Need To Know Flashcards
0
Q
TIC
A
Tenderness
Instability
Crepites
1
Q
ABC
A
Airway
Breathing
Circulation
2
Q
AVPU
A
Alert
Verbal
Pain
Unresponsive
3
Q
Load and Go
A
Altered level of consciousness Airway compromise Respiratory compromise Circulatory compromise Bilateral femur fractures Fractured pelvis Distended abdominal Chest pain Stroke
4
Q
Low blood pressure is
A
100/60
5
Q
Normal body temperature ranges from
A
36.5 - 37.2
6
Q
What is considered a fever?
A
37c an above
7
Q
Normal blood glucose levels are
A
4.0 - 8.0 mmol/L
8
Q
AMPLE stands for?
A
Allergies Medication Past medical history Last oral intake Events leading up to the incident
9
Q
OPQRST stands for?
A
Onset - when did the pain begin?
Provocation - did anything cause or start the pain?
Quality - what is the pain like?
Radiation - does the pain begin in one place an then seem to travel elsewhere?
Severity - on a scale of 1-10
Time - hoe long have you been in pain?
10
Q
What does hyperventilation do?
A
It causes c2o to leave the body
11
Q
After artery comes?
A
Artery Arterials Capillaries Venuals Veins
12
Q
What is a tendon connected to?
A
Tendons are muscles connected to bone
13
Q
What is a ligament attached to?
A
A ligament is connected bone to bone
14
Q
How many vertebras in the spinal column?
A
33 Cervical 7 Thoracic 12 Lumbar 5 Sacral 5 Tailbone 4
15
Q
How many ribs are there?
A
12 sets of ribs and the bottom two are floating
16
Q
Systematic means?
A
Movement you can control
17
Q
Epi means?
A
Outer
18
Q
Homeostasis means?
A
Balance
19
Q
White blood cells help?
A
The immune system
20
Q
AAA
A
Aortic
Abdominal
Aneurism
21
Q
Advantageous means?
A
Not normal sounds
22
Q
Diacritic means ?
A
Sweating
23
Q
PMS
A
Pulse
Motor
Sensation
24
Flail regiment is?
Two or more ribs broken in two or more places
25
You have done a scene survey and found it safe. You find a 62-year-old unconscious, non-breathing male patient lying on the floor. After opening the airway, what is the next thing you should do?
Check for breathing
26
When determining the chief complaint of a conscious patient, it is better to
Ask the patient and have him tell you in his own words
27
When the heart contracts and forces blood into the arteries, the pressure created is known as the ______________.
Systolic blood pressure
28
What is the anatomical direction for "toward the feet"?
Inferior
29
A pulse oximeter should be used to
Measure the oxygen saturation in the blood
30
When auscultating blood pressure, you should first find the ______________ artery to listen over.
Brachial
31
What is the normal response of the pupils when exposed to bright light?
Constriction
32
Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system?
1) Acetabulum
2) Tendons
Correct Response
3) Fat
4) Ligaments
33
When trying to obtain the medical history of a conscious and alert patient, you should first ask ______________.
Ask the patient himself
34
Which body systems produces hormones?
Endocrine
35
what are the components of the central nervous system?
The brain and spinal cord
36
In EMS, the term “mental status” is used to refer to ______________ :
The patient's level of awareness of his surroundings
37
What structure conducts food from the mouth to the stomach?
Esophagus
38
Airway management and ventilation take precedence over other life-support skills because:
The body's cells must have oxygen to survive
39
The two major portions of the skull are the ______________ :
Cranium and face
40
The inferior most portion of the sternum is the ______________ :
Xiphoid process
41
What is the very first thing you need to know about a scene during a scene survey?
Are there any hazzards
42
When evaluating a chief complaint which of the following mnemonics should be used?
OPQRST
43
The frontal aspect of the body is also known as the ______________ :
Anterior
44
The term that means nearest the torso is:
Proximal
45
The AED should be placed on patients who present as:
Unconscious, apneic and pulseless
46
What are the lethal rhythms that the AED will defibrillate?
Ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia
47
Your patient remains pulseless immediately following delivery of a shock with an AED; you should next perform CPR for _______________
2 minutes
48
he first step in treating a patient who is breathing but in respiratory distress is to ensure an adequate airway. The next step is to:
Provide oxygen at high flow or ventilate if needed
49
What should be done immediately following the application of every splint?
Assess circulation distal to the injury
50
A mid-shaft-femur fracture should be splinted with a:
Traction Splint
51
On an adult who you have determined to be in cardiac arrest, you should first open the airway, and then:
Give two ventilations
52
The nasal cannula delivers how much oxygen to the patient?
24 to 44%
53
Removing an impaled object may:
Start massive hemorrhage from damaged vessels previously blocked by the object
54
The goal of providing early CPR in cardiac arrest is to:
Maintain circulation to the vital organs while awaiting defibrillation
55
our patient is found lying on the ground after falling off a roof. Due to the mechanism of injury, you would open the patient's airway by which method?
Jaw Thrust
56
The most important reason for controlling external bleeding is to:
Prevent shock
57
When using a spineboard, the rescuer holding the head may release manual stabilization once __________________.
The patient is fully secured
58
A maximum of __________________ traction is allowed with a traction splint:
15 pounds or 10% of the persons body weight
59
Immediately after the AED has given the first shock you should:
Resume CPR
60
A dressing used to form an airtight seal is called a/an:
Occlusive dressing
61
A bag-valve mask can deliver what percentage of oxygen if connected to an oxygen source?
100%
62
How many chest compressions should be done in one minute?
100
63
To lift a patient with a crushed pelvis off the ground the EMR should use which lifting device?
Scoop stretcher
64
You should NOT use an oral airway in:
Patients with a gag reflex
65
What is the most effective way to control external bleeding?
Apply direct pressure using a dressing
66
For an open chest wound, leave one side of an occlusive dressing un-taped to:
Allow air to enter and exit during respirations
67
If there is a blockage and air is not able to get into the lungs of a patient, what is the most serious consequence to the patient?
Death in 4 to 6 minutes
68
The correct sequence when trying to control bleeding is?
Direct pressure and elevation, pressure point, tourniquet
69
The use of a nasopharyngeal airway should be used with? (NPA)
with a water-soluble lubricant prior to insertion.
70
What types of insulin are there?
Short Acting and Long Acting
71
What are the 8 Vital signs?
```
HR___BPM S/R
RR___BPM N/L
BP___mmHg
SPO2___% R/A
TEMP___ C
SKIN- P/W/D
Pupils___mm PEARL
BGL___mmol/L
```
72
What is the fourth vertebrae down called?
L4 - Lumbar
73
What is Hypoxia
Lack of oxygen to the tissues
74
What is Hypoxiemia
Lack of oxygen to the blood levels
75
There are two types of airway obstructions
Gargling - Fluid
| Snoring - Tongue or object
76
Vvac is a____ and has an extension called a____
Suction
| Whistle Tip
77
PSI
Pressure per Square Inch
78
How long do you do a pulse check on a hypothermic patient?
1 minute
79
Hypothermic means
Body temp is to low
80
What type of splint do you use for a femur fracture?
Sager - Traction Splint
81
When should a Sager splint be used?
Femur Fracture
Mid shaft
Closed injury
No other injuries
82
We breath in __% oxygen from the air
21%
83
Safe residual value (SRV) for an air tank is?
200 PSI
84
BVM means?
Bag Valve Mask
85
When should you use a BVM
RR less than 10 or greater than 40
86
How much oxygen does the BVM deliver?
90 - 95%
87
What flow rate should the BVM be at?
15-25 Lpm
89
DCAP BLS
```
Deformities
Contusion
Abrasions
Penetrations
Burns
Lacerations
Swelling
```
90
A written order by the medical director which can be applied to patient care is called a _______________?
Protocol
91
Drug absorption is affected by
Shock
Vomiting
Food in stomach
92
The route for ASA is:
PO
93
Elimination of medications mostly occurs through
Digestive system
Urinary system
Lungs
94
A 28-year-old female, a known cocaine-abuser, calls an ambulance, complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. When you arrive she has severe substernal chest pain radiating to her left arm. She has a respiratory rate of 24 and shallow. Her pulse is 140 and irregular, blood pressure 110/80. She is pale and diaphoretic. During your primary survey you should:
Give her oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 12-15 l/min and transport
95
Before caring for a patient who has come into contact with a corrosive substance you should:
BSI
96
Medications can be identified using all of the following types of names
Chemical name
Generic name
Trade name
97
Contraindications for ASA include:
Hypersensitivity and active ulcer disease
98
Most cases of accidental poisoning involve
Young children
99
Oral or rectal administration of a drug is known as administering through which route?
Enteral route
100
Your patient is a 48-year-old male who has been exposed to a toxic powder that can be absorbed through the skin. Which of the following measures should be taken?
Brush off the powder and flush the patient's skin with copious amounts of water.
101
You have a patient with chest pain. The dose for ASA which an EMR can give this patient is?
160 mg
102
Drugs are manufactured from
Animals
Plants
Minerals
103
The route for epinephrine is:
IM
104
To administer epinephrine, hold the injector firmly against the thigh for a least:
10 seconds
105
Delirium Tremens may be a result of which of
Sudden withdrawal from alcohol
106
The dosage for oral glucose is:
25g
107
The study of drug action on the body is known as:
Pharmacodynamics
108
A gelatinous container holding a drug in powder, liquid or oil form is called:
Capsule
109
A drug which binds to a receptor and alters the state of that receptor causing a response is called:
Agonist
110
The generic name for Ventolin is?
Salbutamol
111
Beta 2 receptors when activated cause:
Bronchodilation
112
You are called to a residential building for an overdose. As you approach the house you see a man through the window who is punching the wall with his fists. As you get closer, you can hear him yelling and screaming loudly. You should:
Call the police to control the scene as this does not appear to be safe
113
Ventolin and Atrovent are used to treat _______________ :
Bronchospasms
114
A substance that will neutralize a poison or its effects is called a/an:
Antidote
115
Narcotics and Tranquilizer induce?
Sleep
116
Before administration of medications, the EMR should check the _______________ rights of drug administration:
6
117
CCC-E
Color - Clarity - Concentration - Expiry Date
118
6 Rights
Patient, Drug, Time, Dose, Route, Documentation
119
RED
Rest - Elevate - pressure Distal (for deadly bleeds)
120
DRT
Distention - Rigity - Tenderness
121
Priapism could mean
Spinal cord injury
122
SMR
Spinal motion restriction
123
CPS
Compendium of pharmaceuticals and specialties
124
The pupils of the patient who has taken a narcotic like morphine are:
Pinpoint
125
When lifting the overdose patient, the most important rule is to maintain:
Maintain proper lordosis
126
The blood pressure for the patient is 80/60. What type of shock results from internal and external bleeding?
Hypovolemic
127
You hear a high pitch sound when assessing the patients airway. This is called?
Stridor
128
The patient is sitting upright leaning forward with her hands resting on her knees. This position is called?
Tripod position
129
Epinephrine inhibits the release of:
Histamine
130
The dose of epinephrine for the treatment of anaphylaxis is?
0.3mg
131
After administration of the Epi-Pen, you should dispose of the pen in the:
Sharps container
132
After opening the airway and inserting an OPA, how many ventilations, using a BVM, should be performed if the patient is not breathing before a pulse check is done.
Two ventilations
133
The patient has a pulse after using the AED but is not breathing. How many times should you ventilate the patient per minute?
10 - 12
134
During your reassessment survey the patient begins to show signs of increase dyspnea and the saturations start to drop. You notice the occlusive dressing is sealed to the chest from the blood. What is your response?
Change the occlusive dressing
135
The ability to administer oral glucose by the EMR is determined by which legislation?
Health Professions Act
136
During the procedure for taking a blood glucose reading, you should:
Gloves and Goggles
