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EMR > Need To Know > Flashcards

Need To Know Flashcards

0
Q

TIC

A

Tenderness
Instability
Crepites

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1
Q

ABC

A

Airway
Breathing
Circulation

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2
Q

AVPU

A

Alert
Verbal
Pain
Unresponsive

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3
Q

Load and Go

A 
Altered level of consciousness 
Airway compromise 
Respiratory compromise 
Circulatory compromise 
Bilateral femur fractures 
Fractured pelvis 
Distended abdominal 
Chest pain
Stroke
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4
Q

Low blood pressure is

A

100/60

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5
Q

Normal body temperature ranges from

A

36.5 - 37.2

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6
Q

What is considered a fever?

A

37c an above

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7
Q

Normal blood glucose levels are

A

4.0 - 8.0 mmol/L

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8
Q

AMPLE stands for?

A 
Allergies
Medication 
Past medical history 
Last oral intake 
Events leading up to the incident
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9
Q

OPQRST stands for?

A

Onset - when did the pain begin?
Provocation - did anything cause or start the pain?
Quality - what is the pain like?
Radiation - does the pain begin in one place an then seem to travel elsewhere?
Severity - on a scale of 1-10
Time - hoe long have you been in pain?

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10
Q

What does hyperventilation do?

A

It causes c2o to leave the body

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11
Q

After artery comes?

A 
Artery 
Arterials
Capillaries
Venuals
Veins
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12
Q

What is a tendon connected to?

A

Tendons are muscles connected to bone

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13
Q

What is a ligament attached to?

A

A ligament is connected bone to bone

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14
Q

How many vertebras in the spinal column?

A 
33
Cervical 7
Thoracic 12
Lumbar 5
Sacral 5
Tailbone 4
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15
Q

How many ribs are there?

A

12 sets of ribs and the bottom two are floating

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16
Q

Systematic means?

A

Movement you can control

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17
Q

Epi means?

A

Outer

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18
Q

Homeostasis means?

A

Balance

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19
Q

White blood cells help?

A

The immune system

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20
Q

AAA

A

Aortic
Abdominal
Aneurism

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21
Q

Advantageous means?

A

Not normal sounds

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22
Q

Diacritic means ?

A

Sweating

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23
Q

PMS

A

Pulse
Motor
Sensation

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24
Q

Flail regiment is?

A

Two or more ribs broken in two or more places

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25
Q

You have done a scene survey and found it safe. You find a 62-year-old unconscious, non-breathing male patient lying on the floor. After opening the airway, what is the next thing you should do?

A

Check for breathing

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26
Q

When determining the chief complaint of a conscious patient, it is better to

A

Ask the patient and have him tell you in his own words

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27
Q

When the heart contracts and forces blood into the arteries, the pressure created is known as the ______________.

A

Systolic blood pressure

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28
Q

What is the anatomical direction for “toward the feet”?

A

Inferior

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29
Q

A pulse oximeter should be used to

A

Measure the oxygen saturation in the blood

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30
Q

When auscultating blood pressure, you should first find the ______________ artery to listen over.

A

Brachial

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31
Q

What is the normal response of the pupils when exposed to bright light?

A

Constriction

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32
Q

Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system?

A

1) Acetabulum

2) Tendons
Correct Response
3) Fat

4) Ligaments

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33
Q

When trying to obtain the medical history of a conscious and alert patient, you should first ask ______________.

A

Ask the patient himself

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34
Q

Which body systems produces hormones?

A

Endocrine

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35
Q

what are the components of the central nervous system?

A

The brain and spinal cord

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36
Q

In EMS, the term “mental status” is used to refer to ______________ :

A

The patient’s level of awareness of his surroundings

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37
Q

What structure conducts food from the mouth to the stomach?

A

Esophagus

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38
Q

Airway management and ventilation take precedence over other life-support skills because:

A

The body’s cells must have oxygen to survive

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39
Q

The two major portions of the skull are the ______________ :

A

Cranium and face

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40
Q

The inferior most portion of the sternum is the ______________ :

A

Xiphoid process

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41
Q

What is the very first thing you need to know about a scene during a scene survey?

A

Are there any hazzards

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42
Q

When evaluating a chief complaint which of the following mnemonics should be used?

A

OPQRST

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43
Q

The frontal aspect of the body is also known as the ______________ :

A

Anterior

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44
Q

The term that means nearest the torso is:

A

Proximal

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45
Q

The AED should be placed on patients who present as:

A

Unconscious, apneic and pulseless

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46
Q

What are the lethal rhythms that the AED will defibrillate?

A

Ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia

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47
Q

Your patient remains pulseless immediately following delivery of a shock with an AED; you should next perform CPR for _______________

A

2 minutes

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48
Q

he first step in treating a patient who is breathing but in respiratory distress is to ensure an adequate airway. The next step is to:

A

Provide oxygen at high flow or ventilate if needed

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49
Q

What should be done immediately following the application of every splint?

A

Assess circulation distal to the injury

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50
Q

A mid-shaft-femur fracture should be splinted with a:

A

Traction Splint

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51
Q

On an adult who you have determined to be in cardiac arrest, you should first open the airway, and then:

A

Give two ventilations

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52
Q

The nasal cannula delivers how much oxygen to the patient?

A

24 to 44%

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53
Q

Removing an impaled object may:

A

Start massive hemorrhage from damaged vessels previously blocked by the object

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54
Q

The goal of providing early CPR in cardiac arrest is to:

A

Maintain circulation to the vital organs while awaiting defibrillation

55
Q

our patient is found lying on the ground after falling off a roof. Due to the mechanism of injury, you would open the patient’s airway by which method?

A

Jaw Thrust

56
Q

The most important reason for controlling external bleeding is to:

A

Prevent shock

57
Q

When using a spineboard, the rescuer holding the head may release manual stabilization once __________________.

A

The patient is fully secured

58
Q

A maximum of __________________ traction is allowed with a traction splint:

A

15 pounds or 10% of the persons body weight

59
Q

Immediately after the AED has given the first shock you should:

A

Resume CPR

60
Q

A dressing used to form an airtight seal is called a/an:

A

Occlusive dressing

61
Q

A bag-valve mask can deliver what percentage of oxygen if connected to an oxygen source?

A

100%

62
Q

How many chest compressions should be done in one minute?

A

100

63
Q

To lift a patient with a crushed pelvis off the ground the EMR should use which lifting device?

A

Scoop stretcher

64
Q

You should NOT use an oral airway in:

A

Patients with a gag reflex

65
Q

What is the most effective way to control external bleeding?

A

Apply direct pressure using a dressing

66
Q

For an open chest wound, leave one side of an occlusive dressing un-taped to:

A

Allow air to enter and exit during respirations

67
Q

If there is a blockage and air is not able to get into the lungs of a patient, what is the most serious consequence to the patient?

A

Death in 4 to 6 minutes

68
Q

The correct sequence when trying to control bleeding is?

A

Direct pressure and elevation, pressure point, tourniquet

69
Q

The use of a nasopharyngeal airway should be used with? (NPA)

A

with a water-soluble lubricant prior to insertion.

70
Q

What types of insulin are there?

A

Short Acting and Long Acting

71
Q

What are the 8 Vital signs?

A 
HR\_\_\_BPM S/R
RR\_\_\_BPM N/L
BP\_\_\_mmHg
SPO2\_\_\_% R/A
TEMP\_\_\_ C
SKIN- P/W/D
Pupils\_\_\_mm PEARL
BGL\_\_\_mmol/L
72
Q

What is the fourth vertebrae down called?

A

L4 - Lumbar

73
Q

What is Hypoxia

A

Lack of oxygen to the tissues

74
Q

What is Hypoxiemia

A

Lack of oxygen to the blood levels

75
Q

There are two types of airway obstructions

A

Gargling - Fluid

Snoring - Tongue or object

76
Q

Vvac is a____ and has an extension called a____

A

Suction

Whistle Tip

77
Q

PSI

A

Pressure per Square Inch

78
Q

How long do you do a pulse check on a hypothermic patient?

A

1 minute

79
Q

Hypothermic means

A

Body temp is to low

80
Q

What type of splint do you use for a femur fracture?

A

Sager - Traction Splint

81
Q

When should a Sager splint be used?

A

Femur Fracture
Mid shaft
Closed injury
No other injuries

82
Q

We breath in __% oxygen from the air

A

21%

83
Q

Safe residual value (SRV) for an air tank is?

A

200 PSI

84
Q

BVM means?

A

Bag Valve Mask

85
Q

When should you use a BVM

A

RR less than 10 or greater than 40

86
Q

How much oxygen does the BVM deliver?

A

90 - 95%

87
Q

What flow rate should the BVM be at?

A

15-25 Lpm

89
Q

DCAP BLS

A 
Deformities 
Contusion 
Abrasions 
Penetrations
Burns
Lacerations
Swelling
90
Q

A written order by the medical director which can be applied to patient care is called a _______________?

A

Protocol

91
Q

Drug absorption is affected by

A

Shock
Vomiting
Food in stomach

92
Q

The route for ASA is:

A

PO

93
Q

Elimination of medications mostly occurs through

A

Digestive system
Urinary system
Lungs

94
Q

A 28-year-old female, a known cocaine-abuser, calls an ambulance, complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. When you arrive she has severe substernal chest pain radiating to her left arm. She has a respiratory rate of 24 and shallow. Her pulse is 140 and irregular, blood pressure 110/80. She is pale and diaphoretic. During your primary survey you should:

A

Give her oxygen by nonrebreather mask at 12-15 l/min and transport

95
Q

Before caring for a patient who has come into contact with a corrosive substance you should:

A

BSI

96
Q

Medications can be identified using all of the following types of names

A

Chemical name
Generic name
Trade name

97
Q

Contraindications for ASA include:

A

Hypersensitivity and active ulcer disease

98
Q

Most cases of accidental poisoning involve

A

Young children

99
Q

Oral or rectal administration of a drug is known as administering through which route?

A

Enteral route

100
Q

Your patient is a 48-year-old male who has been exposed to a toxic powder that can be absorbed through the skin. Which of the following measures should be taken?

A

Brush off the powder and flush the patient’s skin with copious amounts of water.

101
Q

You have a patient with chest pain. The dose for ASA which an EMR can give this patient is?

A

160 mg

102
Q

Drugs are manufactured from

A

Animals
Plants
Minerals

103
Q

The route for epinephrine is:

A

IM

104
Q

To administer epinephrine, hold the injector firmly against the thigh for a least:

A

10 seconds

105
Q

Delirium Tremens may be a result of which of

A

Sudden withdrawal from alcohol

106
Q

The dosage for oral glucose is:

A

25g

107
Q

The study of drug action on the body is known as:

A

Pharmacodynamics

108
Q

A gelatinous container holding a drug in powder, liquid or oil form is called:

A

Capsule

109
Q

A drug which binds to a receptor and alters the state of that receptor causing a response is called:

A

Agonist

110
Q

The generic name for Ventolin is?

A

Salbutamol

111
Q

Beta 2 receptors when activated cause:

A

Bronchodilation

112
Q

You are called to a residential building for an overdose. As you approach the house you see a man through the window who is punching the wall with his fists. As you get closer, you can hear him yelling and screaming loudly. You should:

A

Call the police to control the scene as this does not appear to be safe

113
Q

Ventolin and Atrovent are used to treat _______________ :

A

Bronchospasms

114
Q

A substance that will neutralize a poison or its effects is called a/an:

A

Antidote

115
Q

Narcotics and Tranquilizer induce?

A

Sleep

116
Q

Before administration of medications, the EMR should check the _______________ rights of drug administration:

A

6

117
Q

CCC-E

A

Color - Clarity - Concentration - Expiry Date

118
Q

6 Rights

A

Patient, Drug, Time, Dose, Route, Documentation

119
Q

RED

A

Rest - Elevate - pressure Distal (for deadly bleeds)

120
Q

DRT

A

Distention - Rigity - Tenderness

121
Q

Priapism could mean

A

Spinal cord injury

122
Q

SMR

A

Spinal motion restriction

123
Q

CPS

A

Compendium of pharmaceuticals and specialties

124
Q

The pupils of the patient who has taken a narcotic like morphine are:

A

Pinpoint

125
Q

When lifting the overdose patient, the most important rule is to maintain:

A

Maintain proper lordosis

126
Q

The blood pressure for the patient is 80/60. What type of shock results from internal and external bleeding?

A

Hypovolemic

127
Q

You hear a high pitch sound when assessing the patient’s airway. This is called?

A

Stridor

128
Q

The patient is sitting upright leaning forward with her hands resting on her knees. This position is called?

A

Tripod position

129
Q

Epinephrine inhibits the release of:

A

Histamine

130
Q

The dose of epinephrine for the treatment of anaphylaxis is?

A

0.3mg

131
Q

After administration of the Epi-Pen, you should dispose of the pen in the:

A

Sharps container

132
Q

After opening the airway and inserting an OPA, how many ventilations, using a BVM, should be performed if the patient is not breathing before a pulse check is done.

A

Two ventilations

133
Q

The patient has a pulse after using the AED but is not breathing. How many times should you ventilate the patient per minute?

A

10 - 12

134
Q

During your reassessment survey the patient begins to show signs of increase dyspnea and the saturations start to drop. You notice the occlusive dressing is sealed to the chest from the blood. What is your response?

A

Change the occlusive dressing

135
Q

The ability to administer oral glucose by the EMR is determined by which legislation?

A

Health Professions Act

136
Q

During the procedure for taking a blood glucose reading, you should:

A

Gloves and Goggles

EMR (14 decks)

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