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Elsa > MYCO VIRO PARA > Flashcards

MYCO VIRO PARA Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following terms is best described as the process of reproduction in yeast that begins with a weakening and outpouching of the yeast cell wall and then formation of a cell wall septum between the mother and daughter yeast cells?
    a. Binary fission
    b. Unisexual division
    c. Budding
    d. Outpouch germing
A

c

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2
Q
  1. The loose intertwined network of basic structural units of the molds that penetrates the substrate from which it obtains the necessary nutrients for growth is called which of the following?
    a. Hyphae
    b. Germ tubes
    c. Pseudohyphae
    d. Mycelium
A

d

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3
Q
  1. The term hyaline molds is used to describe which of the following?
    a. Molds that have septate hyphae
    b. Molds that have septate, nonpigmented hyphae
    c. The presence of pigmentation within the hyphae or the spores
    d. Molds with intercalated hyaline chlamydoconidia
A

c

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4
Q
  1. Large, usually multiseptate and club shaped or spindle shaped spores are called which of the following?
    a. Microconidia
    b. Macroconidia
    c. Conidiophores
    d. Phialides
A

b

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5
Q
  1. A Scotch tape preparation is made from a mold growing on solid media in the mycology laboratory. The structure shown in the image is best described as which of the following?
    a. Sporangium
    b. Blastoconidia
    c. Ascospores
    d. Conidiophore
A

d

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6
Q
  1. A patient with a Wood’s lamp–positive, dermatophytic infection has a skin scraping taken for culture. The organism grows on SDA agar with a light-tan front and salmon-colored reverse. Microscopically the organism produces rare distorted macroconidia and rare microconidia. Additionally, there was no growth on sterile rice media. What is the most likely organism?
    a. Microsporum canis
    b. Microsporum gypseum
    c. Microsporum audouinii
    d. Epidermophyton floccosum
A

c

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7
Q
  1. A KOH preparation of respiratory secretions of a 78-year-old man reveals large, spherical, thick-walled yeast cells 8 to 15 mm in diameter, usually with a single bud that is connected to the parent cell by a broad base. Which fungus will likely be isolated from the culture?
    a. Coccidioides immitis
    b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
    c. Histoplasma capsulatum
    d. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
A

b

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following is a key characteristic of Coccidioides immitis?
    a. Has a higher dissemination rate in white females
    b. Is endemic in the northeastern United States
    c. Produces endosporulating spherules in tissue
    d. Forms foot cells
A

c

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9
Q
  1. Using PAS to stain a respiratory specimen from a patient with lung disease, the technologists observed the organisms in the image. Based on the microscopic morphology shown in the image, the most likely identification of the dimorphic fungi is which of the following?
    a. Blastomyces dermatitidis
    b. Coccidioides immitis
    c. Histoplasma capsulatum
    d. Sporothrix schenckii
A

a

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10
Q
  1. A landscaper noticed a hard, unmovable lump under the skin of his index finger but decided to ignore it. A month later, the lump ulcerated to present a necrotic appearance, and two more lesions developed further up the wrist and forearm. A histologic stain of material from deep in the lesions showed elongated yeast cells resembling cigars. What disease is suspected?
    a. Mycetoma
    b. Sporotrichosis
    c. Chromoblastomycosis
    d. Blastomycosis
A

b

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11
Q
  1. A germ tube–negative yeast is isolated in the laboratory. The isolate is found to be negative for urease and unable to assimilate dextrose, maltose, or sucrose. CMT agar morphology showed blastoconidia only. The organism is most likely:
    a. Candida albicans
    b. Candida parapsilosis
    c. Torulopsis glabrata
    d. Geotrichum candidum
A

c

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is a key characteristic by which an unknown Cryptococcus spp. can be identified as Cryptococcus neoformans?
    a. Appearance of yellow colonies
    b. Positive urease test
    c. Presence of a capsule
    d. Positive niger seed agar test
A

d

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concerning the germ tube test is true?
    a. Using a heavy inoculum enhances the rapid production of germ tubes
    b. Germ tubes should be read after 2 hours of incubation at 25°C
    c. Candida albicans and Candida tropicalis can be used as positive and negative controls, respectively
    d. Serum will be stable for 1 year if stored at room temperature
A

c

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14
Q
  1. An immunocompromised patient exhibited fever, nonproductive cough, and shortness of breath. Routine and fungal cultures did not grow. The respiratory specimen was stained with a silver stain in anatomic pathology. Based on the microscopic morphology in the image, what is the most likely identification of this organism?
    a. Pneumocystis jiroveci
    b. Saccharomyces sp.
    c. Candida albicans
    d. Cryptococcus sp.
A

a

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15
Q
  1. A significant amount of yeast was isolated from a vaginal culture of a patient in the teen clinic of your hospital. It exhibited the following characteristics:
    Microscopic: Clusters of blastoconidia along pseudohyphae, terminal chlamydoconidia
    Positive germ tube
    Positive sucrose
    Which of the following is the most likely identification of this fungi? (Image from primary plate, gram-stained smear, 40x.)
    a. Rhodotorula rubra
    b. Candida albicans
    c. Geotrichum candidum
    d. Trichosporon beigelii
A

b

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16
Q
  1. The pharmacy at your hospital was concerned about the hyperalimentation fluid they were preparing. The high lipid contact was a concern for contamination. A PAS stain of the suspect fluid is shown. Which of the following organism would most likely demonstrate this morphology?
    a. Candida albicans
    b. Malassezia furfur
    c. Trichosporon cutaneum
    d. Scedosporium apiospermum
A

b

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17
Q
  1. Several important types of conidiation of dematiaceous fungi exist. The image is an example of which one of these forms? (Lactophenol cotton blue stain.)
    a. Cladosporium type
    b. Phialophora type
    c. Rhinocladiella type
    d. Rinderpest type
A

c

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18
Q
  1. A mold isolated in the laboratory displays a white cottony macroscopic morphology. On microscopic evaluation, hyaline, septate hyphae, and “toothbrush”-like conidiophres are seen. The most likely organism is which of the following?
    a. Aspergillus sp.
    b. Acremonium sp.
    c. Gliocladium sp.
    d. Scopulariopsis sp
A

b

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19
Q
  1. A mold is isolated in the laboratory that displays a velvety, gray-green colony morphology. On microscopic evaluation, flask-shaped conidiophores arranged in a brushlike formation are seen. The most likely organism is which of the following?
    a. Penicillium sp.
    b. Acremonium sp.
    c. Paecilomyces sp.
    d. Scopulariopsis sp.
A

a

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20
Q
  1. A patient who underwent solid organ transplant appears to have systemic fungemia. The organism that has grown from the blood cultures macroscopically had a blue-green color to the colony, matured in
    3 days, and grew well at 45°C. Microscopically, foot cells were seen and the phialides were uniserate with a round vesicle and columnar conidia. Which of the following is the most likely identification of this mold?
    a. Aspergillus fumigatus
    b. Aspergillus niger
    c. Scopulariopsis sp.
    d. Fusarium sp.
A

a

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21
Q
  1. The protein coat that surrounds the nucleic acid of a virion is called which of the following?
    a. Capsomere
    b. Capsid
    c. Capsule
    d. Nucleocapsid
A

b

22
Q
  1. During viral assembly, how are viral envelopes acquired?
    a. By production of envelope constituents by host cellular DNA
    b. As the virion buds from a host cell membrane
    c. Through replication of viral nucleic acid
    d. As host cell lysis produces many membrane fragments
A

b

23
Q
  1. Prions are best described by which of the
    following?
    a. Infectious viral RNA without capsid proteins
    b. Infectious protein with no associated nucleic acid
    c. Infectious viral DNA without capsid proteins
    d. Nonenveloped virus highly resistant to heat and chemical inactivation
A

b

24
Q
  1. The viral nucleocapsid always contains which of the following?
    a. Viral genome
    b. Virus-encoded glycoprotein
    c. Virus-encoded polymerase
    d. Viral envelope
A

a

25
Q
  1. Which of the following viruses are thought to predominately cause gastroenteritis?
    a. Hepadnaviruses
    b. Filoviruses
    c. Noroviruses
    d. Arboviruses
A

c

26
Q
  1. Which of the following groups contains the SARS virus?
    a. Calicivirus
    b. Coronavirus
    c. Flavivirus
    d. Filovirus
A

b

27
Q
  1. Which of the following groups of virus is best described as:
    ssRNA, enveloped,
    Pleomorphic/spherical capsid
    Large club-shaped spikes on surface gives “corona” effect
    Causes approximately 15% of coldlike illness
    a. Influenza A
    b. Influenza B
    c. Coronaviruses
    d. Pneumovirus
A

c

28
Q
  1. Which of the following is the specimen of choice for detecting rotavirus?
    a. Throat swab
    b. Urine sample
    c. Bronchoalveolar wash
    d. Feces sample
A

d

29
Q
  1. The test of choice and most sensitive assay for use with CSF to diagnose aseptic meningitis caused by enterovirus is which of the following?
    a. Cell culture
    b. PCR
    c. Antigenemia immunoassay
    d. Shell vial assay
A

b

30
Q
  1. A specimen from a genital lesion was inoculated into a standard set of cells for virus isolation. On day 1 the human foreskin fibroblasts exhibited the CPE shown in the figure. (color plate 16)
    a. Herpes simplex virus
    b. Adenovirus
    c. Cytomegalovirus
    d. Epstein-Barr virus
A

a

31
Q
  1. Trophozoite forms of amoebae are found in what type of stool specimen?
    a. Formed
    b. Loose
    c. Soft
    d. Watery
A

d

32
Q
  1. Which preservation method is most suitable and the most widely used for subsequent fixed smear preparation?
    a. Formalin-ethyl acetate
    b. PVA
    c. Trichrome
    d. MIF
A

b

33
Q
  1. If the ova of this parasite are ingested by humans, the oncosphere form can migrate through the body via the bloodstream, resulting in the condition known as cysticercosis. Which of the following is correct?
    a. Taenia solium
    b. Entamoeba histolytica
    c. Hymenolepis nana
    d. Clonorchis sinensis
A

a

34
Q
  1. Ova recovered from the stool are routinely used to diagnose infections caused by all of the following except?
    a. Necator americanus
    b. Ascaris lubricoides
    c. Trichuris trichiura
    d. Strongyloides stercoralis
A

d

The rhabditiform larval stage is the primary diagnostic stage for strongyloidiasis.

35
Q
  1. An MLS finds an E. coli cyst on a wet mount of a fresh stool specimen. Which of the following should be done?
    a. Request a second specimen
    b. Look for additional E. coli cysts
    c. Examine the remaining area of the wet preparation
    d. Generate a final report
A

c

36
Q
  1. Which of the following parasites have migration through the lungs as part of their lifecycle?
    a. Necator americanus, Ancylostoma duodenale, Strongyloides stercoralis
    b. Giardia lamblia, Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi
    c. Enterobius vermicularis, Trichuris trichiura, Trichinella spiralis
    d. Toxocara canis, Toxoplasma gondii, Blastocystis hominis
A

a

37
Q
  1. The image below is of a suspected parasite seen on direct examination of material taken from a corneal scraping in an ophthalmology clinic. The most likely
    identification of the parasite in this specimen is which of the following?
    a. Acanthamoeba sp.
    b. Enterobius sp.
    c. Paragonimus sp.
    d. Naegleria sp.
A

a

wrinkled, double-walled cyst

38
Q
  1. The organism shown below was recovered from the stool of a patient who resides in rural Texas. The most likely identification is which of the following?
    a. Ascaris lumbricoides
    b. Ancyclostoma duodenale
    c. Necator americanus
    d. Trichuris trichiura
A

d

39
Q
  1. The eggs in the figure below were found in the urine of a Peace Corp worker who had just returned to the United State after spending 2 years in the Middle East. The eggs measured about 160 mm long x 60 mm
    wide. Which of the following organisms is the most likely identity?
    a. Diphyllobothrium latum
    b. Schistosoma haematobium
    c. Schistosoma japonicum
    d. Schistosoma mansoni
A

b

40
Q
  1. A patient was diagnosed with cysts in his liver. He is originally from Australia, where he was involved in a sheep herding operation. The adult parasite shown below was passed by his pet dog. It measured 5 mm. What is the most likely identification of this organism?
    a. Diphyllobothrium latum
    b. Dipylidium caninum
    c. Echinococcus granulosus
    d. Taenia solium
A

c

41
Q
  1. These trophozoites were found in a trichrome-stained slide of a stool sample, measuring an average of 25 microns in diameter. Which of the following is the most likely identity of this organism?
    a. Endolimax nana
    b. Entamoeba coli
    c. Balantidium coli
    d. Dientamoeba fragilis
A

b

42
Q
  1. The cyst in the image below was observed in a stool sample of a child at a daycare center. The ovoid cyst measures approximately 10x8 microns. Which organism is the most likely cause of the child’s diarrhea?
    a. Chilomastix mesnili
    b. Cyclospora cayetanensis
    c. Giardia lamblia
    d. Iodamoeba butschlii
A

c

43
Q
  1. The image below is a cyst found in a human fecal smear. The cyst measured about 12 mm in length and contained four nuclei and a rounded chromatoid bar. The patient had severe diarrhea and some blood in the stool. What is the most likely identification of this organism?
    a. Endolimax nana
    b. Entamoeba coli
    c. Entamoeba histolytica
    d. Iodamoeba butschlii
A

c

44
Q
  1. Match the parasite with the most appropriate description.
    _____ Plasmodium falciparum
    _____ Plasmodium malariae
    _____ Plasmodium ovale
    _____ Plasmodium vivax
    a. RBC enlarged, oval, Schuffner’s dots, gametocytes seen by day 4 to 18
    b. Large RBC, troph irregular, multiple phases seen, gametocytes appear early
    c. Delicate ring forms, multiple rings per cell,
    crescent-shaped gametocytes after 7 to 10 days
    d. RBC normal in size and color, troph compact, band forms may be seen, gametocytes seen after weeks
A

a-c
b-d
c-a
d-b

45
Q
  1. Microfilariae found in the blood that have a sheath, demonstrate nocturnal periodicity and exhibit nuclei that do not extend to the tail tip are which of the following?
    a. Brugia malayi
    b. Onchocerca volvulus
    c. Loa loa
    d. Wuchereria bancrofti
A

d

46
Q
  1. Necator americanus rhabditiform larvae can be differentiated from Strongyloides stercoralis rhabditiform larvae by:
    a. Length of the notched tail
    b. Length of the head region
    c. Segmentation
    d. Size of the genital primordium
A

d

47
Q
  1. The image below is from a fecal smear of an individual complaining of diarrhea and intestinal discomfort. The parasites were numerous and quite variable in size, but the majority measured about 15 to 20 mm in diameter. What is the most likely identification of this organism?
    a. Blastocystis hominis
    b. Cyclospora cayetanensis
    c. Isospora belli
    d. Balantidium coli
A

a

48
Q
  1. Match the scientific name with the corresponding common name.
    _____ Sarcoptes scabei
    _____ Ixodes scapularis
    _____ P. humanus humanus
    _____ Cimex lectularius
    a. Body louse
    b. Bedbug
    c. Scabies
    d. Lyme disease
A

a-c
b-d
c-a
d-b

49
Q
  1. The only known human tapeworm with an operculum is:
    a. Diphyllobothrium latum
    b. Hymenolepis nana
    c. Giardia lamblia
    d. Schistosoma haematobium
A

a

50
Q
  1. Identify the following organism as it appears in this peripheral blood smear.
    It assumes a C, S, or U shape in blood. Each one is characterized by a central nucleus, a posterior kinetoplast, and a full-body undulating membrane.
    a. Trypanosoma sp.
    b. Leishmania sp.
    c. Wuchereria bancrofti
    d. Loa loa
A

a

Elsa (5 decks)

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