Neoplasia Flashcards

1
Q

Neoplasm comes from _____ that has incurred genetic change

A

a single cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

adenoma (glands)
cystadenoma (
papilloma (fingerlike projections)
polyp (macroscropic, above mucosal surface)

A

Benign tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Metastasis

A

hallmark of malignancy (carcinoma, sarcoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Translocation - (9;22)

Gene - ABL 9q34 and BCR 22q11

A

Translocation Malignancy - Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Translocation - (8;21) and (15;17)

Gene - AML 9q24; ETO 21q22; PML 21q22; RARA 17q21

A

Translocation Malignancy - Acute Myeloid Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

t(8;14)

Gene - MYC 8q24 and IGH 14q32

A

Translocation Malignancy - Burkitt Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

t(11;14)

Gene - CCND1 11q13 and IGH 14q32

A

Translocation Malignancy - Mantle Cell Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

t(14;18)

Gene - IGH 14q32 and BCL2 18q21

A

Translocation Malignancy - Follicular Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

t(11;22)

Gene - FLI1 and EWSR1

A

Translocation Malignancy - Ewing sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

t(7:21) and t(17:21)

Gene - TMPRSS2, ETC1, ETV4

A

Translocation - Postatic adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Type of malignant that arises from epithelium

A

Carcinoma

Types - squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, or transitional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

neoplasm derived from a SINGLE GERM LAYER

A

Mixed tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

neoplasm derived from MORE THAN ONE GERM LAYER

often originate in ovaries, testes

A

Teratoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Two basic tissue components of benign and malignant neoplasms

A
  1. Parenchyma - the clonal expansions of neoplastic cells making the bulk of the tumor&raquo_space; behavior and classification of tumor
  2. Stroma - supportive cellular component/structure (CT, BV, innate immune)&raquo_space; spread and growth of tumor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Desmoplastic tumors

A

Scirrhous (rock hard), seen in F breast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Polyp v. Adenoma of GI Tract

A

Polyp: benign/malignant tumor, projects ABOVE MUCOSA into colonic/gastric lumen. good prognosis
Adenoma - benigns epithelial neoplasm derived from glandular tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

malignant

cells resemble stratified squamous epothelium

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

malignant

cells grow in glandular pattern

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ovarian cystic teratoma

A

Dermoid cyst

From one germ layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lymphoma, melanoma, mesothelioma, seminoma

A

Malignant neoplasms with inappropriate, benign terminology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pleomorphic adenoma

A

Benign - Mixed Tumor of Salivary Gland

  • Has epithelial components within myxoid stroma with islands of bone, cartilage
  • From one germ layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Analplasia

A

Irreversible, Lack of differentiation

Many mitotic figure, high nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio, prominent nucleoli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Pleiomorphism

A

1 Histopathologic criteria of anaplasia: variation in shape/size of cells/nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Abnormal nuclear morphology

A

2 Histopathologic criteria of anaplasia: hyperchromatic (dark stain) nuclei, clumped chromatin, high nuclear:cytoplasm ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Atypical/abundant mitosis
``` #3 Histopathologic criteria of anaplasia: increased proliferative activity - Tripolar mitoses - "Mercedes Benz Sign" ```
26
Loss of polarity
#4 Histopathologic criteria of anaplasia: disorganized masses
27
Metaplasia
Reversible, replacement of one cell type with another
28
Dysplasia
Reversible, pre-malignant, disordered growth
29
Benign Tumor
Well differentiated Slow growth, low mitotic activity Well demarcated borders (capsule); DO NOT invade surrounding tissue No metastasis
30
Malignant Tumor
Poorly differentiated Erratic growth; mitotic figures, anaplastic Locally invasive; infiltrate surrouding tissue Metastasis possible/frequent
31
Lipoma
Benign tumor of fat cells
32
Leiomyoma
Benign tumor of smooth muscle
33
Liposarcoma
Malignant tumor of fat cells
34
Leiomyosarcoma
Malignant tumor of smooth muscle
35
How carcinomas metasticize
``` Lymph nodes (except: Renal cell carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma, follicular carcinoma of the thyroid, choriocarcinoma >> heamtogenous) ```
36
Malignant, arise FROM MESENCHYMAL ORIGIN
Sarcoma
37
How sarcomas metastacize
Hematogenously
38
Keratin Pearl
slam dunk for squamous cell carcinoma
39
Tissue of origin for: B - Bronchial adenoma M - Bronchogenic carcinoma
Respiratory Passages
40
Tissue of origin for: B - Renal tubular adenoma M - Renal cell carcinoma (hematogenous spread)
Renal epithelium
41
Tissue of origin for: B - Hepatic adenoma M - Hepatocellular carcinoma
Liver
42
Tissue of origin for: B - Transitional cell papilloma M - Transitional cell carcinoma
Urinary Tract (transitional/urothelium)
43
Tissue of origin for: B - Hyatidiform mole M - Choriocarcinoma
Placental Epithleium
44
Tissue of origin for: B - nevus M - Melanoma
Melanocytes
45
Tissue of origin for: B - none M - Seminoma, embryonal carcinoma
Testicular epithelium
46
Mesenchymal tissues (>>sarcoma)
bone, muscle, CT, BV
47
Cancer of mesenchymal origin - Anaplastic spindle cells with dark, ugly nuclei - Pink in middle = osteoid production
Osteosarcoma
48
Benign tumors (4) from mesenchymal origin - CT an derivatives
Fibroma, lipoma, chondroma, osteoma
49
Malignant tumors (4) from mesenchymal origin - CT an derivatives
Fibrosarcoma, liposarcoma, chondrosarcoma, osteogenic sarcoma
50
Tissue of origin for: B - hemangioma M - Angiosarcoma
Blood Vessels
51
Tissue of origin for: B - lymphagioma M - lymphagiosarcoma
Lymph Vessels
52
Tissue of origin for: B - none M - Mesothelioma
Mesothleium (covers all true serous membranes (peritoneum, pericardium, pleura))
53
Tissue of origin for: B - Meningioma M - Meningiosarcoma
Brain coverings
54
Tissue of origin for: B - (1) leimyoma, (2) rhabdomyoma M - (1) Leiomyosarcoma, (2) rhabdomyosarcoma
Smooth muscle | Striated muscle
55
Tissue of origin for: B - none M - leukemia
Hematopoietic Stem cells
56
Tissue of origin for: B - none M - lymphoma
Lymphoid tissue
57
Malignant Mixed Tumor of Kidneys
Wilm's Tumor
58
Mature teratoma, dermoid cyst
Benign Teratoma - Origin - Totipotent cells in gonads - Contains fat, hair, teeth, bone, cartilage
59
Immature Teratoma, teratocarcinoma
Malignant Teratoma - Origin - Totipotent cells in gonads - Aggressive, contains fetal tissue
60
Hallmarks of Cancer | 4. Promotion of angiogenesis
VEGF, FGF
61
Metastasis - 3 ways of spread
1. Lymphatic spread (carcinomas) 2. Hematogenous spread (sarcomas) 3. Seeding into body cavities
62
Hallmarks of Cancer | 5. Invasion and metastasis
Cell-to-cell contact lost (loss of E-cadherin) ECM broken down by MMP9 and cathepsins Cheomtactic (IL8) and angiogenic (VEGF) Dormancy
63
Hallmarks of Cancer | 6. Evasion of apoptosis
Bcl2 overexpressed in follicular lymphoma (Normally: Bcl2 blocks cytoC release in mito >> no apoptosis)
64
t(14;18)
``` Follicular Lymphoma moves Bcl2 (18) to Ig Heavy chain (14) >> increases Bcl2 >> No apoptosis ```
65
Hallmarks of Cancer | 7. Evasion of host defense
- NK, Macrophages, Cytotoxic CD8+ T cells - Tumor Ag and Tcells kill Evasion of the immune system
66
Oncofetal Antigens
proteins expressed at high levels on cancer cells and in fetal tissue. Can serve as markers that aid in tumor diagnosis and clinical management. CEA and AFP
67
Hallmarks of Cancer | 8. Cancer-enabling inflammation
provokes chronic inflammatory reaction - Anemia (iron sequestration and down regulation of EPO) - Fatigue - Cachexia (TNF-alpha)
68
Oncogene
- Mutated pro-oncogene - Gain of Function - Only needs ONE ALLELE for KO
69
Proto-Oncogene
Normal genes that regulate cell growth and proliferation
70
Tumor Suppressor Genes
Normally: stop cell cycle, but mutated - Loss of Function - BOTH ALLELES for KO
71
KO Tumor Suppressor types (2)
1. Sporadic - acquire mutations during life | 2. Familial - inherit one already mutated gene
72
RB gene - familial
Familial retinoblastoma syndroma
73
RB gene - sporadic
Retinoblastoma; osteosarcoma carcinomas of breast, colon, lung
74
Warburg Effect
aerobic glycolysis - high glucose usage of tumors
75
Cachexia
loss of equal amoutns of body fat and lean muscle, elevated basal metabolic rate, evidence of systemic inflammation (TNF-a = cachectin)
76
"Initiation" of chemical carcinogenesis
irreversible, permanent DNA damage that MAY POTENTIALLY, but is NOT SUFFICIENT for tumor formation
77
"Promoter" of chemical carcinogenesis
induce tumors to rise from initiated cells. | NONTUMORIGENIC themselves
78
Direct acting carcinogens
``` require NO metabolic activation to become carcinogenic. Alkylating agents (anticancer drugs)/acetylating agents ```
79
ultimate carcinogen
Indirect acting carcinogens - requires metabolic activation
80
cytochrome p-450 dependent mono-oxygenases
metabolizes indirect-acting carcinogens i.e. CYP1A1 (p450gene product) - 7fold increase for light smokers to develop lung cancer >> CYP1A1 metabolizes benzo[a]pyrene
81
alkylating agents in chemo
type of direct-acting initiator
82
benzo[a]pyrene, azo dyes, aflatoxin
types of indirect-acting initiators
83
Non-melanoma skin cancers (squamous cell carcinomas)
cumulative sun exposure
84
melanoma skin cancers
intermittent, high intensity exposure (sunburn)
85
pyrimidine dimers
formation in DNA results in carcigenicity of UVB light
86
nucleotide excision repair
pyrimidine dimers repair >> overwhelmed by excessive sun exposure
87
xeroderma pigmentosa
inherited disorder of DNA repair in which nucleotide excision repair genes are lost = cannot correct UVB damage that causes pyrimidine dimer formation
88
Ionizing Radiation causes... (rank from highest vulnerability to least)
1. Most frequent - myeloid leukemias and thyroid (only in young) 3. Intermediate - breast, lungs, salivary glands 4. Relatively resistant - GI, skin, bone
89
Hairy cell leukemias are associated with mutation in what?
BRAF (cannot stop stimulation of downstream kinases that activate transcription factors)