CNAF HAC Board Questions

Question 1

Define Operational Necessity.

Answer 1

A mission associated with war or peacetime in which the consequences of an action justify accepting the risk of loss of aircraft and crew.

Question 2

List the requirements to be a HAC.

Answer 2

1. Have completed the requirements for and posses to an advanced degree, the knowledge, proficiency, and capabilities of a 2nd pilot.
2. Have a minimum of 500 total flight hours. Simulator hours flown as part of a formal helicopter syllabus may be credited for up to 10%.
3. Have 150 flight hours in rotary-wing aircraft.
4. Have pilot hours in class and model required by the CO or higher authority and demonstrate the proficiency and judgement required to ensure the successful accomplishment of all tasks of the unit mission.
5. Demonstrate ability to command and train the officers and enlisted members of the flight crew.
6. Demonstrate the qualities of leadership required to conduct advanced base or detached unit operations as OIC when such duty is required as part of the units mission or method of operation.

Question 3

Define Officer in Tactical Command (OTC) Embarked.

Answer 3

Wing, group, or squadron commander, if embarked on a mission involving aircraft of their command, retains full authority and responsibility regarding command, including the mission in which participating.

Question 4

Define Risk.

Answer 4

An expression of possible loss in terms of severity and probability.

Question 5

Define Hazard.

Answer 5

A condition with the potential to cause personnel injury or death, property damage, or mission degradation.

Question 6

Define Local Flying Area.

Answer 6

That area in the vicinity of an air installation in which locally-based aircraft can operate during an average/typical sorties flight time. It shall not exceed 350 nm from an air installation and be designated as such in the Air Ops Manual by the CO. If practicable, they shall be bounded by prominent terrain features/air navigation aid radials and distance.

Question 7

Define Local Flight.

Answer 7

A flight that remains within the local flying area and terminates at either the same facility or another military facility with which the originating station has direct station-to-station communications.

Question 8

Define an Actual Instrument Approach.

Answer 8

When actual instrument conditions are encountered below 1,000 feet above the airport/flight deck elevation during an instrument approach.

Question 9

Define Simulated Instrument Approach.

Answer 9

An instrument approach flown under simulated instrument conditions.

Question 10

Define Actual Instrument Conditions.

Answer 10

Conditions external to the aircraft in flight that do not permit visual reference to the horizon.

Question 11

Define Simulated Instrument Conditions.

Answer 11

Conditions external to the aircraft in flight are VMC, but pilot vision is limited primarily to the interior of the aircraft.

Question 12

Define Emergency Landing.

Answer 12

An immediate landing, on or off an airport, necessitated by the inability to continue further flight. Also referred to as a ‘Forced Landing’.

Question 13

Define Precautionary Landing.

Answer 13

A premeditated landing, on or off an airport, when further flight is possible, but inadvisable.

Question 14

Define Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC).

Answer 14

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from clouds, and ceilings, less than the minimums specified for VMC.

IMC exists anytime a visible horizon is not distinguishable.

Question 15

Define Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC).

Answer 15

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, cloud distance, and ceiling, that are equal to or better than specified minimums.

Basic weather conditions prescribed for flight under VFR.

Question 16

Define Pilot in Command (PIC).

Answer 16

The pilot assigned responsibility for safe and orderly conduct of the flight.

Question 17

Explain the PIC’s responsibilities.

Answer 17

1. Safe and orderly flight of the aircraft and well-being of the crew.
2. Must be the Mission Commander or Formation Leader when so designated.
3. In the absence of direct orders from higher authority cognizant of the mission, responsibility for starting or continuing a mission with respect to weather or any other condition affecting the safety of the aircraft rests with the PIC.

Question 18

Explain transference of PIC authority/responsibility.

Answer 18

The authority and responsibility of the PIC shall not be transferred during flight.

It shall not be transferred to another individual except as required by emergency, operational necessity, or as directed by the CO of the unit to which the aircraft is attached.

Question 19

Define CASEVAC.

Answer 19

The transportation of individuals, wounded or sick, in urgent need of medical attention by any combatant platforms which may or may not have medical care capabilities.

Question 20

Define MEDEVAC.

Answer 20

The transportation of individuals, wounded or sick, in urgent need of medical attention by dedicated non-combatant ground/air ambulances, properly marked and employed IAW the Geneva Convention and Law of War, designated with a Red Cross and associated medical equipment and personnel.

Question 21

Define TACEVAC.

Answer 21

TACEVAC encompasses both MEDEVAC and CASEVAC and is the third phase in the TCCC process in which casualties are moved from the hostile and austere tactical environment where they were injured, to a more secure location capable of providing advanced medical care.

Question 22

What is CNAF guidance on Intent?

Answer 22

Lack of intent does not in itself constitute absence of culpability. One can be so grossly negligent as to equate omission with commission. The question is whether the PIC or Formation Lead could reasonably have been expected to avoid the violation.

Question 23

What is CNAF guidance on jettisoning fuel?

Answer 23

Whenever practicable, fuel shall not be jettisoned or dumped below 6,000’ AGL.

Should weather or emergency conditions dictate jettisoning at a lower altitude, every effort shall be made to avoid populated areas.

When under positive control, the PIC should advise the ATC facility that fuel will be jettisoned.

Question 24

What is CNAF general guidance on Safety Belts and Shoulder Harnesses?

Answer 24

Each persons safety belt and shoulder harness hall be worn and tightened prior to takeoff and shall be worn until completion of the flight, except when necessary activities require temporary removal.

Inertia reels shall be manually locked for all takeoffs and landings and at all times when high g-forces may occur, except where the procedure is detrimental to safe operation.

The number of persons over 2 years of age embarked in naval aircraft for flight shall be restricted to the number for which there are adequate seats and safety belts.

During takeoffs, landings, and at other times as specified by the PIC, each person over 2 years of age on board transport aircraft shall occupy a seat or berth and be secured with a safety belt provided for that purpose.

Question 25

When may cabin seating requirements for helicopters be eliminated?

Answer 25

When operational environment or aircraft configuration or load requirements dictate for the accomplishment of essential training and operations with the following guidelines:

1. Applies to SPECOPS training and missions.
2. Applies to dedicated lifesaving efforts including humanitarian and SAR operations.
3. Not to be used for routine operational training or personnel transfers. Applies only when tactical or procedural requirements exist for a specific mission or exercise.
4. When seats are removed, passengers will be restrained by an appropriate alternate means.
5. If mission profile requires removal of seats/seatbelts/restraints for one part of the mission, then passengers will, if possible, use seats/seatbelts/restraints for all other phases of the mission.

Question 26

What are the Warning and Note associated with Safety Belts and Shoulder Harnesses in CNAF?

Answer 26

Warning:
Walkaround belts do not provide impact protection; therefore, use of those belts shall be restricted to only those occurrences when mission accomplishment requires persons to be out of their seat. Such belts shall not be worn when strapped into a seat.

Note:
Flight personnel leaving their seats to open a hatch or work in the vicinity of an open hatch shall wear an approved crewman aircraft belt (walkaround) during time spent out of the seat.

Question 27

Explain Non-Essential Flights

Answer 27

The use of aircraft for nonessential flights shall not be authorized. Any flight open to misinterpretation by the public shall be avoided. Examples of flights that are considered nonessential are as follows:

1. Flights of a routine business nature for which commercial or other military transportation could be more economically substituted.
2. Flights for any officer or groups of officers, the sole purpose of which is the convi8ence and/or prestige of the officers concerned and not the performance of official duties or accomplishment of bona fide training.
3. Repeated flights to the hometown area of flight personnel concerned.
4. Flights coinciding with major sports events or civic celebrations.

Question 28

Explain Flag or General Officer Embarked.

Answer 28

The PIC of an aircraft with a Flag or General Officer eligible for command at sea or in the field embarked as a passenger shall be subject to the orders of such Flag or General Officer in accordance with U.S. Navy Regulations.

When such an embarked passenger exercises authority to command the aircraft, that passenger thereby assumes full responsibility for the safe and orderly conduct of the flight.

The embarked passenger shall give due consideration to the judgement of the PIC regarding items of flight safety such as hazardous weather and aircraft/aircrew limitations.

Flying rule violations, accident reports, and any other actions arising out of the flight will be referred to the embarked passenger as the responsible commander of the aircraft.

Question 29

Can an OTC or Flag/General Officer physically pilot the aircraft?

Answer 29

OTC and Flag/General Officers shall not circumvent normal NATOPS qualification requirements in regards to physically piloting the aircraft.

Flights that require a NATOPS-qualified crew shall not be physically piloted by any individual not so qualified.

Question 30

What is CNAF guidance on deviation?

Answer 30

In the tactical environment, military exigency may require on-site deviations from instructions/procedures contained here.

The risk of deviation must continually be weighed against the benefit of deviating from this manual.

Deviation from specified flight and operating instructions is authorized in emergency situations when, in judgement of the PIC, safety justifies such a deviation.

Question 31

What is the Purpose/Scope of CNAF?

Answer 31

This manual prescribes general flight and operating instructions and procedures applicable to the operation of all naval aircraft and related activities.

This manual is not intended to cover every contingency that may arise and every rule of safety and good practice.

To achieve maximum value, the contents of all directives cited must be studied and understood.

Question 32

Who logs Actual Instrument time?

Answer 32

Actual Instrument Time will be logged by both pilots in a dual/multipiloted aircraft during flight in actual instrument conditions.

Question 33

Who logs Simulated Instrument Time?

Answer 33

Simulated Instrument Time shall be logged only by the pilot actually manipulating the controls.

Question 34

What are the 7 Critical Behavior Skills?

Answer 34

1. Decision Making
2. Assertiveness
3. Mission Analysis
4. Communication
5. Leadership
6. Adaptability/Flexibility
7. Situational Awareness

Question 35

What are the 3 Levels of ORM?

Answer 35

1. Time-Critical
2. Deliberate
3. In-Depth

Question 36

What are the 5 steps in the ORM process?

Answer 36

1. Identify Hazards
2. Assess Hazards
3. Make Risk Decisions
4. Implement Controls
5. Supervise

Question 37

What are the 4 guiding principles of ORM?

Answer 37

1. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
2. Accept no unnecessary risk.
3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning.
4. Make risk decisions at the right level.

Question 38

What are the minimums for a Standard Instrument Rating?

Answer 38

12 months prior to checkride:
a. 12 hours of ACT or SIM instrument time
b. 12 precision approaches
c. 6 non-precision approaches

6 months prior to checkride:
a. 6 hours of ACT or SIM instrument time
b. 6 precision approaches
c. 6 non-precision approaches

Question 39

Define Cross-Country Flight.

Answer 39

A flight that either does not remain in the local flying are or remains in the local flying area and terminates at a facility other than an active military facility.

Question 40

Define Orientation Flight.

Answer 40

A continuous-flight in DOD aircraft performed within the local flying area and terminating at the point of origin intended to further the understanding of particular programs concerning the roles and missions of the DOD.

Question 41

Define Aircraft Type.

Answer 41

The broadest classification of aircraft as to physical characteristics (i.e. fixed-wing, rotary-wing, or tilt-rotor).

Question 42

Define Aircraft Model.

Answer 42

The basic mission symbol and design number (e.g. P-3, S-3, F/A-18, and MH-60).

Question 43

Define Aircraft Series.

Answer 43

The specific version of aircraft within the same model (e.g. AV-8B, H-46D, F/A-18D/E/F, or MH-60R).

Question 44

Define Aircraft Class.

Answer 44

A broad classification as to the general mission purpose of an aircraft design.

(e.g. attack, fighter, helicopter, patrol, transport, VTOL, and UAV)

Question 45

What is ORM?

Answer 45

Operational Risk Management (ORM) is a systematic decision making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources.

ORM is a tool used to make informed decisions by providing the best baseline of knowledge and experience available.

Its purpose is to increase operational readiness by anticipating hazards and reducing the potential for loss, thereby increasing the probability for success to gain the competitive advantage in combat.