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CM Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The specific gravity of the glomerular ultrafiltrate is ____________.
    a. 1.000
    b. 1.010
    c. 1.025
    d. 1.040
A

b

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2
Q
  1. In an unpreserved urine specimen left at room temperature overnight, which of the following will have increased?
    a. Bacteria and nitrite
    b. Specific gravity and bilirubin
    c. Glucose and ketones
    d. Urobilinogen and protein
A

a

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3
Q
  1. A first morning specimen would be requested to confirm which of the following?
    a. Diabetes insipidus
    b. Fanconi’s syndrome
    c. Urinary tract infection
    d. Orthostatic proteinuria
A

d

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4
Q
  1. Failure to collect the last specimen of a timed urine collection will:
    a. Cause falsely increased results
    b. Affect the preservation of glucose
    c. Cause falsely decreased results
    d. Adversely affect reagent strip results
A

c

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is the principle of the reagent strip test for pH?
    a. A double indicator reaction
    b. The protein error of indicators
    c. The diazo reaction
    d. A dye-binding reaction
A

a

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the chemical principle of the protein reagent strip?
    a. Protein reacts with an immunocomplex on the pad
    b. Protein causes a pH change on the reagent strip pad
    c. Protein accepts hydrogen ions from an indicator dye
    d. Protein causes protons to be released from a polyelectrolyte
A

c

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is the principle of the reagent strip test for glucose?
    a. A double sequential enzyme reaction
    b. Copper reduction
    c. The peroxidase activity of glucose
    d. Buffered reactions of mixed enzyme indicators
A

a

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8
Q
  1. Glucosuria not accompanied by hyperglycemia can be seen with which of the following?
    a. Hormonal disorders
    b. Gestational diabetes
    c. Diabetes mellitus
    d. Renal disease
A

d

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following will cause ketonuria?
    a. Ability to use carbohydrates
    b. Adequate intake of carbohydrates
    c. Decreased metabolism of carbohydrates
    d. Excessive loss of carbohydrates
A

d

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10
Q
  1. Reagent strip reactions for blood are based on which of the following?
    a. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin
    b. Oxidation of hemoglobin peroxidase
    c. Reaction of hemoglobin with bromothymol blue
    d. Reduction of a chromogen by hemoglobin
A

a

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11
Q
  1. Myoglobinuria may be caused by which of the following?
    a. Decreased glomerular filtration
    b. Incompatible blood transfusions
    c. Strenuous exercise
    d. Biliary obstruction
A

c

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12
Q
  1. A patient with severe back pain comes to the emergency department. A urine specimen has a 1 + reagent strip reading for blood and a specific gravity of 1.030. This can aid in confirming a diagnosis of _________________.
    a. Pyelonephritis
    b. Appendicitis
    c. Renal calculi
    d. Multiple myeloma
A

c

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13
Q
  1. When a reagent strip is positive for bilirubin, it can be assumed that the bilirubin:
    a. Is conjugated
    b. Has passed through the small intestine
    c. Is attached to protein
    d. Is unconjugated
A

a

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following results would be seen in urine from a patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
    a. Bilirubin=negative, urobilinogen=negative
    b. Bilirubin=positive, urobilinogen=positive
    c. Bilirubin=positive, urobilinogen=negative
    d. Bilirubin=negative, urobilinogen=positive
A

d

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is the principle of the reagent strip test for specific gravity?
    a. Disassociation of the indicator bromothymol blue, producing a pH change
    b. Ionization of a polyelectrolyte, producing a pH change detected by bromothymol blue
    c. Disassociation of polyelectrolyte, producing a pH change detected by bromothymol blue
    d. Change in the pK of bromothymol blue to produce a pH change
A

b

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16
Q
  1. Yeast cells are primarily seen in urine with an:
    a. Acid pH and a positive protein
    b. Alkaline pH and bacteria
    c. Acid pH and a positive glucose
    d. Alkaline pH and a positive protein
A

c

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17
Q
  1. The presence of dysmorphic red blood cells in the urine sediment is indicative of which of the following?
    a. A coagulation disorder
    b. Menstrual contamination
    c. Urinary tract infection
    d. Glomerular bleeding
A

d

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18
Q
  1. The location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract in descending order is:
    a. Squamous, transitional, renal tubular
    b. Transitional, renal tubular, squamous
    c. Renal tubular, transitional, squamous
    d. Squamous, renal tubular, urothelial
A

c

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19
Q
  1. Urinary casts are formed in which of the
    following?
    a. Distal tubules and collecting ducts
    b. Distal tubules and loops of Henle
    c. Proximal and distal tubules
    d. Proximal tubules and loops of Henle
A

a

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20
Q
  1. These crystals were seen in the urine of a child who had ingested antifreeze. They are:
    a. Triple phosphate
    b. Calcium oxalate dihydrate
    c. Calcium oxalate monohydrate
    d. Calcium phosphate
A

c

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21
Q
  1. The test for which of the following results should be repeated?
    a. Positive blood and protein
    b. pH 7.0 with ammonium biurate crystals
    c. Positive nitrite and leukocyte esterase
    d. pH 5.0, WBCs, and triple phosphate crystals
A

d

22
Q
  1. Anti–glomerular basement antibody is seen with:
    a. Wegener’s granulomatosis
    b. IgA nephropathy
    c. Goodpasture’s syndrome
    d. Diabetic nephropathy
A

c

23
Q
  1. The most common composition of renal calculi is:
    a. Calcium oxalate
    b. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
    c. Cystine
    d. Uric acid
A

a

24
Q
  1. Pyelonephritis can be differentiated from cystitis by the presence of _________________.
    a. Eosinophils
    b. Hyaline casts
    c. White blood cell casts
    d. Bacteriuria
A

c

25
Q
  1. Children develop a form of nephrotic syndrome called:
    a. IgA nephropathy
    b. Henoch-Schönlein purpura
    c. Minimal change disease
    d. Acute glomerulonephritis
A

c

26
Q
  1. Focal segmental glomerular nephritis is associated with which of the following?
    a. Untreated streptococcal infections
    b. Heroin abuse
    c. Diabetes mellitus
    d. Autoimmune disorders
A

b

27
Q
  1. Which of the following would be most characteristic of chronic glomerulonephritis versus acute glomerular nephritis?
    a. Red blood cells and red blood cell casts
    b. Hyaline casts and mucus
    c. Waxy and broad casts
    d. Proteinuria
A

c

28
Q
  1. Which of the following results is not consistent with cystitis?
    Color: Yellow Protein: 1 + Blood: Trace
    Clarity: Hazy Glucose: Negative pH: 7.0 Urobilinogen: 1.0 EU Nitrite: Positive
    Specific gravity: 1.015 Ketones: Negative
    Bilirubin: Negative Leukocyte esterase: ++
    80-100 WBC/hpf 5-10 RBC/hpf
    15 renal tubular epithelial cells/hpf
    Many bacteria

a. pH
b. Protein
c. 5 to 10 RBC/hpf
d. 10 to 15 renal tubular epithelial cells/hpf

A

d

29
Q
  1. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced primarily by which of the following?
    a. Secretion by the choroid plexus cells
    b. Diffusion from the plasma into the central nervous system
    c. Ultrafiltration of plasma in the choroid plexuses
    d. Excretions from the ependymal cells lining the central nervous system
A

c

30
Q
  1. Three tubes of cerebrospinal fluid are submitted to the laboratory. They are numbered l, 2, and 3 and show blood in all tubes but decreasing in amount in tubes
    l through 3. This observation should be interpreted as:
    a. The tubes were numbered in wrong sequence, because an increasing amount of blood would be expected
    b. A traumatic or bloody tap and in all likelihood of no pathogenic significance
    c. The pathologic presence of RBCs and reported to your supervisor immediately
    d. A pathologic presence of RBCs, but because the RBC morphology is normal, the importance is minimal
A

b

31
Q
  1. An IgG index greater than 0.80 is indicative of which of the following?
    a. Synthesis of IgG within the CNS
    b. Alterations in the blood-brain barrier
    c. Active demyelination of neural tissue
    d. Increased reabsorption of IgG from the
    peripheral blood
A

a

32
Q
  1. Which of the following can decrease CSF protein?
    a. Fluid leakage
    b. Meningitis
    c. Multiple sclerosis
    d. Hemorrhage
A

a

33
Q
  1. CSF lactate is used to verify cases of which of the following?
    a. Multiple sclerosis
    b. Bacterial meningitis
    c. Reye’s syndrome
    d. Tertiary syphilis
A

b

34
Q
  1. Which of the following can be used to identify a fluid as CSF?
    a. Oligoclonal bands
    b. Xanthochromia
    c. Transferrin t protein
    d. Absence of glucose
A

c

35
Q
  1. Oligoclonal bands are significant in the diagnosis of multiple sclerosis when:
    a. They are seen in both the serum and CSF
    b. At least five bands are seen in the CSF
    c. They are seen in the CSF and not in the serum
    d. They appear in both the albumin and globulin
    fractions of serum and the CSF
A

c

36
Q
  1. Calculate the sperm count on a 3-mL semen specimen with a concentration of 12,000/mL.
    a. 4000/mL
    b. 12,000/mL
    c. 20,000/mL
    d. 36,000/mL
A

d

37
Q
  1. The most important sugar found in semen is ______________.
    a. Sucrose
    b. Maltose
    c. Fructose
    d. Lactose
A

c

38
Q
  1. The mucin clot test determines the presence of synovial fluid ______________.
    a. Protein
    b. Glucose
    c. Fibrinogen
    d. Hyaluronic acid
A

d

39
Q
  1. What is added to synovial fluid to determine the viscosity?
    a. Sodium hydroxide
    b. Acetic acid
    c. Hydrochloric acid
    d. Hyaluronic acid
A

b

40
Q
  1. Crystals that appear needle-shaped under polarized light and are yellow when aligned with the slow vibration of compensated polarized light are ______________.
    a. Monosodium urate
    b. Calcium pyrophosphate
    c. Hydroxyapatite
    d. Corticosteroid
A

a

41
Q
  1. The fluid that builds up between the serous membranes is ____________.
    a. A transudate
    b. An abscess
    c. An exudate
    d. An effusion
A

d

42
Q
  1. Which of the following sets of results most closely indicates a transudate?
    a. Clear, fluid-to–serum LD ratio: 0.8, fluid-to–serum protein ratio: 0.7, WBC count: 1000/mL
    b. Cloudy, fluid-to–serum LD ratio: 0.5, fluid to–serum protein ratio: 0.6, WBC count:
    1200/mL
    c. Cloudy, fluid-to–serum LD ratio: 0.8, fluid to–serum protein ratio: 0.7, WBC count: 2500/mL
    d. Clear, fluid-to–serum LD ratio: 0.45, fluid-to–serum protein ratio: 0.40, WBC count: 800/mL
A

d

43
Q
  1. The most likely cause of increased neutrophils is a pericardial fluid exudate is ______________.
    a. Tuberculosis
    b. Bacterial endocarditis
    c. Cardiac puncture
    d. Pneumonia
A

b

44
Q
  1. Pleural fluid is obtained by which of the following?
    a. Paracentesis
    b. Pneumocentesis
    c. Thoracentesis
    d. Pulmonary puncture
A

c

45
Q
  1. Which of the following tests is used to differentiate between an effusion caused by cirrhosis and one caused by peritonitis?
    a. Absolute neutrophil count
    b. Fluid-to–serum bilirubin ratio
    c. Serum-ascites gradient
    d. Serum to LD ratio
A

a

46
Q
  1. Amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity testing should be preserved ______________________.
    a. In the refrigerator
    b. At room temperature
    c. In a dark container
    d. At 37°C
A

a

47
Q
  1. Which of the following results of a test on the mother would suggest a possible neural tube defect in the fetus?
    a. A positive antibody screen
    b. A glucose value of 140 mg/dL
    c. An a-fetoprotein result of 0.1 MOM
    d. An a-fetoprotein result of 3.0 MOM
A

d

48
Q
  1. A pale, frothy stool is indicative of which of the following?
    a. Barium testing
    b. Osmotic diarrhea
    c. Steatorrhea
    d. Excess carbohydrates
A

c

49
Q
  1. The acid steatocrit test is performed to analyze which of the following?
    a. Grossly bloody stools
    b. Qualitative fecal fats
    c. Carbohydrate reabsorption
    d. Quantitative fecal fats
A

d

50
Q
  1. The most sensitive fecal enzyme test for the diagnosis of pancreatic insufficiency measures _____________.
    a. Lipase
    b. Trypsin
    c. Elastase I
    d. Chymotrypsin
A

c

Elsa (5 decks)

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