex

57
Q

what information is relayed through the MGN and from where and to where

A

auditory information is relayed from the superior olive and inferior colliculus of the tectum to auditory cortex of temporal lobe

58
Q

what information is relayed through the LGN and from where and to where

A

visual information from CN 2 is transmitted through the VL and goes to the calcarine sulcus of occipital lobe

59
Q

what are the 5 F’s of the limbic system

A

feeling, fleeing, feeding, fighting and f*#$ (sex)

60
Q

what are the anatomic structures of the limbic system

A

hippocampus, amygdala, fornix, mamillary bodies, and cingulate gyrus

61
Q

name the four deep nuclei of the cerebellum

A

DEGF (“don’t eat greasy food”) dentate, emboliform, globose, fastigial

62
Q

what are the cells of the cerebellum that are part of the input pathway

A

mossy fibers and climbing fibers

63
Q

what are the cells of the cerebellum that are part of the output pathway

A

Purkinje fibers

64
Q

describe the output pathway of the cerebellum

A

Purkinje fibers sent information to the deep nuclei then to the contralateral cortex via the superior cerebellar peduncle

65
Q

what two penduncles send input to the cerebellum and which is contralateral vs. ipsilateral

A

middle and inferior cerebellar peduncles; middle peduncle comes from contralateral cortex, inferior cerebellar peduncle comes from ipsilateral spinal cord

66
Q

what are the basic functions of the cerebellum

A

to modulate movement, to aid in coordination and balance

67
Q

what separates the frontal and parietal lobes

A

the central sulcus

68
Q

what separates the temporal lobe from the frontal lobe

A

the Sylvian fissure

69
Q

what are the main areas of the frontal lobe

A

Broca’s, prefrontal cortex, frontal eye fields, premotor cortex, primary motor cortex and limbic orbitofrontal cortex

70
Q

what are the main areas of the temporal lobe

A

Wernicke’s area, primary auditory cortex

71
Q

what are the main areas of the parietal lobe

A

primary somatosensory cortex, secondary somatosensory area, and parietal association cortex

72
Q

what are the main areas of the occipital lobe

A

principal visual cortex

73
Q

what connects Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas

A

the arcuate fasciculus

74
Q

what regions of the body are most richly represented in the cortex

A

hands (especially fingertips) and face (especially lips)

75
Q

list the areas represented by the cortical homunculus in order from superio-medial to inferio-lateral

A

feet, legs, trunk, shoulder, arm, hand, neck, face, tongue

76
Q

what is the consequence of bilateral amygdala lesion

A

Kluver-Bucy syndrome (hyperorality, hypersexuality, docility)

77
Q

what condition is associated with Kluver Bucy syndrome

A

HSV-1

78
Q

what results from lesion of the frontal lobe

A

disinhibition and deficits in orientation, concentration and judgment; reemergence of primitive reflexes

79
Q

what is the consequence of a right parieto-temporal lesion

A

severe left spatial neglect (agnosia)

80
Q

what are the deficits seen with a left parieto-temporal lesion and what is this constellation of symptoms called

A

agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, left-right disorientation
=Gerstmann syndrome

81
Q

what is seen with a lesion of the reticular activating system (in the midbrain)

A

reduced arousal and wakefulness

82
Q

what is seen with bilateral lesion of the mamillary bodies

A

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome: confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia, memory loss (anterograde and retrograde amnesia), confabulation, personality changes

83
Q

what conditions or risk factors are associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

A

thiamine deficiency (often due to EtOH); thiamine deficiency can be precipitated by giving a deficient patient glucose before replacing vitamin B1

84
Q

what results from lesion of the basal ganglia

A

resting tremor, chorea, athetosis

85
Q

what results from lesion of the cerebellar hemisphere

A

intention tremor, limb ataxia, loss of balance (damage to cerebellum results in ipsilateral deficits= fall toward the side of the lesion)

86
Q

what deficits are seen with cerebellar vermis lesion

A

truncal ataxia, dysarthria

87
Q

what results from lesion of the subthalamic nucleus

A

hemiballismus

88
Q

what results from lesion of the hippocampus

A

anterograde amnesia (inability to make new memories)

89
Q

what clinical symptom is seen when there is a lesion of the PPRF (paramedian pontine reticular formation)

A

eyes look away from side of the lesion (PPRF controls saccades)

90
Q

what clinical symptom is seen when there is a lesion of the frontal eye fields

A

eyes look toward the side of the lesion

91
Q

what symptoms can central pontine myelinolysis cause

A

paresis, dysarthria, diplopia, dysphagia, LOC, and can cause “locked in syndrome”

92
Q

what causes central pontine myelinolysis

A

rapid correction of hyponatremia “low to high your brain will die”

93
Q

what is the cause of cerebral edema/ herniation

A

rapid correction of hypernatremia (going from high to low sodium) “high to low your brain will blow”

94
Q

where is Broca’s area

A

inferior frontal gyrus of frontal lobe

95
Q

where is Wernicke’s area

A

superior temporal gyrus of temporal lobe

96
Q

what areas are impaired when there is global aphasia

A

both Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas

97
Q

what area is damaged when a patient has conduction aphasia (inability to repeat, for example, “no ifs ands or buts”)

A

conduction aphasia= damage to arcuate fasciculus

98
Q

what deficits would you see in a mixed transcortical lesion

A

nonfluent speech, poor comprehension, intact repetition

99
Q

in terms of symptoms what is the exact opposite of conduction aphasia

A

mixed transcortical lesion

Neurology- First Aid (7 decks)

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