Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Ocular Pharmacology > NBEO drug list/KMK/Gen Pharm > Flashcards

NBEO drug list/KMK/Gen Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Acetazolamide (Diamox)

A

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor (Diuretic) –po, inhibits CA enzyme, alkalinization of urine (increased HCO3- in urine), diuretic effect only lasts a few to several days, tx for alkalosis

  • decrease in H+ for exchange w/Na+ results in Na+ loss (stops Na+ reabsorption)
  • sulfa sensitivity!

-SE: paresthesia!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Brinzolamide (Azopt)

A

topical Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor - glaucoma drop, decreases aqueous humor production and CSF
-orange cap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dorzolamide (Trusopt)

A

topical Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor - glaucoma drop, decreases aqueous humor production and CSF
-orange cap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Methazolamide (Neptazane)

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor - po, tx glaucoma, decreases aqueous humor production and CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Furosemide (Lasix)

A

Loop Diuretic - blocks the Na+/K+/2Cl- transporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, induces kidney prostaglandins (vasodilation) can be used to tx HTN

  • causes loss of Ca2+ and Mg2+, also Cl- and K+
  • tx for heart failure (edema), and pulmonary edema, tx hypercalcemia
  • can cause hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis, hyperuricemia, irreversible ototoxicity, NSAID interference
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide (Esidrix)

A

Thiazide, most used diuretic, also a common DOC for HTN (C/I for DM pt!)

  • inhibits Na+ reabsorption at distal tubule -causes decrease of Na+, CO, decrease in blood volume and so decrease in BP
  • increase in ATP-dependent K+ channel opening, causes hyperpolarization (vasodilation in smooth muscle) and also decreases insulin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chlorothiazide (Diuril)

A

Thiazide diuretic, also a common DOC for HTN (C/I for DM pt!)

  • inhibits Na+ reabsorption at distal tubule -causes decrease of Na+, CO, decrease in blood volume and so decrease in BP
  • increase in ATP-dependent K+ channel opening, causes hyperpolarization (vasodilation in smooth muscle) and also decreases insulin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

C/I for thiazides

A

causes dry eye, hyperglycemia (C/I for DM pts), hyperlipidemia, lithium toxicity, digitalis toxicity, hepatic coma in cirrhotic pts, hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis, hyperuricemia! (tell pts to stop thiazide before having a surgical procedure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Diuretic drug that can be used for patients with a sulfa allergy

A

Ethacrynic acid (Edecrin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Triamterene (Dyrenium)

A

Potassium-sparing Diuretic
-reduces the K+ loss caused by the other diuretics, used in combination as they are weak on their own
-inhibit Na+/K+ exchange independently of aldosterone
C/I for burn patients (already hyperkalemic!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Spironolactone (Aldactone)

A

Potassium-sparing Diuretic - competitive inhibitor of aldosterone (anti-androgen)

  • tx edema w/HF, hyperaldosteronism, hirsutism, PMS
  • SE: occasional hyperkalemia w/ACEI and ARBs
  • C/I: liver damage, renal insufficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Mannitol (Osmitrol)

A

Osmotic Diuretic
IV only, keeps water in tubules, large amount of water diuresis, keeps water flowing and protects kidney, can be used as prophylaxis of acute renal failure
-decreases IOP and ICP quickly
-SE: cellular dehydration, edema
-C/I: DON’T USE WITH HF pts!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the order of effectiveness for diuretic drugs?

A

Loops >> thiazides >>> K+ sparing drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Hydralazine

A

Antihypertensive - acts through nitric oxide to cause vasodilation - used during pregnancy for long-term tx of severe HTN in combo with other BP-lowering meds and as a last resort
-SE: Lupus!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Minoxidil (Loniten)

A

Antihypertensive - acts through opening potassium channels (hyperpolarizes membrane) to cause vasodilation
SE: Hypertrichosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nifedipine (Procardia)

A

Calcium Channel Blocker - Dihydropiridine type
-strong vasodilator, more vascular effects, increases HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Amlodipine (Norvasc)

A

Calcium Channel Blocker - Dihydropiridine type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Felodipine (Plendil)

A

Calcium Channel Blocker - Dihydropiridine type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Verapamil (Calan)

A

Calcium Channel Blocker - strong cardiac effect, decreases HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Diltiazem (Cardizem)

A

Calcium Channel Blocker - effects in between Verapamil and Dihydropiridines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Captopril (Capoten)

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor - works on the renin-angiotensin system
-good choice of anti-HTN med for DM pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Enalapril (Vasotec)

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor - works on the renin-angiotensin system
-good choice of anti-HTN med for DM pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Quinapril (Accupril)

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor - works on the renin-angiotensin system
-good choice of anti-HTN med for DM pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lisinopril (Zestril)

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor - works on the renin-angiotensin system
-good choice of anti-HTN med for DM pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Benazepril (Lotensin)

A

Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitor - works on the renin-angiotensin system
-good choice of anti-HTN med for DM pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Losartan (Cozaar)

A

Angiotensin receptor blocker - anti HTN
blocks AT1 receptor but not AT2 (difference from ACEIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Valsartan (Diovan)

A

Angiotensin receptor blocker - anti HTN
blocks AT1 receptor but not AT2 (difference from ACEIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Clonidine (Catapres)

A

Alpha 2 agonist, sympatholytic, anti-HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Methyldopa (Aldomet)

A

Alpha 2 agonist, sympatholytic, anti-HTN
-used in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Prazosin (Minipress)

A

Alpha 1 adrenergic blocker, anti-HTN
also good for tx BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Doxazosin (Cardura)

A

Alpha 1 adrenergic blocker, anti-HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Terazosin (Hytrin)

A

Alpha 1 adrenergic blocker, anti-HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Propranolol (Inderal)

A

nonspecific Beta-blocker, anti-HTN

  • reduces sympathetic vasomotor tone but doesn’t cause vasodilation unless with NO
  • SE: bronchoconstriction, decreased insulin release, increase of lipids and atherogenesis, masks hypoglycemia
  • C/I: asthmatics, DM, hypercholesterolemia, heart block end stage HF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Carvedilol (Coreg)

A

Combined alpha and beta blocker to tx HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Labetalol (Trandate)

A

Combined alpha and beta blocker to tx HTN, used in pregnancy, HTN emergencies
-SE: hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Metoprolol (Lopressor)

A

Cardio specific or B1 blocker for treating HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Nebivolol (Bystolic)

A

Cardio specific or B1 blocker for treating HTN, has NO (vasodilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Atenolol (Tenormin)

A

Cardio specific or B1 blocker for treating HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Nitroglycerin

A

DOC for tx acute anginal attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Isosorbide dinitrate (Isordil)

A

tx angina, decreases oxygen demand
SE: headaches, tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Sildenafil (Viagra)

A

phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitor
tx - ED, pulmonary HTN
C/I: Nitrates
CYP3A4 interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Vardenafil (Levitra)

A

phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitor - faster onset than sildenafil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Tadalafil (Cialis)

A

phosphodiesterase type 5 (PDE5) inhibitor - longer duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Lovastatin (Mevacor)

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor - treats hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor - treats hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Rosuvastatin (Crestor)

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor - treats hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Pravastatin (Pravachol)

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor - treats hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Simvastatin (Zocor)

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor - treats hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Fluvastatin (Lescol)

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor - treats hyperlipidemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Cholestyramine (Questran)

A

bile acid binding resins, very safe but can inhibit other drug absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Niacin (Nicotinic acid, Vitamin B3)

A

impairs synthesis of lipoproteins, effective at increasing HDL and treating hypercholesterolemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

A

fibric acid derivative - increases catabolism of VLDL, effective at treating hypertriglyceridemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Fenofibrate (Tricor)

A

fibric acid derivative - increases catabolism of VLDL, effective at treating hypertriglyceridemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Warfarin (Coumadin)

A

clotting factor synthesis inhibitor - anticoagulant, prevention of emboli development
-INR(2-3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Apixaban (Eliquis)

A

direct inhibitor of factor Xa, anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)

A

inhibits tPA, treatment for bleeding disorders (pro-clotting) can be used for hemophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Aspirin

A

inhibitors of prostaglandin production, antiplatelet agent
-secondary prevention of CV events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

A

inhibitor of ADP-induced platelet aggregation, irreversible, used for pts with aspiring allergy

  • interacts w/omeprazole
  • DOC after coronary stent sx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Ticlopidine (Ticlid)

A

inhibitor of ADP-induced platelet aggregation, irreversible, used for pts with aspiring allergy

  • interacts w/omeprazole
  • DOC after coronary stent sx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Dipyridamole

A

coronary vasodilator, combine with aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Betaxolol (Betoptic)

A

beta 1 selective blocker, can be used topically in eye to tx glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Carteolol (Cartol)

A

partial agonist, beta-blocker, can be used in eye
said to have intrinsic sympathetic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Tamsulosin (Flomax)

A

Alpha 1 adrenergic blocker, little effect on BP but used to tx BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Phenoxybenzamine (Dibenzyline)

A

alpha-receptor blocker, irreversible, very long acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Leuprolide (Lupron)

A

GnRH agonist, suppresses LH/FSH release (long term), DOC for endometriosis, IVF, precocious puberty, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Goserelin (Zoladex)

A

GnRH Agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Estradiol (Estraderm)

A

estrogen given in cream/patches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Ethinyl estradiol

A

estrogen used in oral contraceptives (not available individually)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Premarin

A

conjugated estrogens, used for HRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Tamoxifen (Novaldex)

A

Antiestrogen - SERM (selective estrogen receptor modulator) tx. pre-menopausal breast cancer, AE: can cause crystalline retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Raloxifene (Evista)

A

Antiestrogen, SERM, tx: osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Medroxyprogesterone (Provera)

A

progestin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Drospirenone/ethinyl estradiol (Yasmin, Yaz)

A

combination oral contraceptive, the only one approved to treat PMDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Flutamide (Eulexin)

A

Anti-androgen (androgen receptor antagonist) tx: prostate cancer w/GnRH agonist

75
Q

Finasteride (Propecia)

A

5a-reductase inhibitor (stops conversion to DHT) tx: BPH and male pattern baldness

76
Q

Insulin lispro (Humalog)

A

Rapid-acting insulin - IV

77
Q

Insulin, inhaled (Afrezza)

A

Rapid-acting insulin

78
Q

Regular insulin (Novolin R, Humulin R)

A

Short-acting insulin, IV

79
Q

NPH Insulin (Humulin N, Novolin N, isophane)

A

Intermediate-acting insulins

80
Q

Insulin glargine (Lantus)

A

Long-acting insulins

81
Q

Insulin detemir (Levemir)

A

Long-acting insulins

82
Q

Metformin

A

a biguanide, oral, DOC, only used in type 2 DM, decreases glucose levels (euglycemia), does not increase weight, decreases risk of CV events
C/I: renal failure
AE: lactic acidosis, diarrhea

83
Q

Exenatide (Byetta)

A

glucagon-like peptide-1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA), incretin mechanism, stimulates pancreas beta cells, causes weight loss
AE/caution w/pancreatitis
injected

84
Q

Sitagliptin (Januvia)

A

dipeptidyl-peptidase-IV (DPP-4) inhibitor, inhibits DPP-4 so glucose gets to beta cells better, no effect on weight

85
Q

Canagliflozin (Invokana)

A

SGLT-2 inhibitor, oral, weight loss, decrease risk of CV events
AE: UTIs
C/I: renal impairment

86
Q

Pioglitazone (Actos)

A

thiazolidinedione derivative, increases insulin sensitivity
AE: edema, increased heart failure risk, macular edema

87
Q
  • Acarbose (Precose)*
  • Miglitol (Glyset)*
A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors, delays carb absorption, causes gas and GI issues, no effect on weight

88
Q

Glyburide, Glipizide, Glimepiride, Tolbutamide, Chlorpropamide

A

Sulfonylureas, stimulate insulin release from pancreas beta cells. AE: weight gain, hypoglycemia
C/I: sulfa allergy

89
Q

Repaglinide

A

meglitinides - bind K+ channels, increases insulin release

90
Q

Pramlintide (Symlin)

A

amylin-like peptide (synthetic analogue), only used as an insulin adjunct, can be used in Type 1 DM, injected, causes weight loss

91
Q

Glucagon injection

A

hyperglycemic agent to treat hypoglycemia in patients with sufficient glycogen stores, increases glucose levels. produced by alpha cells (pancreas)

92
Q

Acetaminophen

A

analgesic and antipyretic, but does NOT have anti-inflammatory properties

AE: hepatotoxicity

93
Q

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

A

tx muscle spasms, MOA - decreases somatic motor activity by inhibiting tonic activity of alpha and gamma motor neurons

AE - anticholinergic effects, caution for pts w narrow angle glaucoma

94
Q

Tramadol (Ultram)

A

analgesic, acts as an agonist at Mu opiate receptors (but not a true opiate), and inhibits serotonin and NE uptake in pain pathways

AE: dry mouth, sedation, dizziness, nausea, less miosis than true opiates

95
Q

Bacitracin

A

topical antibiotic, CWI, prevents the transfer of peptidoglycan into the bacterial cell wall, acts on gram +, tx blepharitis

often used in Neosporin or Polysporin with polymyxin B (for gram -)

96
Q

amoxicillin (Principen, Amoxil), ampicillin

A

oral extended-spectrum penicillin antibiotics, gram + and - , but not resistant to beta-lactamase (penicillinase), often paired with clavulanic acid to inhibit beta-lactamase activity (=Augmentin)

AE - ampicillin rash!

97
Q

dicloxacillin (Dynapen)

A

oral penicillinase-resistant penicillin antibiotic, gram + with some gram - coverage but not as much as extended-spectrum, tx - hordeloa, preseptal cellulitis, etc.

DOC - MSSA

98
Q

oxacillin, nafcillin, cloxacillin, methicillin

A

oral penicillinase-resistant penicillin antibiotics, gram + with some gram - coverage but not as much as extended-spectrum

DOC - MSSA

99
Q

MSSA

A

methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus

100
Q

MRSA

A

methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

101
Q

piperacillin, ticarcillin

A

antipseudomonal penicillins

102
Q

penicillin G, penicillin V

A

penicillin antibiotics, CWI, highest activity of the penicillins against gram + bacteria, but is susceptible to beta-lactamase/penicillinase

103
Q

cephalexin (Keflex)

A

oral 1st gen cephalosporin, high G+ activity, some G-, inhibits transpeptidase, tx - skin infections, dacryoadenitis/cystitis, preseptal cellulitis

104
Q

ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

A

IV/IM, 3rd gen cephalosporin, both gram + and - , inhibits transpeptidase, penetrates CNS, tx - gonorrhea, orbital cellulitis

C/I - neonates (bilirubin displacement), warfarin (excessive blood thinning)

105
Q

cefazolin (Ancef)

A

IV/IM 1st gen cephalosporin, high G+ activity, some G-, inhibits transpeptidase, DOC for sx prophylaxis

106
Q

cefaclor (Ceclor)

A

oral 2nd gen cephalosporin, G+ activity, some G-, inhibits transpeptidase

107
Q

cefuroxime (Zinacef)

A

IV/IM, 2nd gen cephalosporin, G+ activity, some G-, inhibits transpeptidase

108
Q

cefepime (Maxipime)

A

IV, 4th gen cephalosporin, antipseudomonal activity, broadest coverage, gram + and - , inhibits transpeptidase

109
Q

side effects for cephalosporins

A

GI - anorexia, nausea, diarrhea

superinfections, disulfiram-like reaction after alcohol consumption, allergy cross-reactivity, synergistic nephrotoxicity with aminoglycosides

110
Q

ceftazidime (Fortaz)

A

IV/IM, 3rd gen cephalosporin, both gram + and - , inhibits transpeptidase

111
Q

vancomycin

A

IM or po, exclusively gram +, prevents transpeptidation of peptidoglycan chains (not PBPs), DOC - MRSA, and C. diff superinfections

AE - Red man syndrome, oto- and nephrotoxicity

112
Q

gentamycin (Garamycin)

A

aminoglycoside, binds to 30S subunit, inhibits protein synthesis, effective against gram + and -, mostly aerobic G- , including Pseudomonas , bactericidal

113
Q

tobramycin (Tobrex)

A

aminoglycoside, binds to 30S subunit, inhibits protein synthesis, effective against gram + and -, mostly aerobic G- , including Pseudomonas , bactericidal

114
Q

streptomycin, amikacin, neomycin

A

aminoglycoside, binds to 30S subunit, inhibits protein synthesis, effective against gram + and -, mostly aerobic G- , bactericidal

115
Q

TobraDex

A

tobramycin 0.3% and dexamethasone 0.1%

tx - inflammatory ocular conditions w assoc bacterial infection such as marginal keratitis, corneal infiltrates

116
Q

side effects for aminoglycosides

A

oto- and nephrotoxicity, weakness, GI, allergy

caution with loop diuretics, cephalosporins, vancomycin, cidofovir, for doubling risk

ocular - SPK, delayed corneal re-epithelialization

117
Q

tetracycline

A

tetracycline antibiotic, inhibit protein synthesis, bacteriostatic, bind 30S subunit, broad spectrum

118
Q

doxycycline

A

tetracycline antibiotic, inhibit protein synthesis, bacteriostatic, bind 30S subunit, broad spectrum

119
Q

minocycline

A

tetracycline antibiotic, inhibit protein synthesis, bacteriostatic, bind 30S subunit, broad spectrum

120
Q

side effects of tetracyclines

A

C/I in pregnancy and children <8yo!

AE - pseudotumor cerebri, inhibited bone growth, discolouring of teeth, minocycline may cause blue sclera or pigmented cysts on the conjunctiva

121
Q

chloramphenicol (Chloromycetin, Chloroptic)

A

bacteriostatic, inhibits protein synthesis, binds 50S subunit, broad spectrum G+/-, aerobic and anaerobic, reaches CNS, restricted to life-threatening conditions due to “grey baby” syndrome and fatal aplastic anemia

122
Q

erythromycin

A

macrolide antibiotic, bacteriostatic, inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit, mostly gram + coverage

AE - drug interactions (CYP3A4), diarrhea/GI, QT prolongation (more azithro), ototoxicity

123
Q

azithromycin

A

macrolide antibiotic, bacteriostatic, inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit, mostly gram + coverage

AE - diarrhea/GI, QT prolongation, ototoxicity

124
Q

clarithromycin

A

macrolide antibiotic, bacteriostatic, inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit, mostly gram + coverage

AE - drug interactions (CYP3A4), diarrhea/GI, QT prolongation (mostly azithro), ototoxicity

125
Q

clindamycin (Cleocin)

A

anaerobic G+/- and aerobic G+, inhibits protein synthesis, binds 50S subunit, tx - osteomyelitis, MRSA

toxicity - C. diff! immediately stop and switch to vancomycin

126
Q

linezolid (Zyvox)

A

bacteriostatic antibiotic, aerobic G+, reversible nonselective inhibitor of MAO similar AE to MAOIs, drug interactions with antidepressants and risk for serotonin syndrome

127
Q

Bactrim

A

sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

128
Q

sulfisoxazole

A

bacteriostatic sulfonamide antibiotic, inhibits dihydropteroate synthase which converts PABA to dihydrofolic acid (1st step in folic acid synthesis), gram + and - , used to treat blepharitis or conjunctivitis but not as much anymore

129
Q

sulfacetamide

A

bacteriostatic sulfonamide antibiotic, inhibits dihydropteroate synthase which converts PABA to dihydrofolic acid (1st step in folic acid synthesis), gram + and - , used to treat blepharitis or conjunctivitis but not as much anymore

(Blephamide)

130
Q

sulfamethoxazole

A

bacteriostatic sulfonamide antibiotic, inhibits dihydropteroate synthase which converts PABA to dihydrofolic acid (1st step in folic acid synthesis), gram + and - , with trimethoprim in Bactrim

131
Q

sulfadiazine

A

bacteriostatic sulfonamide antibiotic, inhibits dihydropteroate synthase which converts PABA to dihydrofolic acid (1st step in folic acid synthesis), gram + and - , rx with pyrimethamine to tx toxoplasmosis

132
Q

side effects of sulfonamides

A

kernicterus in infants due to bilirubin accumulation (C/I during pregnancy), myopic shift, Stevens-Johnson syndrome

133
Q

trimethoprim

A

antibiotic, inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (2nd step in folic acid synthesis), gram + and - but not against Pseudomonas, makes up Polytrim with polymyxin B, and Bactrim with sulfamethoxazole

134
Q

pyrimethamine

A

antibiotic, inhibits dihydrofolate reductase (2nd step in folic acid synthesis), gram + and - but not against Pseudomonas, given orally for toxoplasmosis

135
Q

most potent ophthalmic antibiotics against MRSA

A

trimethoprim, tobramycin, then besifloxacin and vancomycin

136
Q

ciprofloxacin (Ciloxan, Cipro)

A

2nd gen fluoroquinolone, aerobic G+/- , inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, tx CL-related corneal ulcers, abrasions, bacterial conjunctivitis, etc. also gram - urinary infections

AE - tendinitis, C/I in pregnancy and children <18yo, inhibition of bone growth

137
Q

ofloxacin (Ocuflox)

A

2nd gen fluoroquinolone, aerobic G+/- , inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, tx CL-related corneal ulcers, abrasions, bacterial conjunctivitis, etc.

AE - tendinitis, C/I in pregnancy and children <18yo, inhibition of bone growth

138
Q

levofloxacin (Quixin)

A

3rd gen fluoroquinolone, aerobic G+/- , inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, tx CL-related corneal ulcers, abrasions, bacterial conjunctivitis, etc.

AE - tendinitis, C/I in pregnancy and children <18yo, inhibition of bone growth

139
Q

gatifloxacin (Zymar)

A

4th gen fluoroquinolone, anaerobic G+/- , inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, tx CL-related corneal ulcers, abrasions, bacterial conjunctivitis, etc.

AE - tendinitis, C/I in pregnancy and children <18yo, inhibition of bone growth

140
Q

moxifloxacin (Vigamox, Avelox)

A

4th gen fluoroquinolone, anaerobic G+/- , inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, tx CL-related corneal ulcers, abrasions, bacterial conjunctivitis, etc.

AE - tendinitis, C/I in pregnancy and children <18yo, inhibition of bone growth

141
Q

besifloxacin (Besivance)

A

4th gen fluoroquinolone, anaerobic G+/- , inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, tx CL-related corneal ulcers, abrasions, bacterial conjunctivitis, etc.

AE - tendinitis, C/I in pregnancy and children <18yo, inhibition of bone growth

142
Q

TB medications

A

rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol

143
Q

rifampin (Rifadin)

A

tx TB, inhibits mRNA synthesis by binding DNA-dependent RNA polymerase (rpoB subunit)

AE - hepatotoxicity, orange-pink secretions, drug interactions

144
Q

isoniazid (Nydrazid)

A

tx TB, CWI, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis

AE - hepatotoxicity, vitamin b6 deficiency - peripheral neuropathy, optic neuritis/atrophy

145
Q

Ethambutol (Myambutol)

A

tx TB, CWI inhibits arabinosyl transferase

AE - optic neuritis (pts on med should have periodic assessments of VA and R/G colour discrimination)

146
Q

oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

A

antiviral, tx influenza, inhibits viral neuraminidase and prevents spread of virus, needs to be given within 72 hours before viral load is too high

147
Q

zidovudine (Retrovir, AZT)

A

HIV therapy, is a nucleoside analogue of thymidine that acts as a potent inhibitor of viral RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (reverse transcriptase)

AE - bone marrow suppression, lactic acidosis, muscle breakdown

148
Q

ribavirin (Copegus, Rebetol, Virazole)

A

Hep C therapy (with interferon), inhibits viral RNA polymerase

AE - conjunctivitis common, can have retinopathy, teratogenic

RIBAViriN = RD, Ischemia (cws), Bleeding (hemes), Arterial and Venous occlusions, and optic Neuritis

149
Q

trifluridine (Viroptic)

A

topical antiviral, inhibits DNA polymerase, tx HSV-1 keratitis

150
Q

acyclovir (Zovirax)

A

systemic DNA polymerase inhibitors, tx HSV, VSV

AE - decrease dose in pts with kidney disease

151
Q

valacyclovir (Valtrex)

A

systemic DNA polymerase inhibitors, tx HSV, VSV

AE - decrease dose in pts with kidney disease

152
Q

famciclovir (Famvir)

A

systemic DNA polymerase inhibitors, tx HSV, VSV

AE - decrease dose in pts with kidney disease

153
Q

Ganciclovir (Zirgan)

A

ophthalmic gel, inhibits DNA polymerase, reduced corneal toxicity compared to trifluridine, tx HSV keratitis, also as an intraocular sustained-release tx in CMV retinitis

154
Q

foscarnet (Foscavir)

A

IV antiviral, DNA polymerase inhibitor, tx CMV retinitis

155
Q

amphotericin B

A

broad-spectrum antifungal, binds to ergosterol (fungus version of cholesterol), and forms pores causing cellular components to leak out and cause cell death, tx fungal keratitis

AE - nephrotoxicity in IV tx

156
Q

natamycin

A

antifungal, binds to ergosterol (fungus version of cholesterol), and forms pores causing cellular components to leak out and cause cell death, tx fungal blepharitis, conjunctivitis, keratitis

157
Q

nystatin

A

antifungal, binds to ergosterol (fungus version of cholesterol), and forms pores causing cellular components to leak out and cause cell death, not in ophthalmic use but for oral thursh and yeast infections

158
Q

norfloxacin

A

1st gen fluoroquinolone, aerobic G+/- , inhibits DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, tx UTIs

AE - tendinitis, C/I in pregnancy and children <18yo, inhibition of bone growth

159
Q

metronidazole

A

bactericidal antibiotic, G+/- , metronidazole metabolites are taken up into bacterial DNA and form unstable molecules, needs ferredoxin to work (only in anaerobes)

2nd choice for tx C. diff after vancomycin

160
Q

ketoconazole

A

antifungal, inhibits ergosterol synthesis, tx severe fungal corneal ulcers, systemic fungal infections, acanthamoeba

161
Q

fluconazole

A

antifungal, inhibits ergosterol synthesis, tx severe fungal corneal ulcers, systemic fungal infections, acanthamoeba

increasing resistance :(

162
Q

miconazole

A

antifungal, inhibits ergosterol synthesis

163
Q

griseofulvin (Grifulvin)

A

oral agent that inhibits fungal mitosis by interfering with microtubule formation during cell wall synthesis, tx - fungal skin or scalp infections

164
Q

chloroquine (Aralen)

A

MOA - causes a build-up of heme that is toxic to Plasmodium parasite that causes malaria. also inhibits phospholipase A to decrease inflammation

AE - bull’s eye maculopathy (first sign is RPE mottling at macula), whorl keratopathy

165
Q

risk of bullseye maculopathy increases with:

A
  • a dosage >3mg/kg of ideal body weight or 2.3 mg/kg of real body weight
  • tx duration >5yrs, abnormal renal function, high body fat %, age >60yo, liver disease, concomitant retinal disease
166
Q

lindane (Kwell)

A

tx lice and scabies, lipophilic structure that gets absorbed through exoskeleton of insects and causes death, causes conjunctivitis if used on lashes

167
Q

hydroxychloroquine

A

like chloroquine, inhibits phospholipase A2 and causes a build-up of heme, tx rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, malaria

AE - whorl keratopathy, bullseye maculopathy

168
Q

hydrocortisone

A

anti-inflammatory, tx adrenal insufficiency

169
Q

triamcinolone (Kenalog)

A

steroid injection, can be used for mac edemas, Graves’, posterior uveitis, chalazia, etc.

AE - elevated IOP, depigmentation if injecting eyelid

170
Q

fluticasone

A

intranasal corticosteroid, tx allergic rhinitis

171
Q

aspirin

A

NSAID, salicylate that inhibits Cox1 and Cox2 and so prostaglandins and thromboxanes, used as a fever and pain reliever, also reduces risk of recurrent heart attacks in pts with known heart disease

AE - GI effects, bleeding, Reye’s syndrome in peds

172
Q

indomethacin

A

NSAID, reversible Cox1 and Cox2 inhibitor,

173
Q

acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)

A

mucolytic agent that breaks disulfide bonds in proteins of mucus in order to reduce its viscosity. can be rx’d topically for filamentary keratitis, dry eye, or corneal burns

174
Q

pilocarpine

A

direct cholinergic agonist, opens corneal scleral pathway increasing aqueous outflow.

SE: RD, AAC, ASC, miosis, headache/brow ache

175
Q

direct cholinergic agonists

A

pilocarpine, acetylcholine, bethanechol, carbachol

“PABC”

176
Q

indirect cholinergic agonists

A

donepezil, echothiophate, edrophonium, pyridostigmine, isofluorophate, neostigmine

“DEEP IN”

177
Q

phenylephrine

A

a1 agonist, dilates and vasoconstriction (C/I in heart arrhythmia/HTN, Graves, people on MAOI or TCAs), blanches episcleritis, dx Horners, 10% breaks synechiae

178
Q

NE does not act on

A

beta 2

179
Q

brimonidine

A

a2 agonist (which is inhibitory) so decrease in aqueous production, and increase in uveoscleral outflow, neuroprotective

180
Q

apraclonidine

A

a2 agonist mostly but some a1 (weak but can be used to dx Horners), effect does not last long enough to be used chronically for glaucoma

181
Q

polysporin

A

bacitracin + polymixin b

antibiotic ointment

182
Q

polytrim

A

polymixin b + trimethoprim

183
Q

neosporin

A

neomycin + polysporin

Ocular Pharmacology (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions