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MICRO Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Spores are found in select groups of bacteria. Which of the following statements describes the major advantage to the bacteria that possess these structures?
    a. Spores are resistant to heat, cold, drying, most chemicals, and boiling
    b. Spores allow an organism to better control its local environment
    c. Spores allow bacteria to attach or adhere to host tissues
    d. Organisms with spores have a more efficient exchange of genetic material
A

c

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2
Q
  1. Choose the binomial name that is correctly written.
    a. Staphylococcus Aureus
    b. Staphylococcus species aureus
    c. Staphylococcus aureus
    d. Staphylococcus aureus
A

c

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3
Q
  1. Fermentation end-products are often used to aid in the identification of bacteria. Fermentation results in which of the following?
    a. Conversion of glucose to pyruvate
    b. Lactic acid, mixed acids, alcohols, CO2
    production
    c. CO2 and water
    d. Specific teichoic acids
A

b

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4
Q
  1. The exchange of cellular DNA between two living bacterial cells that involves an intercellular bridge is which of the following processes?
    a. Transformation
    b. Transduction
    c. Plasmidization
    d. Conjugation
A

d

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5
Q
  1. Transduction is defined as which of the following?
    a. The change of the bacterial genotypes through the exchange of DNA from one cell to another
    b. An internal change in the original nucleotide sequence of a gene or genes within an organism’s genome
    c. The process by which genetic elements such as plasmids and transposons excise from one genomic location and insert into another
    d. A mechanism that is mediated by viruses, by which DNA from two bacteria may come together in one cell, thus allowing for recombination
A

d

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6
Q
  1. A mordant that is applied after the primary stain to chemically bond the alkaline dye to the bacterial cell wall is which of the following?
    a. Safranin
    b. Crystal violet
    c. Gram’s iodine
    d. Gram’s decolorizer
A

c

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following bacteria should be considered important pathogens when reading gram-stained smears of soft tissue abscess?
    a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    d. Staphylococcus aureus
A

d

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8
Q
  1. The most appropriate interpretation of a gram-stained smear of a sputum specimen would be which of the following? (gram-stained smear, 400x).
    a. Few epithelial cells, many PMNs
    b. Inadequate specimen, do not culture for anaerobes
    c. Many cells, many gram-positive cocci in pairs and chains
    d. More than 25 epithelial cells, probable oral contamination, suggest recollect
A

d

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9
Q
  1. 85% N2, 10% H2, 5% CO2 is the environmental condition that best suits which type of organism?
    a. Aerobes
    b. Anaerobes
    c. Capnophiles
    d. Microaerophiles
A

b

Microaerophilic: 5% O2, 10% CO2, 85% N
Anaerobic: 85% N2, 10% H2, 5% CO2

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10
Q
  1. Which medium can be described as containing bile salts and dyes (bromothymol blue and acid fuchsin) to selectively slow the growth of most nonpathogenic gram-negative bacilli found in the gastrointestinal tract and allow Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp. to grow?
    a. Thayer-Martin
    b. MacConkey
    c. PEA (phenylethyl alcohol)
    d. Hektoen
A

d

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11
Q
  1. Choose the group of bacteria that is described as catalase-positive, gram-positive cocci that grow facultatively anaerobic and that form grapelike clusters.
    a. Neisseria spp.
    b. Rothia (Stomatococcus) spp.
    c. Staphylococcus spp.
    d. Micrococcus spp.
A

c

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12
Q
  1. The slide coagulase test is a rapid screening test for the production of which of the following?
    a. Clumping factor
    b. Free coagulase
    c. Extracellular coagulase
    d. Catalase
A

a

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13
Q
  1. The first identification test performed on a clinical isolate of gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci should be which of the following?
    a. Penicillin test
    b. Gram stain
    c. Oxidase test
    d. Coagulase test
A

d

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14
Q
  1. The Staphylococcus sp. that is more likely to cause uncomplicated urinary tract infections in nonhospitalized hosts, especially sexually active young women, is which of the following?
    a. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
    b. Staphylococcus aureus
    c. Staphylococcus epidermidis
    d. Staphylococcus intermedius
A

a

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15
Q
  1. The toxic shock syndrome toxin-1 is an important virulence factor in staphylococcal disease. This toxin is classified into which of the following groups of toxins?
    a. Cytolytic toxin
    b. Leukocidin
    c. Phospholipase
    d. Enterotoxin
A

d

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16
Q
  1. Mannitol salt agar is selective and differential for which group of organisms?
    a. Staphylococcus spp.
    b. Enterococcus spp.
    c. Gram-positive cocci
    d. Streptococcus spp.
A

a

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17
Q
  1. Within 5 hours of returning home from lunch at your most favorite fast food restaurant you feel very sick and are vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
    a. Staphylococcus aureus
    b. Vibrio parahaemolyticus
    c. Shigella sonnei
    d. Escherichia coli
A

a

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18
Q
  1. The bacterial species that can be described as susceptible to bile and optochin, a-hemolytic, a major cause of bacterial meningitis, and often carrying an antiphagocytic capsule is which of the following?
    a. Enterococcus faecalis
    b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    c. Streptococcus pyogenes
    d. Streptococcus agalactiae
A

b

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19
Q
  1. The bacterial species that can be described as susceptible to penicillin and bacitracin, b-hemolytic, a major cause of bacterial pharyngitis, and often carrying an antiphagocytic M protein is which of the following?
    a. Enterococcus faecalis
    b. Streptococcus pyogenes
    c. Streptococcus agalactiae
    d. Viridans streptococci
A

b

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19
Q
  1. The rapid antigen detection methods for throat swabs used for screening patients for streptococcal pharyngitis can be best described by which of the following statements?
    a. They can be useful in quickly identifying most cases of streptococcal pharyngitis
    b. They are a quick way to rule out streptococcal pharyngitis and avoid giving antibiotics when not needed
    c. They are always very sensitive and specific for streptococcal pharyngitis
    d. They are a quick and accurate way to diagnose bacterial and viral pharyngitis
A

a

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19
Q
  1. The bacterial species that can be described as able to hydrolyze hippurate, b-hemolytic, a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and producer of the CAMP factor is which of the following?
    a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    b. Streptococcus pyogenes
    c. Streptococcus agalactiae
    d. Viridans streptococci
A

c

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19
Q
  1. The hemolysis of this Streptococcus spp. would best be described as which of the following? (color plate 2)
    a. β-Hemolysis
    b. γ-Hemolysis
    c. α-Hemolysis
    d. k-Hemolysis
A

c

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20
Q
  1. Enterococcus spp. can be differentiated from most Streptococcus spp. by which of the following tests?
    a. Growth in presence of 6.5% salt
    b. Production of catalase
    c. Production of coagulase
    d. Growth on PEA medium
A

a

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21
Q
  1. A pure culture of a b-hemolytic Streptococcus sp. recovered from a leg ulcer gave the following reactions:
    CAMP test = Negative
    Hippurate hydrolysis = Negative
    Bile esculin slant = No growth
    6.5% Salt = No growth
    PYR = Negative Bacitracin = Resistant
    Optochin = Resistant SXT = Sensitive

Which of the following is the most likely identification of this organism?
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Enterococcus faecalis
d. Streptococcus sp., not groups A, B, or D

A

d

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22
Q
  1. The ability to grow well at refrigerator temperatures is a characteristic of which of the following organisms?
    a. Mycobacterium gordonae
    b. Listeria monocytogenes
    c. Erysipelothrix
    d. Bacillus cereus
A

b

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23
Q
  1. A catalase-positive, gram-positive bacillus that is not acid-fast, does not branch, and does not form spores could possibly belong to which group of bacteria?
    a. Corynebacterium
    b. Bacillus
    c. Nocardia
    d. Mycobacterium
A

a

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24
Q
  1. A throat culture was taken from a 6-year-old boy with a gray pseudomembrane covering his oropharynx. A catalase-positive organism was isolated on cysteine-tellurite medium and subcultured to Tinsdale medium, where it grew as black colonies
    with brown halos. A Gram stain was performed on these colonies. Which of the following cellular morphologies was most likely seen?
    a. Gram-positive branching bacilli
    b. Gram-positive cocci in short chains
    c. Gram-positive bacilli in irregular clublike
    shape
    d. Gram-positive cocci in grapelike clusters
A

c

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25
Q
  1. A blood culture is positive for gram-positive bacilli that gave the following growth characteristics and biochemical reactions:
    MacConkey agar: No growth
    Catalase: Positive
    H2S on TSI: negative
    Growth of blood agar, nonhemolytic
    Nonmotile No spores
    These reactions are consistent with which of the following organisms?
    a. Listeria spp.
    b. Group B β Streptococcus
    c. Erysipelothrix spp.
    d. Corynebacterium spp.
A

d

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26
Q
  1. A skin lesion was opened and drained in surgery. The culture was positive for a gram-positive bacillus, which gave the following growth characteristics and biochemical reactions:
    MacConkey agar: No growth
    Catalase: Negative
    H2S on TSI: Positive
    Growth of blood agar, nonhemolytic
    Nonmotile No spores
    These reactions are consistent with which of the following organisms?
    a. Listeria spp.
    b. Group B b Streptococcus
    c. Erysipelothrix spp.
    d. Corynebacterium spp.
A

c

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following sets of tests provide the best differentiation of Erysipelothrix from Listeria monocytogenes?
    a. Gram-stained smear, oxidase, and optochin
    b. Gram-stained smear, catalase, and motility
    c. CAMP test, hydrogen sulfide production, esculin hydrolysis
    d. Reverse CAMP, gram-stained smear, β-hemolysis
A

c

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28
Q
  1. Neonatal meningitis is an uncommon but significant disease. Two important causes of
    this disease may be somewhat difficult to differentiate on preliminary observation. Which of the following sets of tests provide the best differentiation of Streptococcus agalactiae from Listeria monocytogenes?
    a. Gram-stained smear, oxidase, and optochin
    b. Gram-stained smear, catalase, and motility
    c. CAMP test, hydrogen sulfide production,
    b-hemolysis
    d. Reverse CAMP, gram-stained smear, β-hemolysis
A

b

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following tests is important as a part of the genus identification or as part of a preliminary identification but is not used as a confirmatory identification of Bacillus anthracis?
    a. Demonstration of a capsule
    b. Demonstration of spore formation
    c. Positive PCR test
    d. Lysis of the strain by specific bacteriophages
A

b

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30
Q
  1. Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus can be differentiated in the laboratory by a variety of different test results. Which of the following sets of tests best differentiate these two species?
    a. Catalase and glucose fermentation
    b. Motility and lecithinase production
    c. Oxidase and b-hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar
    d. Motility and b-hemolysis on 5% sheep blood agar
A

d

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31
Q
  1. Which of the following specimens would be best for identifying Bacillus cereus as the cause of an outbreak of food poisoning?
    a. Blood
    b. Rectal swabs
    c. Stool samples
    d. Food
A

d

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32
Q
  1. A first morning sputum sample is received for acid fast culture. The specimen is centrifuged, and the sediment is inoculated on two Lowenstein-Jensen slants that are incubated at 35°C with 5% to 10% CO2. After 1 week, the slants show abundant growth over the entire surface. Stains reveal gram-negative bacilli. Which of the following should be done to avoid this problem?
    a. Use a medium specifically designed for the
    growth of AFB
    b. Dilute out the sediment before inoculation with saline
    c. Decontaminate the specimen with NALC–
    sodium hydroxide mixture
    d. Incubate the tubes at room temperature to retard bacterial growth
A

c

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33
Q
  1. A patient recently arrived in the United States from Africa presents with a long-standing cutaneous lesion, which is cultured for bacteria, fungi, and AFB. An AFB smear is made and is reported as positive for AFB. After 8 weeks of culture on both nonselective and selective AFB media, no colonies appear. Which of the following organisms should
    be suspected?
    a. M. kansasii
    b. M. tuberculosis
    c. M. leprae
    d. M. avium-intracellulare complex
A

c

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34
Q
  1. The mycobacterial species that occur in humans and belong to the M. tuberculosis complex include which of the following?
    a. M. tuberculosis, nontuberculous Mycobacteria, M. bovis, and M. africanum
    b. M. tuberculosis, M. gordonae, M. bovis BCG, and M. africanum
    c. M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. avium, and M.
    intracellulare
    d. M. tuberculosis, M. bovis, M. bovis BCG, and M. africanum
A

d

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35
Q
  1. The Runyon system of classification is based on which of the following?
    a. Colony and microscopic morphology
    b. Biochemical characteristics
    c. Growth rate and colonial pigmentation
    d. All of the above are correct
A

c

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36
Q
  1. In identification of mycobacterial isolates, the Tween 80 test involves which of the following?
    a. An enzyme that is able to produce Tween
    80 from certain ingredients found in the
    medium
    b. Lipase that is able to hydrolyze polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate into oleic acid and polyoxyethylated sorbitol
    c. The metabolism of niacin to nicotinic acid by enzymatic action
    d. Testing the isolate for susceptibility to
    Tween 80
A

b

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37
Q
  1. The gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, citrate-positive, methyl red–positive, urease-negative, and H2S-positive is most likely which of
    the following?
    a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    b. Salmonella enteritidis
    c. Escherichia coli
    d. Shigella sonnei
A

b

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38
Q
  1. The swarming gram-negative bacillus that can be described as oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, and H2S-positive is mostly likely which of the following?
    a. Proteus aerogenes
    b. Proteus vulgaris
    c. Proteus mirabilis
    d. Escherichia coli
A

c

39
Q
  1. Profuse watery diarrhea (“rice water stools”), leading to dramatic fluid loss, severe dehydration, and hypotension that frequently leads to death, is the hallmark of which toxin activity?
    a. Cholera toxin
    b. Enteric endotoxin
    c. Shiga toxin
    d. Toxin A
A

a

40
Q
  1. The selective medium thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS) agar is especially formulated for isolating which pathogen from stool cultures?
    a. Vibrio spp.
    b. Salmonella spp.
    c. Shigella spp.
    d. Plesiomonas spp.
A

a

41
Q
  1. The majority of human infections with Campylobacter spp. are caused by which of the following?
    a. Direct contact with carriers of the bacterium
    b. Contamination of food, milk, or water with
    animal feces
    c. Multiplication of the organism in food products
    d. Direct contact with persons infected with the bacterium
A

b

42
Q
  1. In the test for urease production, the presence of the enzyme hydrolyzes urea to which of the following?
    a. Ammonia and CO2
    b. Putrescine
    c. Amines and CO2
    d. Amines and water
A

a

43
Q
  1. The bacterial isolate on XLD agar shown in the image was isolated from a routine stool culture. Which of the following genera and species is the most likely identification for this organism?
    a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    b. Salmonella enteritidis
    c. Shigella sonnei
    d. Serratia marcescens
A

b

44
Q
  1. The bacterial isolate shown below on CIN agar was isolated from a routine stool culture. Which of the following genera and species is the most likely identification for this organism? (color plate 5)
    a. Shigella flexneri
    b. Salmonella enteritidis
    c. Yersinia enterocolitica
    d. Escherichia coli
A

c

45
Q
  1. Decarboxylation of the amino acids lysine, ornithine, and arginine results in the formation of which of the following products?
    a. Ammonia
    b. Urea
    c. CO2
    d. Amines
A

d

46
Q
  1. An organism was inoculated into a TSI tube and gave the following reactions:
    Alkaline slant
    Acid butt
    H2S: Not produced
    Gas: Not produced
    The organism is most likely which of the following?
    a. Klebsiella sp.
    b. Shigella sp.
    c. Salmonella sp.
    d. Escherichia coli
A

b

47
Q
  1. The best specimen for the isolation of Bordetella pertussis is which of the following?
    a. Throat swabs
    b. Sputum
    c. Nasopharyngeal aspirates
    d. Anterior nose swab
A

c

48
Q
  1. Organisms belonging to the genus Brucella are best described by which of the following statements?
    a. Gram-positive diplococci
    b. Gram-positive diphtheroid bacilli
    c. Gram-negative coccobacilli
    d. Gram-negative bacilli
A

c

49
Q
  1. Serum samples collected on a patient with pneumonia demonstrate a rising antibody titer to Legionella. A bronchoalveolar lavage sample was collected and revealed a positive DFA test for Legionella, but no organisms were recovered from this specimen when it was cultured on the appropriate medium and incubated for 2 days at 35°C in CO2. Which of the following is the best explanation?
    a. Culture was not incubated long enough
    b. Antibody titer
    c. Specimen was incubated at the wrong temperature
    d. Positive DFA test result is a false positive
A

a

50
Q
  1. Of the following media, which provides the NAD necessary for the growth of Haemophilus spp.?
    a. 5% sheep blood agar
    b. Brain heart infusion agar
    c. Chocolate agar
    d. Nutrient agar
A

c

51
Q
  1. Performing the factor requirement test for Haemophilus involves which of the following processes?
    a. Inoculation of unsupplemented media with a light suspension of the organism and placement of factors X and V disks on the agar surface
    b. Inoculation of liquid media, unsupplemented and supplemented with factors X and V
    c. Detecting the presence of enzymes that convert aaminolevulinic acid (ALA) into porphyrins
    d. Growth of the organism in the presence of bacterial species that produce X and V factors as metabolic by-products
A

a

52
Q
  1. Of the asaccharolytic, oxidase-positive bacilli that do not grow on MacConkey agar, which one is among the HACEK group of bacteria known to cause subacute bacterial endocarditis?
    a. Eikenella corrodens
    b. Weeksella virosa
    c. Pseudomonas maltophilia
    d. Sphingomonas paucimobilis
A

a

53
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best completes the following thought: Presumptive identification of an oxidase-positive, gram-negative diplococcus on Thayer-Martin medium from genital sites of a 6- year-old female as Neisseria gonorrhoeae?
    a. Provides the physician with quick and reliable results at minimal cost
    b. May sometimes be incorrect, and a repeat culture should be collected
    c. May sometimes be incorrect and should not be reported until confirmed
    d. Should be done only when venereal disease is suspected
A

c

54
Q
  1. The bacterial species that can be described as oxidase positive, glucose positive, maltose-positive, sucrose negative, lactose-negative, and a major cause of bacterial meningitis is most likely which of the following?
    a. Neisseria meningitidis
    b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
    d. Viridans group Streptococcus
A

a

55
Q
  1. The bacterial species that can be described as oxidase positive, glucose positive, maltose-negative, sucrose negative, lactose-negative, and a major cause of venereal disease is most likely which of the following?
    a. Neisseria meningitidis
    b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    c. Streptococcus pyogenes
    d. Viridans group Streptococcus
A

b

56
Q
  1. Organisms belonging to the genus Neisseria are described as which of the following?
    a. Gram-positive diplococci
    b. Gram-negative diplococci
    c. Gram-negative coccobacilli
    d. Gram-negative bacilli
A

b

57
Q
  1. The following were observed when the Hugh-Leifson oxidative-fermentative test was performed on a bacterial isolate. Which of the options below best describes the organism’s reaction? (color plate 6)
    a. Oxidizer
    b. Nonoxidizer
    c. Fermenter
    d. Nonviable
A

a

58
Q
  1. The oxidase test is a critical test when attempting to identify nonfermenting gram-negative bacilli. This test is designed to determine the presence of which of the following?
    a. b-Galactosidase
    b. Cytochrome oxidase
    c. Glucose oxidizing enzymes
    d. Oxygen
A

b

59
Q
  1. The blood culture of a patient with a central venous catheter yielded a gram-negative bacillus growing on MacConkey agar with the following reactions:
    Oxidase= Negative Motility= Positive
    Glucose oxidative-fermentative
    open = Positive (weak)
    Maltose oxidative-fermentative
    open = Positive (strong)
    Catalase = Positive
    Esculin hydrolysis = Positive

Which of the following is the most likely identification of this organism?
a. Burkholderia cepacia
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Acinetobacter baumannii
d. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

A

d

60
Q
  1. Which organism is associated with the disease Melioidosis?
    a. Burkholderia ralstonia
    b. Burkholderia pseudomallei
    c. Burkholderia mallei
    d. Burkholderia cepacia
A

b

61
Q
  1. Differentiation of Stenotrophomonas maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia is best accomplished by which of the following tests?
    a. Oxidase test
    b. Maltose and glucose medium
    c. Tyrosine-enriched heart infusion agar
    d. Growth at 42°C
A

a

62
Q
  1. The respiratory culture of a patient with cystic fibrosis yielded a gram-negative bacillus with the following reactions:
    Oxidase = Positive Motility = Positive
    Glucose oxidative-fermentative
    open = Positive
    Gelatin hydrolysis = Positive
    Soluble green pigment on TSA slant
    Arginine dihydrolase = Positive
    Growth at 42°C = positive

Which of the following is the most likely identification of this organism?
a. Burkholderia cepacia
b. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
c. Acinetobacter baumannii
d. Stenotrophomonas xylosoxidans

A

b

63
Q
  1. Which test group best differentiates Acinetobacter baumannii from Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
    a. Oxidase, motility, nitrate reduction
    b. Growth on MacConkey agar, catalase, nitrate reduction
    c. Growth on blood agar, oxidase, catalase
    d. TSI, urea, motility
A

a

64
Q
  1. Which of the following sets of results represent the most common reactions for Moraxella catarrhalis when tested in CTA sugar tubes?
    a. Glucose: Negative; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative
    b. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative
    c. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Positive; Lactose: Negative; Sucrose: Negative
    d. Glucose: Positive; Maltose: Negative; Lactose: Positive; Sucrose: Negative
A

a

65
Q
  1. A soluble, bright green pigment can be produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This pigment is known as which of the following?
    a. Pyoverdin
    b. Pyocyanin
    c. Pyorubin
    d. Pyophena
A

b

Of the organisms listed, only Pseudomonas aeruginosa produces the pigment pyocyanin.

66
Q
  1. A small portion of a colony of a gram-negative bacilli was smeared onto a filter paper test system. One percent tetramethyl-p-phenylenediamine dihydrochloride was added. At 10 seconds, a dark purple color
    developed where the colony was added to the paper. Which of the following statements best describes the test results?
    a. Positive indole test
    b. Positive oxidase test
    c. Positive urea test
    d. Positive esculin test
A

b

67
Q
  1. Characteristics of Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma include which of the following?
    a. They exhibit the presence of a thin gram-positive–like cell wall with no cell membrane
    b. They demonstrate rapid growth on MacConkey agar, slow growth on basic nutrient agar
    c. The have only a cell membrane with no cell wall
    d. They exhibit rapid growth on MacConkey
    medium and routine blood agar plates
A

c

68
Q
  1. Which of the following is a cause of nongonococcal urethritis?
    a. Mycoplasma hominis
    b. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
    c. Ureaplasma urealyticum
    d. Mycoplasma orale
A

c

69
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most sensitive method for the diagnosis of Chlamydia trachomatis?
    a. Cytology
    b. Culture
    c. Nucleic acid amplification
    d. Serologic testing
A

c

70
Q
  1. An 8-year-old boy from Oklahoma presents with a 3-day history of fever, headache, and muscle aches. A rash first noted this morning on his ankles and wrists has now spread to include his trunk. The medical team has identified a list of possible organisms. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this infection?
    a. Q Fever
    b. Ehrlichiosis
    c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
    d. Cat scratch disease
A

c

71
Q
  1. Which of the following is a stage of venereal syphilis that is characterized by the appearance of a chancre?
    a. Primary syphilis
    b. Secondary syphilis
    c. Late syphilis
    d. Tertiary syphilis
A

a

72
Q
  1. Which of the following is a nontreponemal serologic test in which soluble antigen particles are coalesced
    to form larger particles that are visible as clumps when they are aggregated by antibody?
    a. Nontreponemal flocculation (NTF)
    b. Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption
    (FTA-ABS) test
    c. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory
    (VDRL) test
    d. T. pallidum particle agglutination (TP-PA) test
A

c

73
Q
  1. A patient in a rural area of Massachusetts had a 5-cm red rash with an expanding margin on his back. The lesion was obvious for approximately a month and then resolved. Several weeks later, the patient experienced episodes of partial facial paralysis and painful joints. Which of the following is the most likely infectious agent in this case?
    a. Borrelia hermsii
    b. Borrelia burgdorferi
    c. Leptospira interrogans
    d. Spirillum minor
A

b

74
Q
  1. A 16-year-old, sexually active patient comes to his physician’s office because of a circular, 1-cm lesion in the groin area which is ulcerated but not painful. A rapid plasma reagin test is performed and is reactive with a titer of 1:16. Culture and gram-stain smear results from an exudate of the lesion are negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this lesion?
    a. Chlamydia trachomatis
    b. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
    c. Treponema pallidum
    d. Haemophilus ducreyi
A

c

75
Q
  1. The gram-stained smear shows an organism isolated from a blood culture after bowel surgery. Under anaerobic incubation conditions, it grew as smooth, white, nonhemolytic colonies. The organism was not inhibited by colistin, kanamycin, or vancomycin and hydrolyzed esculin. The most likely identification of this isolate is which of the following?
    a. Fusobacterium nucleatum
    b. Fusobacterium varium
    c. Bacteroides fragilis
    d. Prevotella melaninogenica
A

c

76
Q
  1. Pseudomembranous colitis caused by Clostridium difficile is best confirmed by which of the following laboratory findings?
    a. Presence of the toxin in stool
    b. Isolation of C. difficile from stool
    c. Gas production in thioglycolate media
    d. Gram stain of stool showing many gram-positive bacilli
A

a

77
Q
  1. Lecithinase production, double zone hemolysis on sheep blood agar, and gram-stained morphology are all useful criteria in the identification of which of the following?
    a. Clostridium perfringens
    b. Streptococcus agalactiae
    c. Escherichia coli
    d. Clostridium tetani
A

a

78
Q
  1. When activating a hydrogen and carbon dioxide generator system used for creating an anaerobic atmosphere, which of the following is an indication that the catalyst and generator envelope are functioning
    properly?
    a. A decrease in temperature of the jar
    b. Bubble formation on the surface of the plates
    c. A change in color of the methylene blue indicator
    d. The formation of a visible cloud of gas
A

c

79
Q
  1. In a clinical specimen, the presence of sulfur granules strongly indicates the presence of which anaerobic bacterium?
    a. Bacteroides fragilis
    b. Actinomyces spp.
    c. Fusobacterium nucleatum
    d. Clostridium tetani
A

b

80
Q
  1. Which of the following are a common element between using the E test and agar disk diffusion (Kirby-Bauer) for antimicrobial susceptibility testing?
    a. Both establish an antibiotic gradient in agar
    b. Both create a circular zone of bacterial
    inhibition
    c. Expression of results is by MIC for both
    d. The cost of the test is similar per drug
A

a

81
Q
  1. Which of the following clinical indications would most benefit from having quantitative (MIC) testing rather than qualitative (Sensitive, Intermediate, Resistant catagories) data from the laboratory?
    a. Urinary tract infection
    b. Bacterial meningitis
    c. Pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma
    d. Streptococcal pharyngitis
A

b

82
Q
  1. When performing antimicrobial susceptibility testing, the following definition of the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) is correct:
    a. The highest concentration of an antibiotic in a dilution series that inhibits growth
    b. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic in a dilution series that inhibits growth
    c. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic in a dilution series that kills the bacteria
    d. The lowest concentration of the antibiotic obtainable in the patient without toxicity
A

b

83
Q
  1. In comparing quantitative MIC dilution testing to qualitative agar disk diffusion testing, the higher the MIC of the drug for that organism:
    a. The smaller is the zone of inhibition
    b. The more susceptible the organism will appear on disk diffusion
    c. The larger is the zone of inhibition
    d. The more toxic is the drug to the patient
A

c

84
Q
  1. In a quality control (QC) procedure on a new batch of Mueller-Hinton plates using a standard QC stock strain of Staphylococcus aureus, the disk inhibition zone sizes for three of the drugs tested were too small and fell below the expected QC range. Which of the following is the most likely reason for
    this observation?
    a. These three antibiotic disks were outdated and had lost potency
    b. These three disks were faulty in that the antibiotic content was too high
    c. Bacterial suspension of Staphylococcus was probably contaminated with another organism
    d. The plates received insufficient incubation time
A

a

85
Q
  1. Which of the following definitions best fit the term urethritis?
    a. Infection and or inflammation of the terminal portion of the lower urinary tract
    b. The isolation of a specified quantitative count of bacteria in an appropriately collected urine specimen obtained from a person without symptoms or signs of urinary infection
    c. Dysuria, frequency, and urgency but yielding fewer organisms than 105 colony-forming units of bacteria per milliliter (CFU/mL) urine on culture
    d. Inflammation of the kidney parenchyma, calices (cup-shaped division of the renal pelvis), and pelvis
A

a

86
Q
  1. The organism most commonly associated with otitis media infections is associated with which of the following positive test results?
    a. Coagulase
    b. VP
    c. Optochin
    d. Bacitracin
A

c

Streptococcus pneumoniae commonly associated with Otitis Media; its identification includes the Optochin test.

87
Q
  1. Which organism is most often responsible for impetigo?
    a. Staphylococcus epidermidis
    b. Streptococcus pyogenes
    c. Enterococcus faecalis
    d. Streptococcus agalactiae
A

b

88
Q
  1. How do staphylococci spread so easily when infecting the skin?
    a. They produce hyaluronidase, which hydrolyzes hyaluronic acid present in the intracellular ground substance that makes up connective tissue
    b. They produce lipase, which melts the fat under the skin, making it easier to spread
    c. The hemolysins kill the white and red blood cells; then the protease liquefies the skin protein, allowing easy penetration for the bacteria
    d. All of the above
A

a

89
Q
  1. Routine culture media for use with a specimen of cerebrospinal fluid should include which of the following sets of media?
    a. 5% sheep blood agar, Lowenstein Jensen agar, 7H9 agar
    b. 5% sheep blood agar, thioglycolate broth
    c. 5% sheep blood agar, MacConkey agar,
    Sabourad dextrose agar
    d. 5% sheep blood agar, chocolate agar, thioglycolate broth
A

d

90
Q
  1. A college student is examined at the emergency department; he is disoriented with a fever, intense headache, stiff neck, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. His friends say that he has been sick for about 2 days and that his condition worsened over the last 3 hours. The physician does a complete blood count (CBC) and electrolytes. The electrolytes are normal, but the patient’s white blood count (WBC) is 12,000 cells/L. What test should the doctor order next?
    a. Urine culture
    b. Stool culture
    c. Cerebrospinal fluid Gram stain and culture
    d. Blood culture
A

c

91
Q
  1. What cells are found in bacterial vaginosis?
    a. Clue cells
    b. Lymphocytes
    c. Macrophages
    d. Squamous epithelial cells
A

a

92
Q
  1. Which of the following terms is used to describe an increase of lymphocytes and other mononuclear cells (pleocytosis) in the cerebrospinal fluid and negative bacterial and fungal cultures?
    a. Meningoencephalitis
    b. Aseptic meningitis
    c. Encephalitis
    d. Meningitis
A

b

93
Q
  1. The culture of which sample routinely uses quantitation or the counting of bacterial cells present to assist in the interpretation?
    a. Blood
    b. Sputum
    c. Urine
    d. Abscess
A

c

94
Q
  1. Gram staining and reading a glass slide with a mixed smear of Staphylococcus and Escherichia coli along with each Gram staining run of specimens examined within the microbiology laboratory that day is an example of which of the following?
    a. Quality assurance (QA) activity
    b. Quality control (QC) activity
    c. National regulatory activity
    d. Office of Safety and Health Administration activity
A

b

95
Q
  1. Tracking the rate of skin organism contamination among a laboratory’s blood culture results on a monthly basis and introducing specific training to phlebotomists when rates exceed the norm would be an example of which of the following?
    a. Good laboratory practice
    b. Quality control
    c. Universal standards
    d. Quality assurance
A

d

96
Q
  1. Which of the following statements best defines “infectious substances”?
    a. Articles or substances capable of posing a risk to safety
    b. Substances known or reasonably expected to contain pathogens
    c. Patient samples containing bacteria
    d. Samples with class 3 pathogens
A

b

97
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of an inappropriate specimen or condition that would warrant rejection for microbiology culture?
    a. A nonsterile container for a stool culture
    b. A swab of a skin and soft tissue infection
    c. A tissue sample for anaerobic culture
    d. A 24-hour urine sample for bacteriology
    culture
A

d

Elsa (5 decks)

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