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Buns HAC Study > NATOPS HAC Board Questions > Flashcards

NATOPS HAC Board Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What does NATOPS stand for and what is its purpose?

A

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization. The NATOPS Program is a positive approach toward improving combat readiness and achieving a substantial reduction in the aircraft mishap rate.

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2
Q

Define ‘Warning’

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury, death, or loss of aircraft, if not carefully observed or followed.

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3
Q

Define ‘Land as soon as Practicable.

A

Extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of the flight are at the discretion of the PIC.

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4
Q

Define ‘Caution’.

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.

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5
Q

Define ‘Land as soon as Possible’.

A

Execute a landing at the first site at which a safe landing can be made.

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6
Q

Define ‘Note’.

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that must be emphasized.

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7
Q

Define ‘Land Immediately’.

A

Execute a landing without delay.

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8
Q

Define ‘Shall’.

A

Is used only when application of a procedure is mandatory.

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9
Q

Define ‘Should’.

A

Is used only when application of a procedure is recommended.

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10
Q

Define ‘May’ and ‘Need Not’.

A

Are used only when application of a procedure is optional.

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11
Q

Define ‘Will’.

A

Indicates futurity and never indicates any degree of requirement for application of a procedure.

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12
Q

What are the Primary Missions of the MH-60R?

A
  1. Surface Warfare (SUW)
  2. Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW)
  3. Electronic Warfare (EW)
  4. Command and Control (CC)
  5. Non-Combat Operations (NCO)
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13
Q

What are the Secondary Missions of the MH-60R?

A

(1) Amphibious Warfare (AMW)

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14
Q

What is the maximum amount of passengers the MH-60R can take? Which configuration(s)?

A

Maximum of 3 passengers in the Logistics/VERTREP and SAR/MEDEVAC configurations.

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15
Q

What is the maximum amount of seats that may be occupied in any configuration?

A

Max is 4 occupied seats in any configuration.

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16
Q

What must be removed in order to install the starboard rear seat?

A

The dipping sonar must be removed in order to install the starboard rear seat.

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17
Q

What must be removed in order to install the center rear seat?

A

The dipping sonar, sonobuoy launcher, and the RAST probe must be removed in order to install the center rear seat.

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18
Q

What must be removed in order to install the port rear seat?

A

The dipping sonar and sonobuoy launcher must be removed in order to install the port rear seat.

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19
Q

What are the considerations to conducting SAR with an LHEP installed?

A

The LHEP significantly reduces FOV and success rate of obtaining visual contact with a survivor when performing SAR lookout duties from the SO window.

Consideration should be given to removing the LHEP to enhance probability of detection/sighting of the survivor.

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20
Q

Can the MH-60R be a dedicated SAR aircraft while configured for ASW with the ALFS installed?

A

It is not recommended that the MH-60R be dedicated as a SAR aircraft while configured for ASW with the ALFS installed due to confined cabin space.

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21
Q

What does litter installation prevent the use of?

A

Litter installation prevents the use of the Sensor Operator (SO) seat and the instructor seat.

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22
Q

Why is being dedicated as the SAR aircraft with the RHEP installed not recommended?

A

Due to the decreased area at the cabin door.

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23
Q

If either/both of the port or center rear seats is/are occupied, what SHALL be unoccupied and why?

A

If either/both of the port or center rear seats is/are occupied, the SO console seat shall be unoccupied AND secured in the full forward position.

This is due to the head strike hazard posed by the SO console seat in the event of a crash.

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24
Q

What type of seat can be installed in the instructor seat location? Why not any other type of seat?

A

Only the Simula seat shall be installed in the instructor seat location. Installation of other seats poses a head strike hazard in the event of a crash.

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25
Q

What SHALL not be occupied if the GAU-21 is to be placed in the inboard stow configuration? If it is occupied, what must be done with the gun?

A

The instructor seat shall not be occupied if the GAU-21 is to be placed in the inboard stow position.

The GAU-21 shall remain in the firing position if the instructor seat is occupied.

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26
Q

Why must the RAST probe be removed if the center rear seat is to be installed?

A

The RAST probe prevents proper stroking of the center rear seat in the event of a crash.

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27
Q

Which seat SHALL be unoccupied if conducting VERTREP?

A

The center rear seat.

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28
Q

What are some considerations regarding the Simula seat?

A

The Simula seat should be removed during flights not requiring its use, because when installed, it creates an egress hazard for aircrewman.

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29
Q

What is the nomenclature of the MH-60R front-drive turboshaft engines?

A

T700-GE-401C/D

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30
Q

What are the 5 sections of the engine?

A

Inlet, Compressor, Combustor, Turbine, and Exhaust.

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31
Q

What percentage of airflow is used for combustion? What is the remaining airflow used for?

A

Approximately 30% of the total airflow through the engine is used for the combustion process.

The remainder is used for the following:
1. Engine Oil Seal Pressurization
2. T2 (Compressor Inlet Temperature) Air
3. P3 (Compressor Discharge Pressure) Air
4. Combustor and Turbine Cooling

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32
Q

When the PCL is in LOCKOUT, which gauges are you manually controlling?

A

If the PCL is momentarily advanced to LOCKOUT and then retarded, the PCL is used to manually control Np and Ng.

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33
Q

In general, explain the relationship/functions of the HMU and EDECU?

A

In general, the HMU provides gas generator control while the EDECU trims the HMU to satisfy the requirements of the power turbine load.

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34
Q

What is/are deactivated and must be manually controlled when the PCL is placed in LOCKOUT?

A

TGT Limiting, Np Governing, and Load Sharing.

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35
Q

Which function does NATOPS explicitly state is still retained with a PCL in LOCKOUT?

A

The Np Overspeed Protection System is retained when in LOCKOUT via a direct link between the EDECU and ODV.

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36
Q

How do you “reset” (take out of LOCKOUT) a PCL?

A

To return the automatic engine control, the PCL must be moved to IDLE, then returned to FLY.

37
Q

What are the 5 criteria that trigger aborting an engine start?

A
  1. Ng does not reach 14% within 6 seconds after starter initiation.
  2. No oil pressure within 30 seconds after starter initiation (do not motor engine).
  3. No light-off within 30 seconds after moving PCLs to IDLE.
  4. ENG STARTER advisory disappears before reaching 52% Ng.
  5. TGT is likely to exceed 851 C before idle speed is attained.
38
Q

What is engine idle speed?

A

Generally, it is approximately 63% Ng. To determine if your engine idle speed is valid you need to determine OAT and plug it into the ‘Time to Idle/Idle Speed’ chart in NATOPS.

39
Q

What is required for overwater flight at night?

A
  1. LAWS (Low Altitude Warning System)
  2. Altitude Hold (RAD ALT or BAR ALT)
40
Q

What are the wind limitations for rotor engagement?

A

Maximum wind velocity for rotor engagement or disengagement is 45 knots from any direction.

41
Q

What are the limits for TGT?

A

0 to 810 C = Continuous = Green
810 to 851 C = 30 minutes = Yellow
851 to 878 C = 10 minutes = Red
878 to 903 C = 2.5 minutes = Red
903 to 949 C = 12 seconds = Red
949 C = Maximum = Red

42
Q

What are the limits for Nr?

A

<96% = Avoid = Red
96 to 101% = Continuous = Green
101 to 120% = Precautionary = Yellow
120% = Maximum = Red
123% = FCF Maximum = Red
127% = Overspeed Latch = Red

43
Q

What are the limits for Np?

A

<96% = Avoid = Red
96 to 101% = Continuous = Green
101 to 105% = Continuous = Yellow
105 to 117% = 20 seconds = Yellow
117 to 120% = 12 seconds = Yellow
120% = Maximum = Red

44
Q

When do Dual-Engine Torque limits apply?

A

Dual-Engine Torque limits apply when both engines are above 65% torque.

45
Q

What are the Dual-Engine Torque limits below 80 KIAS?

A

0 to 120% = Continuous = Green
120 to 144% = 10 seconds = Yellow
144% = Maximum = Red

46
Q

What are the Dual-Engine Torque limits above 80 KIAS?

A

0 to 106% = Continuous = Green
106 to 127% = 10 seconds = Yellow
127% = Maximum = Red

47
Q

What are the Single-Engine Torque limits?

A

0 to 135% = Continuous = Green
135 to 144% = 10 seconds = Red
144% = Maximum = Red

48
Q

What are the Transmission Pressure limits?

A

20 psi = Minimum = Red
20 to 30 psi = Idle and Transient = Yellow
30 to 65 psi = Continuous = Green
45 to 60 psi = Level Flight Continuous = Green
65 to 130 psi = Precautionary = Yellow
130 psi = Maximum = Red

49
Q

When should the transmission oil pressure be 45 to 60 psi?

A

During steady-state level pitch attitudes.

50
Q

What Transmission Oil Pressure conditions may indicate a degraded lubrication, but do not constitute an emergency situation?

What SHALL they be documented on?

A
  1. Steady pressure outside 45 to 60 psi, but within the normal limits of 30 to 65 psi.
  2. Fluctuations not to exceed a range of 10 psi, within the normal limits of 30 to 65 psi.
51
Q

Which two types of transmission oil pressure fluctuations are acceptable during transient pitch or steady-state nose-high pitch attitudes?

A
  1. Momentary fluctuations below 30 psi.
  2. Transient drops below 20 psi for up to 1 second.
52
Q

Operating with transmission oil pressure fluctuations below ___ psi SHALL be limited to ___ minutes.

A

30, 30

53
Q

What is indicated by a zero oil pressure reading during rotor engagement?

How long can you operate under this condition?

What must the HAC do after experiencing this?

A

During Rotor Engagement, a zero oil pressure indication may indicate a no-oil flow condition through the oil lubrication system.

Operating with a no oil pressure indication SHALL be limited to less than 1 minute and SHALL be documented on a MAF.

54
Q

What are the Engine Oil Pressure limits?

A

22 psi = Minimum = Red
22 to 26 psi = Precautionary = Yellow
26 to 100 psi = Continuous = Green
100 to 120 psi = Precautionary = Yellow
120 psi = Maximum = Red

55
Q

What are the Engine Starter limits?

A

At less than 16 C, you must disengage the starter for 60 seconds after the first three starter engagement cycles and after the fourth you must disengage for 30 minutes.

At 16 to 52 C, you must disengage 60 seconds after the first cycle and disengage 30 minutes after the second cycle.

56
Q

What is the definition of a start cycle?

A

Starter initiation, acceleration in Ng, and starter dropout/disengagement.

57
Q

Times for motoring are _________ within a 5 minute period.

A

5

58
Q

What are the Engine Motoring (with ignition off) limits?

A

At any temperature, the starter may be engaged for up to 2 minutes for the first motoring followed by a 5 minute disengagement period.

For the second motoring, the starter may be engaged for up to 2 minutes followed by a 30 minute disengagement period.

59
Q

During engagement, extended operations in the _________ and _________ ranges, may cause engine damage.

A

20 to 40%, 60 to 75%

60
Q

What is the Maximum (Vne) airspeed?

A

180 KIAS

61
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for Side/Rearward Flight?

A

35 KIAS

62
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for an Autorotation?

A

100 KIAS

63
Q

What is the maximum airspeed for Boost Off?

A

140 KIAS

64
Q

What is the maximum airspeed with SAS 1 and SAS 2 inoperative in IMC?

A

125 KIAS

65
Q

What is the maximum airspeed with either PRI SERVO PRESS caution?

A

125 KIAS

66
Q

What is the maximum airspeed with the Searchlight Out of Stow?

A

160 KIAS

67
Q

What is the maximum airspeed with the Searchlight in Transition?

A

100 KIAS

68
Q

What is the maximum airspeed and bank angle with the dome At/Above Trail?

A

70 KIAS / 45 deg AOB

69
Q

What is the maximum airspeed and bank angle with the dome Below Trail?

A

70 KIAS / 15 deg AOB

70
Q

What is the maximum airspeed when Opening/Closing the Cabin Door?

A

60 KIAS

71
Q

What are the limits for Ng?

A

0 to 102.2% = Continuous = Green
>102.2 to 106% = 2.5 minutes = Yellow
>106% to 107% = 12 seconds = Red
107% = Maximum = Red

72
Q

What are the limits for Transmission Temperature?

A

-50 to 105 C = Continuous = Green
105 to 120 C = Precautionary = Yellow
120 C = Maximum = Red

73
Q

Is maintenance action required if main transmission oil temperature is in the precautionary range for 5 minutes or less?

A

No, no maintenance action is required.

74
Q

What may cause main transmission oil temperature to rise into the precautionary range?

A

Prolonged hovering in hot weather (86 F / 30 C).

75
Q

Operation in the precautionary range for less than ___ minutes during any one flight in the precautionary range is acceptable and no maintenance action is required.

A

30

76
Q

What are the Engine Oil Temperature limits?

A

-50 to 135 C = Continuous = Green
135 to 150 C = 30 min = Red
150 C = Maximum = Red

77
Q

What are the acceptable in-flight uses of the APU?

A
  1. Emergency Procedures
  2. Single-Engine Training
  3. Practice Autorotations
  4. Powering the ECS in extreme temperature operations.
78
Q

With MTS installed, failure to maintain balanced flight below 90 KIAS in descents over 1,000 fpm will result in what?

A

Inaccurate and erratic airspeed indications.

79
Q

Per the External Load and Rescue Hoist Load Maneuvering Limitations chart, angle of bank is limited to ____@____,____@____,____@____,____@____,____@____, and ____@____.

A
  1. 10 deg @ 0 KIAS
  2. 12 deg @ 10 KIAS
  3. 15 deg @ 20 KIAS
  4. 17 deg @ 30 KIAS
  5. 20 deg @ 40 to 90 KIAS
  6. 10 deg @ 100 to 120 KIAS
80
Q

When is bank angle limited to 30 deg?

A
  1. Operations above 10,000 DA
  2. Either PRI SERVO PRESS caution illuminated
  3. Boost-off Flight
81
Q

What are the prohibited maneuvers listed in NATOPS?

A
  1. Aerobatic Flight
  2. Practice Full-Autorotation Landings
  3. Intentional Approaches into or inducement of Retreating Blade Stall
82
Q

What are the slope landing limitations?

A

a. 9 deg nose-up slope
b. 12 deg cross-slope
c. 6 deg nose-down slope

83
Q

What may occur when landing nose-down on a slope with the cyclic near the aft stop?

A

A low-frequency oscillation

84
Q

Maximum rate of descent for sloped terrain shall not exceed ____ fpm.

A

360

85
Q

Maximum rate of descent for level terrain SHALL not exceed ____ for gross weights less than 19,500lbs and ____ for gross weights above 19,500lbs.

A

720 fpm, 480 fpm

86
Q

Maximum touchdown speed SHALL not exceed ____ with tailwheel locked and ____ with tailwheel unlocked.

A

75 KGS, 20 KGS

87
Q

Maximum ground taxi speed is ____. If the shimmy damper is not installed or is inoperative, maximum ground taxi speed is ____.

A

40 KGS, 20 KGS

88
Q
A

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