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CC Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a lipid?
    a. Chylomicrons
    b. LDL
    c. Cholesterol
    d. HDL
A

c

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2
Q
  1. In the laboratory procedure for the quantification of HDL, the purpose of the dextran sulfate is to:
    a. Precipitate all Apo A1 containing lipoproteins
    b. Covert cholesterol esters to cholesterol for detection
    c. Precipitate all Apo B and Apo A containing lipoproteins
    d. Precipitate all Apo B containing proteins
A

d

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following lipoproteins is the smallest of all the lipoproteins and is composed of 50% protein?
    a. HDL
    b. Chylomicrons
    c. LDL
    d. Triglycerides
A

a

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following would be most adversely affected by a nonfasting sample?
    a. HDL
    b. LDL
    c. Cholesterol
    d. Triglycerides
A

d

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following apoproteins is responsible for receptor binding for IDL and the chylomicron remnant produced in fat transport?
    a. Apo A1
    b. Apo C
    c. Apo E
    d. Apo B
A

c

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following enzymes is found bound to HDL and LDL in blood plasma and acts to convert free cholesterol into cholesteryl esters?
    a. Cholesterol esterase
    b. Cholesterol oxidase
    c. Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase
    d. Lipase
A

c

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following blood samples would serve best to assay lipoproteins because this anticoagulant acts to preserve lipoproteins?
    a. EDTA plasma sample
    b. Heparin plasma sample
    c. Citrate plasma sample
    d. Fluoride plasma sample
A

a

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8
Q
  1. Exogenous triglycerides are transported in the plasma in which of the following forms?
    a. VLDL
    b. Chylomicrons
    c. LDL
    d. Cholesteryl esters
A

b

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9
Q
  1. A patient presents to his physician for a lipid profile. The following results are received:
    HDL = 50 mg/dL
    Total cholesterol = 300 mg/dL
    Triglycerides = 200 mg/dL
    The calculated LDL cholesterol is:
    a. 200
    b. 210
    c. 290
    d. 350
A

b

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10
Q
  1. According to the National Cholesterol Education Program, which lipid or lipoprotein class is more important for therapeutic decision making (diet and medication decisions)?
    a. Chylomicrons
    b. LDL
    c. HDL
    d. Cholesterol
A

b

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following mechanisms accounts for the elevated plasma level of b-lipoproteins seen in hyperbetalipoproteinemia (Fredrickson’s type II lipoproteinemia)?
    a. Elevated insulin found in these patients
    b. Apo B-100 receptor defect
    c. Apo C-II–activated lipase deficiency
    d. LCAT deficiency
A

b

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12
Q
  1. Which enzyme is common to all enzymatic methods for triglyceride measurement?
    a. Glycerol phosphate oxidase
    b. Glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase
    c. Pyruvate kinase
    d. Glycerol kinase
A

d

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13
Q
  1. A patient sample is assayed for fasting triglycerides and a triglyceride value of 1036 mg/dL. This value is of immediate concern because of its association with which of the following conditions?
    a. Coronary heart disease
    b. Diabetes
    c. Pancreatitis
    d. Gout
A

c

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following apoproteins is inversely related to risk for coronary heart disease and is a surrogate marker for HDL?
    a. Apo A-I
    b. Apo B
    c. Apo B100
    d. APO E
A

a

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15
Q
  1. What is the most appropriate fasting procedure when a lipid study of triglycerides, total cholesterol, HDL, and LDL tests are ordered?
    a. 8 hours, nothing but water allowed
    b. 10 hours, water, smoking, coffee, tea (no sugar or
    cream) allowed
    c. 12 hours, nothing but water allowed
    d. 16 hours, water, smoking, coffee, tea (no sugar or
    cream) allowed
A

c

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16
Q
  1. John Smithers (21 years of age) is in to see his physician for a pre-college physical and checkup. John has always been extremely healthy. The following
    laboratory results are received:
    AStandard = 0.679 AControl = 0.650
    ASmithers = 0.729 CStandard = 200 mg/dL
    Control range 190-195 mg/dL
    John’s cholesterol concentration is approximately:
    a. 186 mg/dL
    b. 199 mg/dL
    c. 209 mg/dL
    d. 215 mg/dL
A

c

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17
Q
  1. Sucrose is considered a disaccharide that on hydrolysis yields which of the following sugars?
    a. Glucose
    b. Galactose and glucose
    c. Maltose and glucose
    d. Fructose and glucose
A

d

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18
Q
  1. Laboratory tests are performed for a postmenopausal, 57-year-old woman as part of an annual physical examination. The patient’s random serum glucose is 220 mg/dL, and the glycated hemoglobin
    (HbA1c) is 11%. Based on this information, this patient would mostly likely be classified as:
    a. Normal
    b. Impaired
    c. Having type 1 diabetes
    d. Having type 2 diabetes
A

d

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19
Q
  1. Which of the biochemical processes below is promoted by insulin?
    a. Glycogenolysis
    b. Gluconeogenesis
    c. Esterification of cholesterol
    d. Uptake of glucose by the cells
A

d

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20
Q
  1. Laboratory results for a patient with type 2 diabetes are as follows:
    Analyte Result
    Glucose 128 mg/dL
    Total cholesterol 195 mg/dL
    HDL 45 mg/dL
    LDL 105 mg/dL
    BUN 38 mg/dL
    Creatinine 2.1 mg/dL
    Microalbuminuria 54 mg/Ml
    AST 28 U/L
    ALT 38 U/L
    Which of the following statements is correct regarding this patient?
    a. Patient is at increased risk for cardiovascular disease
    b. Patient is at increased risk for diabetic nephropathy
    c. Patient is at increased risk for liver failure
    d. Patient is at risk for hypoglycemia
A

b

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21
Q
  1. At what serum glucose concentration would glucose begin to appear in the urine?
    a. 50 mg/dL
    b. 75 mg/dL
    c. 100 mg/dL
    d. 170 mg/dL
A

d

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following laboratory tests is the best marker to detect patients with diabetes who are at risk for developing diabetic nephropathy?
    a. Creatinine
    b. BUN
    c. Microalbuminuria test
    d. Glucose
A

c

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23
Q
  1. A 68-year-old obese woman visits her doctor reporting increased urination (especially at night), increased thirst, and increased appetite. Her glucose on examination was 210 mg/dL (fasting). Which of the following statements best fits with the given information above?
    a. The patient most likely has type 1 diabetes mellitus
    b. The patient would show a positive glucose in her urine
    c. The patient would have a decreased glycated hemoglobin
    d. Additional testing of this patient should include assessment of hypoglycemia
A

b

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following hemoglobin A1c results represents an impaired state according to the American Diabetes Association?
    a. 4.5%
    b. 5.5%
    c. 6.0%
    d. 6.5%
A

c

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25
Q
  1. A plasma glucose result is 100 mg/dL. The corresponding glucose in whole blood would approximate:
    a. 58 mg/dL
    b. 87 mg/dL
    c. 98 mg/dL
    d. 114 mg/dL
A

b

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following methods is virtually specific for glucose and employs G6PD as a second coupling step requiring magnesium?
    a. Hexokinase
    b. Glucose oxidase
    c. Glucose dehydrogenase
    d. Pyruvate kinase
A

a

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27
Q
  1. A 62-year-old patient presents to the physician with report of increased thirst and increased urination, particularly at night. The physician requests a series of tests over the next few days. The following data are received:
    Analyte Result
    Random glucose 186 mg/dL
    Fasting glucose 114 mg/dL
    2-Hour OGTT 153 mg/dL
    HbA1c 5.9%
    Which of the following conclusions may be made regarding these data?
    a. Data represents normal glucose status
    b. Data represents an impaired glucose status
    c. Data represents the presence of an insulinoma
    d. Data represents the diagnosis of diabetes
A
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28
Q
  1. Which of the following renal conditions is associated with a recent group A b-hemolytic streptococcus infection?
    a. Kidney obstruction
    b. Acute renal failure
    c. Uremic syndrome
    d. Acute glomerulonephritis
A

d

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29
Q
  1. The red complex developed in the Jaffe method to determine creatinine measurements is a result of the complexing of creatinine with which of the following?
    a. Alkaline picrate
    b. Diacetyl monoxide
    c. Sulfuric acid
    d. Sodium hydroxide
A

a

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30
Q
  1. The kidney is responsible for acid-base balance through the removal of H ions via four major mechanisms. Which of the following describes one of those mechanisms?
    a. Reabsorption of H ions in the proximal convoluted tubule
    b. Reaction of H ions with Na in the descending loop of Henle
    c. Reaction of H ions with filtered bicarbonate ions
    d. Reaction of H ions with ADH in the
    collecting ducts
A

c

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31
Q
  1. Given the data below, the calculated creatinine clearance corrected for body surface area approximates __________.
    Analyte Result
    Serum creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
    Urine creatinine 120 mg/dL
    Urine volume 1.75 L/day
    Surface area 1.80 m2
    a. 16 mL/min
    b. 115 mL/min
    c. 126 mL/min
    d. 210 mL/min
A

b

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32
Q
  1. Which formula is most accurate in predicting plasma osmolality?
    a. Na + 2(Cl) +BUN +Glucose
    b. 2(Na) + 2 (Cl) +Glucose + BUN
    c. 2(Na) +Glucose/18 +BUN/2.8
    d. 2(BUN) +Glucose/18 + Cl/2.8
A

c

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33
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding serum urea is true?
    a. Levels are independent of diet
    b. High BUN levels can result from necrotic liver disease
    c. BUN is elevated in prerenal as well as renal failure
    d. BUN rises earlier and quicker than creatinine in renal damage
A

c

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34
Q
  1. Osmolality can be defined as a measure of the concentration of a solution based on:
    a. The number of particles present
    b. The number and size of particles present
    c. The density of particles present
    d. The isoelectric point of a particle
A

a

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35
Q
  1. An increased osmole gap is most commonly seen in which of the following?
    a. Type 2 diabetes
    b. Pancreatitis
    c. Presence of toxins such as ethanol and ethylene glycol
    d. Liver failure
A

c

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36
Q
  1. A patient with type 2 diabetes is in for a routine examination with the physician. A series of laboratory tests are performed, including calculation of an eGFR. The patient’s calculated eGFR is 64 mL/min. This result is most indicative of:
    a. A normal state
    b. Abnormal glucose control
    c. Mild kidney damage
    d. Kidney failure
A

c

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37
Q
  1. A healthy 28-year-old female sees her physician for a routine examination and receives a “relatively” clean bill of health except for the results below.
    Total bilirubin 2.8 mg/dL
    Direct bilirubin 0.1 mg/dL
    Indirect bilirubin 2.7 mg/dL
    These results most likely indicate which of the following?
    a. Normal bilirubin metabolism
    b. Extrahepatic obstruction
    c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
    d. Gilbert’s disease
A

d

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following is measured using glutamate dehydrogenase and is a measure of advanced stages, poor prognosis, and coma in liver disease?
    a. Total bilirubin
    b. Ammonia
    c. Unconjugated bilirubin
    d. Urea
A

b

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39
Q
  1. In which of the following disease states would you see an elevation in total bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin only?
    a. Biliary obstruction
    b. Hemolysis
    c. Neonatal jaundice
    d. Hepatitis
A

a

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40
Q
  1. In which of the following conditions does no activity of glucuronyl transferase result in increased unconjugated bilirubin and kernicterus in neonates and eventual death within 18 months?
    a. Gilbert’s disease
    b. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
    c. Crigler-Najjar syndrome
    d. Intravascular hemolysis
A

c

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41
Q
  1. As a reduction product of bilirubin catabolism, this compound is partially reabsorbed from the intestines through the portal circulation for reexcretion by the liver. What is this compound?
    a. Urobilinogen
    b. Azobilirubin
    c. Biliverdin
    d. Urobilin
A

a

42
Q
  1. In the liver, bilirubin is conjugated in the presence of which of the following?
    a. b-Glucuronidase
    b. Bilirubin oxidase
    c. Uridine diphosphate (UDP)–glucuronyl transferase
    d. Peroxidase
A

c

43
Q
  1. Hepatocellular damage may be best assessed by which of the following parameters?
    a. Serum AST and ALT levels
    b. GGT and ALP
    c. Bilirubin, GGT, and ALP
    d. Ammonia and urea
A

a

44
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is caused by deficient secretion of bilirubin into the bile canaliculi?
    a. Gilbert’s disease
    b. Physiologic jaundice of the newborn
    c. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
    d. Hemolytic jaundice
A

c

45
Q
  1. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin?
    a. Biliverdin reductase
    b. Peroxidase
    c. UDP–glucuronyl transferase
    d. b-Glucuronidase
A

c

46
Q
  1. Which of the following analytes is the best indicator of hepatobiliary damage?
    a. AST
    b. ALT
    c. ALP
    d. Bilirubin
A

c

47
Q
  1. Which of the following fractions of bilirubin in high concentrations is associated with kernicterus in
    newborns?
    a. Delta bilirubin
    b. Unconjugated bilirubin
    c. Conjugated bilirubin
    d. Unconjugated and delta bilirubin
A

b

48
Q
  1. The characteristic laboratory finding in alcoholic cirrhosis includes:
    a. Moderate elevations in AST and ALT, normal GGT, and normal ALP
    b. Slight elevations in AST and ALT, marked elevations in ALP, normal GGT
    c. Slight elevations in AST, ALT, and GGT and
    marked elevations in 50 nucleotidase
    d. Slight elevations in AST and ALT (AST>ALT),
    marked elevations in GGT, slight elevations in ALP
A

d

49
Q
  1. Which of the following liver conditions shows an increase in both conjugated bilirubin and ALP, manifests with antimitochondrial antibodies, and shows a characteristic lipoprotein X on electrophoresis?
    a. Hemochromatosis
    b. Primary biliary cirrhosis
    c. Alcoholic fatty liver
    d. Hepatic tumors
A

b

50
Q
  1. Which set of results is consistent with uncompensated metabolic acidosis?
    a. pH 7.25, HCO3 15 mmol/L, PCO2 37 mm Hg
    b. pH 7.30, HCO3 16 mmol/L, PCO2 28 mm Hg
    c. pH 7.45, HCO3 22 mmol/L, PCO2 40 mm Hg
    d. pH 7.40, HCO3 25 mmol/L, PCO2 40 mm Hg
A

a

51
Q
  1. A patient with emphysema who has fluid accumulation in the alveolar sacs (causing decreased ventilation) is likely to be in which of the following acid-base clinical states?
    a. Respiratory alkalosis
    b. Respiratory acidosis
    c. Metabolic acidosis
    d. Metabolic alkalosis
A

b

52
Q
  1. Which of the following buffer systems is the most important physiologic buffer system in the body?
    a. Hemoglobin
    b. Protein
    c. Phosphate
    d. Bicarbonate/carbonic acid
A

d

53
Q
  1. To maintain electrical neutrality in the red blood cell, bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with which of the following?
    a. TCO2
    b. Sodium
    c. Chloride
    d. Phosphate
A

c

54
Q
  1. Increased PCO2 in a patient most commonly results in which of the following primary acid-base abnormalities?
    a. Respiratory acidosis
    b. Metabolic acidosis
    c. Respiratory alkalosis
    d. Metabolic alkalosis
A

a

55
Q
  1. Which of the following changes will occur with a blood gas sample exposed to room air?
    a. pH increased
    b. pCOO2 increased
    c. pO2 decreased
    d. Ionized calcium increased
A

a

56
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct collection and handling for the analysis of blood gases?
    a. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store on ice, assay within 1 hour
    b. Glass syringe, liquid heparin, store on ice, assay within 15 minutes
    c. Glass syringe, no additive, store on ice, assay within 15 minutes
    d. Plastic syringe, dry heparin, store at room temperature, assay within 15 minutes
A

d

57
Q
  1. What is the blood pH when the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) is 45 mm Hg and the bicarbonate is 28 mmol/L?
    a. 7.00
    b. 7.11
    c. 7.33
    d. 7.41
A

d

58
Q
  1. What is the normal ratio of bicarbonate to dissolved carbon dioxide in arterial blood?
    a. 1:10
    b. 10:1
    c. 20:1
    d. 1:20
A

c

59
Q
  1. Which of the following sets of blood gas data is considered normal?
    a. pH 7.33, HCO3 18 mmol/L, pCO2 32 mm Hg
    b. pH 7.30, HCO3 16 mmol/L, pCO2 28 mm Hg
    c. pH 7.45, HCO3 22 mmol/L, pCO2 40 mm Hg
    d. pH 7.40, HCO3 25 mmol/L, pCO2 40 mm Hg
A

d

60
Q
  1. Which of the following values would be seen in uncompensated metabolic acidosis?
    a. pH 7.38
    b. pCO2 52 mm Hg
    c. HCO3 15 mmol/L
    d. pH 7.53
A

c

61
Q
  1. Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap?
    a. Metabolic acidosis
    b. Metabolic alkalosis
    c. Respiratory acidosis
    d. Respiratory alkalosis
A

a

62
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best describes the
    predominant feedback system associated with
    endocrinology?
    a. Decreased levels of circulating hormones directly result in the production of hormone from the target organ
    b. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of releasing factor from the hypothalamus
    c. Increased circulating levels of hormones directly result in the production of inhibiting factor from the hypothalamus
    d. Normal levels of circulating hormones directly result in the production of hormone from the target organ
A

c

63
Q
  1. The following laboratory results are from a 54-yearold woman complaining of weight gain, intolerance to heat, fatigue, and not being able to stay awake.
    Analyte Result
    Na 140 mmol/L
    K 4.0 mmol/L
    Glucose 75 mg/dL
    Aldosterone 8 ng/dL
    Ionized Ca 4.8 mg/dL
    Mg 2.0 mEq/L
    Phos 3.0 mg/dL
    TSH 7.2 mU/mL
    FT4 1.0 ng/dL
    Cortisol 10 mg/dL
    Which of the following conditions best fits with the history and data?
    a. Hyperthyroidism
    b. Cushing’s syndrome
    c. Hyperaldosteronism
    d. Hypothyroidism
A

d

64
Q
  1. A 42-year-old woman presents to her physician with truncal obesity, bruising, hypertension, hyperglycemia, and increased facial hair. The physician suspects
    an endocrine disturbance. Significant test results are as follows:
    Analyte Result
    TSH 3.0 mU/mL
    FT4 1.0 ng/dL
    Glucose 90 mg/dL
    Serum cortisol (8 AM) 45 mg/dL
    Plasma ACTH (8 AM) 152 pg/mL
    Urine free cortisol Increased
    Dexamethasone suppression tests
    Overnight 300 nmol/L
    High dose >50% suppression
    What is the most probable condition?
    a. Pituitary tumor
    b. Addison’s disease
    c. Adrenal adenoma
    d. Ectopic ACTH production
A

a

65
Q
  1. Hypothyroidism is best characterized by which of the following sets of test results?
    a. TSH 0.2 mU/mL, FT3 8.9 pg/mL, FT4 4.5 ng/dL
    b. TSH 8.5 mU/mL, FT3 1.0 pg/mL, FT4 0.5 ng/dL
    c. TSH 0.1 mU/mL, FT3 1.1 pg/mL, FT4 0.8 ng/dL
    d. TSH 3.9 mU/mL, FT3 3.0 pg/mL, FT4 1.0 ng/dL
A

b

66
Q
  1. The release of thyroid-releasing hormone (TRH)
    would result in which of the following actions from the HPT axis?
    a. Decreased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the pituitary gland
    b. Increased release of thyroid-stimulating hormone from the thyroid gland
    c. Increased release of thyroid hormones from the thyroid glands
    d. Increased release of thyroid hormones from the pituitary gland
A

c

67
Q
  1. A serum thyroid panel reveals an increase in total T4, normal TSH, and a normal fT4. What is the most likely cause of these results?
    a. Increased thyroxine-binding protein
    b. Secondary hyperthyroidism
    c. Subclinical hypothyroidism
    d. Subclinical hyperthyroidism
A

a

68
Q
  1. Thyroid hormones are derived from which of the following?
    a. Histidine
    b. Cholesterol
    c. Tyrosine
    d. Phenylalanine
A

c

69
Q
  1. In patients with developing subclinical hyperthyroidism, TSH levels will likely be ______, and fT4 will likely be ______.
    a. Decreased, increased
    b. Increased, decreased
    c. Decreased, normal
    d. Increased, normal
A

c

70
Q
  1. A 30-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital. She has truncal obesity, buffalo humpback, moon face, purple striae, hypertension, hyperglycemia, increased facial hair and amenorrhea. The physician orders endocrine testing. The results are as follows:
    Analyte Result
    Urine free cortisol Increased
    Serum cortisol (8 AM) Increased
    Plasma ACTH Decreased
    Dexamethasone suppression test
    Overnight: No suppression
    High dose: No suppression
    What is the most probable condition?
    a. Addison’s disease
    b. Cushing’s disease
    c. Conn’s syndrome
    d. Cushing’s syndrome
A

d

71
Q
  1. Trophic hormones are produced by the ______, and releasing factors are produced by the ______.
    a. Hypothalamus; pituitary
    b. Pituitary; hypothalamus
    c. Specific endocrine glands; hypothalamus
    d. Pituitary; target gland
A

b

72
Q
  1. When free thyroxine cannot be measured directly, the free thyroxine index (FT4I) may be calculated by using which measured laboratory data?
    a. TSH and T3 resin uptake
    b. T4 and T3 resin uptake
    c. TSH and T4
    d. T3 and T3 resin uptake
A

b

73
Q
  1. The most commonly used challenge test to assist in evaluating a potential growth hormone deficiency is the:
    a. Insulin challenge test
    b. Dexamethasone suppression test
    c. Oral glucose tolerance test
    d. Captopril suppression test
A

a

74
Q
  1. Symptoms of primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s disease) include which of the following?
    a. Hypercortisolism
    b. Hypokalemia
    c. Hypertension
    d. Acidosis
A

b

75
Q
  1. A TRH stimulation test is performed, and a flat response is received from this test procedure. This most likely indicates:
    a. Secondary hypothyroidism
    b. Tertiary hypothyroidism
    c. Primary hypothyroidism
    d. Secondary hyperthyroidism
A

a

76
Q
  1. The first step in the synthesis of thyroid hormones is:
    a. Iodide trapping
    b. Binding of thyroglobulin
    c. Oxidation of iodine
    d. Oxidation of TG molecule
A

a

77
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is a result of catecholamine excess, includes two classifications (MEN 1 and MEN 2), and may result in death from severe cardiovascular complications?
    a. Cushing’s syndrome
    b. Conn’s syndrome
    c. Addison’s disease
    d. Pheochromocytoma
A

d

78
Q
  1. The main estrogen produced by the ovaries and used to evaluate ovarian function is:
    a. Estriol
    b. Estradiol
    c. Epiestriol
    d. Estrogen
A

b

79
Q
  1. The Michaelis-Menten theory states which of the following?
    a. E + S + I → ES +EI + ESI → E+P
    b. E + S ⟷ ES → E+P
    c. E + S + I → ES +EI → E+P
    d. E ⟷ ES → E+P
A

b

80
Q
  1. Which of the following enzymes is the best indicator of pancreatic function?
    a. AST
    b. ALT
    c. GGT
    d. Lipase
A

d

81
Q
  1. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of p-nitrophenyl phosphate to a colored p-nitrophenol product?
    a. AST
    b. ALT
    c. ALP
    d. GGT
A

c

82
Q
  1. One international unit of enzyme activity is the amount of enzyme that under specified reaction conditions of substrate concentration, pH, and temperature, causes usage of substrate at the rate of:
    a. 1 millimole/min
    b. 1 micromole/min
    c. 1 nanomole/min
    d. 1 picomole/min
A

b

83
Q
  1. A physician calls to request a CK test on a
    sample already in the laboratory for coagulation studies. The sample is 1 hour old and has been stored at 4°c. The plasma shows very slight hemolysis.
    What is the best course of action and the reason for it?
    a. Perform the CK assay because no interferent is present
    b. Reject the sample because it is slightly hemolyzed
    c. Reject the sample because it has been stored too long
    d. Reject the sample because the citrate will interfere
A

d

84
Q
  1. Which of the following statements regarding CK is true?
    a. Levels are unaffected by strenuous exercise
    b. Levels are unaffected by repeated intramuscular injections
    c. Highest levels are seen in Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy
    d. The enzyme is highly specific for heart injury
A

c

85
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions can “physiologically” elevate serum alkaline phosphatase?
    a. Hyperparathyroidism
    b. Diabetes
    c. Third-trimester pregnancy
    d. Nephrotic syndrome
A

c

86
Q
  1. Kinetic enzymatic assays are best performed during which phase of an enzymatic reaction?
    a. Linear phase
    b. Lag phase
    c. Plateau phase
    d. Any phase as long as temperature and pH are constant
A

a

87
Q
  1. A nurse calls the laboratory technologist on duty asking about blood collection for the analysis of enzymes (AST, ALP, ALT, GGT, CK). Which of the following tubes would you suggest the technologist collect?
    a. Red top
    b. EDTA
    c. Oxalate
    d. Fluoride
A

a

88
Q
  1. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the conversion of starch to glucose and maltose?
    a. Lipase
    b. Amylase
    c. ALT
    d. GGT
A

b

89
Q
  1. Hyperparathyroidism is most consistently associated with which of the following?
    a. Hypocalcemia
    b. Hypercalciuria
    c. Hypophosphatemia
    d. Metabolic alkalosis
A

c

90
Q
  1. What percentage of serum calcium is in the ionized form?
    a. 30%
    b. 50%
    c. 60%
    d. 80%
A

b

91
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the action of parathyroid hormone?
    a. PTH increases calcium and phosphorus reabsorption in the kidney
    b. PTH decreases calcium and phosphorus release from bone
    c. PTH decreases calcium and increases phosphorus reabsorption in the liver
    d. PTH increases calcium reabsorption and
    decreases phosphorus reabsorption in the kidney
A

d

92
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely to produce an elevated plasma potassium result?
    a. Hypoparathyroidism
    b. Cushing’s syndrome
    c. Diarrhea
    d. Hemolysis
A

d

93
Q
  1. Which of the following hormones involved in calcium regulation acts by decreasing both calcium and phosphorous?
    a. PTH
    b. Calcitonin
    c. Vitamin D
    d. Cortisol
A

b

94
Q
  1. Which of the following electrolytes is the chief plasma cation whose main function is maintaining osmotic pressure?
    a. Chloride
    b. Potassium
    c. Sodium
    d. Bicarbonate
A

c

95
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated with hypernatremia?
    a. Diabetes insipidus
    b. Hypoaldosteronism
    c. Diarrhea
    d. Acidemia
A

a

96
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions will elevate ionized calcium?
    a. Diabetes mellitus
    b. Hyperlipidemia
    c. Acidosis
    d. Alkalosis
A

c

97
Q
  1. The anion gap is useful (among other things) as an inexpensive measure of quality control for which of the following analytes?
    a. Blood gas analyses
    b. Sodium, potassium, chloride, and total carbon dioxide
    c. Calcium, phosphorus, and magnesium
    d. AST, ALT, GGT, and ALP
A

b

98
Q
  1. Psuedohyperkalemia is most commonly a result of which of the following?
    a. Metabolic acidosis
    b. Hemolysis
    c. Hyperaldosteronism
    d. Hyperparathyroidism
A

b

99
Q
  1. The following results were seen on a blood sample:
    Na+ = 140 mEq/L K+ = 15.0 mEq/L
    Cl- = 105 mEq/L HCO3 = 22 mmol/L
    The technologist should do which of the following?
    a. Report the results
    b. Repeat and check the chloride result
    c. Repeat and check the Na+ result
    d. Check the sample for hemolysis
A

d

100
Q
  1. The major intracellular cation is which of the following?
    a. Potassium
    b. Sodium
    c. Chloride
    d. Bicarbonate
A

a

Elsa (5 decks)

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