Myeloid disease and leukaemia Flashcards

Myeloproliferative disorders Myelodysplastic syndrome

1
Q

Briefly describe the pathophysiology of leukaemia

A

genetic mutation in one of the precursor cells in the bone marrow which leads to excessive production of a single type of abnormal white cell. Excessive production can lead to suppression of the other cell lines, causing underproduction- pancytopenia

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2
Q

Define pancytopenia

A

anaemia + leukopenia + thrombocytopenia

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3
Q

Three features of leukaemia presentation?

A

non-specific

  • fatigue
  • fever
  • pallor
  • petechiae, abnormal bruising
  • abnormal bleeding
  • lymphadenopathy
  • hepatosplenomegaly
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4
Q

Two differentials for petechiae

A
leukaemia
meningococcal septicaemia
vasculitis
HSP
ITP
non-accidental injury
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5
Q

Three investigations for leukaemia

A
FBC
Blood film
Bone marrow biopsy
CXR- infection, mediastinal lymphadenopathy
Lymph node biopsy
CT/PET/MRI for stagin
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6
Q

Name two types of bone marrow biopsy

A

Aspiration- liquid

Trephine- solid core (better sample but takes longer to analyse than aspirate)

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7
Q

Site of bone marrow biopsy?

A

iliac crest

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8
Q

Are leukemias myeloid or lymphoid in origin?

A

can be both!!

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9
Q

Which leukeaemia is associated with Down’s syndrome?

A

ALL

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10
Q

Which is the childhood leukaemia?

A

ALL

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11
Q

Name two genetic associations of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

A

t(15:17) translocation 30%

t(9:22) philadelphia chromosome 30%

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12
Q

In which leukaemia is the philadelphia chromosome most strongly associated with?

A

CML

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13
Q

Which leukaemia causes warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

CLL

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14
Q

In which leukaemia does Richter’s transformation occur in?

A

CLL, wherein it can transform to high-grade lymphoma

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15
Q

Which haematological condition shows smudge or smear cells?

A

CLL

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16
Q

In which condition does the philadelphia chromosome exist?

A

CML

17
Q

Which is the most common acute adult leukaemia?

A

AML

18
Q

Which leukaemia is associated with auer rods?

A

AML

19
Q

Which leukaemia results from a myeloproliferaivte disorder e.g. polycythemia vera?

A

AML

20
Q

Two complications of chemotherapy?

A
tumour lysis syndrome
infections
cardiotoxicity
secondary malignancy 
stunted growth and development in kids 
failure
21
Q

Two general management options for leukaemia?

A
Steroids
Chemo
Radiotherapy
Bone marrow transplant
Surgery
22
Q

Which chemo drug is used in CML?

A

imatinib

23
Q

In which leukaemia is there a chronic, accelerated, and blast stage?

A

CML

24
Q

Name three myeloproliferative disorders

A

Primary myelofibrosis
Polycythaemia vera
Essential thrombocythaemia

25
Q

Name the abnormal proliferating cell in the following myeloproliferative disorders: primary myelofibrosis
polycythaemia vera
essential thrombocythaemia

A

Primary myelofibrosis= haematopoeitic stem cell

Polycythaemia vera= erythroid cells

Essential thrombocythaemia= megakaryocyte

26
Q

Which cancer can myeloproliferative disorders transform into?

A

AML

27
Q

Mutations in which gene are associated with myeloproliferative disorders?

A

JAK2 mutation

28
Q

What is a complication of all myeloproliferative disorders?

A

myelofibrosis= bone marrow fibrosis, leading to anaemia and leukopenia

29
Q

Name three signs/symptoms of myeloproliferative disorders

A

systemic symptoms: fatigue, night sweats, fever, weight loss

Symptoms from complications: anaemia, splenomegaly, thrombosis, infections

30
Q

List three complications of myeloproliferative disorders

A
anaemia
splenomegaly
thrombocytopenia
thrombosis
luekopenia
31
Q

Name one feature on blood film of myelofibrosis

A

tear-drop RBCs and blasts

32
Q

Briefly describe the pathophysiology of myelodysplatic syndrome?

A

myeloid bone marrow cells don’t mature properly and therefore do not produce healthy resulting cells

33
Q

Name three complications of myelodysplastic syndrome relating to poor cell differentiation

A

anaemia
thrombocytopenia
neutropenia

34
Q

How to diagnose AML?

A

> 20% cells in BM are blast cells